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CompTIA 220-1002 Practice testing questions from Youtube

latest updated CompTIA 220-1002 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Ann, an employee at a company, calls the help disk to report issues logging on to a vendor\\’s website. Joe, the
technician, is able to log in successfully with his credentials before going to Ann\\’s office. However, when he attempts to
log in from
Ann\\’s office, Joe experiences the same issue. Ann asks Joe questions about the new software installed on the laptop
from the pop-up notification.
Which of the following are the NEXT steps Joe should take to resolve the issue? (Select two.)
A. Ask Ann for her credentials to verify and log on to the vendor\\’s website from Ann\\’s laptop
B. Verify Ann\\’s laptop has the correct browser settings
C. Check all browser cached files on Ann\\’s laptop and log on to another vendor\\’s website
D. Attempt to log on to another vendor\\’s website from Ann\\’s laptop
E. Ask Ann about the notification and review the installed programs
F. Reinstall the browser, reboot the laptop, and check the vendor\\’s website again
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following variable types should be used to store the data “Chicago” within a script or code?
A. Integer
B. String
C. Boolean
D. Float
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
A user notices recent print jobs are not printing to the local printer despite printing fine yesterday. There are no errors
indicated on the taskbar printer icon. Which of the following actions should the user take FIRST?
A. Check to ensure the printer selected is the default printer
B. Check the status of the print server queue
C. Cancel all documents and print them again
D. Check that the printer is not offline print mode
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
A technician receives the Chief Executive Officer\\’s (CEO\\’s) Windows 10 laptop, which has been infected with
malware. The technician wants to make sure best practices are followed for troubleshooting and remediating the
malware. Which of the following best practices should the technician perform FIRST in this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. Disconnect the device from the network
B. Identify and research the symptoms
C. Restore the computer to the previous checkpoint
D. Scan and use removal techniques
E. Create a restore point
F. Educate the end user
G. Schedule scans and run updates
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 5
A MAC user\\’s operating system became corrupted, and files were deleted after malware was downloaded. The user
needs to access the data that was previously stored on the MAC. Which of the following built-in utilities should be
used?
A. Time Machine
B. Snapshot
C. System Restore
D. Boot Camp
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
A technician is selling up a computer that will have a hypervisor installed. The technician checks the specifications of the
available computer. Which of the following specifications are MOST important to consider? (Select TWO)
A. Size of HDD
B. Speed of NIC
C. Graphic resolution
D. External storage
E. Amount of RAW
F. Second NIC installed
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 7
A technician received 300 old desktops following a recent computer upgrade. After taking inventory of the old machines,
the technician must destroy the data on the HDDs. Which of the following would be the MOST effective method to
accomplish this task?
A. Drill
B. Hammer
C. Low-level format
D. Degaussing
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which of the following Microsoft operating systems defaults to a tiled menu instead of the desktop?
A. Windows 7
B. Windows 8
C. Windows 8.1
D. Windows 10
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following threats uses personalized information in an attempt at obtaining information?
A. Whaling
B. Impersonation
C. Spoofing
D. Spear phishing
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
A technician has identified malware on a user\\’s system. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT
according to malware removal best practices?
A. Enable System Restore and create a restore point so no data is lost
B. Educate the user about how to avoid malware in the future
C. Update the antivirus software and run a full system scan
D. Move the infected system to a lab with no network connectivity
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
A technician is troubleshooting a printer issue on a Windows computer and wants to disable the printer to test a theory.
Which of the following should the technician use to accomplish this?
A. Devices and Printers
B. Sync Center
C. Device Manger
D. Power Options
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
While preparing a computer that will be issued to a new user, the technician discovers the computer\\’s former user
configured a supervisor password in the BIOS. Which of the following can the technician do to allow the password to be
removed?
A. Reimage the machine from a network share
B. Change the boot order and boot to an external drive
C. Remove and then replace the CMOS battery
D. Use the BIOS user password to reset the supervisor password
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
A company\\’s security team has noticed a lot of unusual network traffic coming from an internal IP address. The team
wants to obtain the name of the computer and then troubleshoot. Which of the following tools would BEST accomplish
this task?
A. nslookup
B. ipconfig
C. tracert
D. ping
Correct Answer: A
New Question, pending the Answer.

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CompTIA 220-1001 Practice testing questions from Youtube

latest updated CompTIA 220-1001 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
A customer\\’s workstation will not boot. A technician runs diagnostics on the system and discovers it is set up in a RAID
0 configuration, and a single SATA hard drive has failed. The system was set up for performance. Once repaired, the
customer requests redundancy be built into the system and an increase in performance.
Which of the following describes how the technician should set up the new RAID configuration?
A. RAID 1 configuration that will utilize new SSD
B. RAID 5 configuration that will allow the loss of a hard drive without failure
C. RAID 6 configuration that will allow the loss of two hard drives without failure
D. RAID 10 configuration utilizing new HDD
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Multiple users report that the network printer, which is connected through the print server, is not printing.
Which of the following should a technician do FIRST to remedy this situation?
A. Replace the USB cable.
B. Reinstall the drivers on users\\’ PCs.
C. have users restart their PCs.
D. Clear the print queue.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
A technician is building a Windows server to meet the specific needs of a user. The user needs to house a replica of a
very large SQL database to be able to query the database locally.
Which of the following drive configurations would BEST meet the requirements while providing the maximum amount of
performance and storage?
A. OS disk: 128GB M2 Data disk: 4TB 7200rpm HDD
B. OS disk: 256GB 5400rpm HDD Data disk: 1TB 5400rpm HDD
C. OS disk: 512GB 15000rpm HDD Data disk: 64GB M2
D. OS disk: 1TB 7200rpm HDD Data disk: 128GB 10000rpm HDD
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A business owner is concerned about excessive paper usage but is not concerned about the wear to the printer of the
use of toner. The business owner asks a technician to find a low-cost solution.
Which of the following is the BEST action for the technician to perform?
A. Configure duplexing
B. Enable collating
C. Adjust the orientation
D. Decrease the quality
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
A systems administrator wants to take advantage of the benefits of the major cloud providers while retaining some data
and services in the local datacenter.
Which of the following types of cloud model should the administrator consider?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Hybrid
D. Community
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
A customer has the LCD display in a laptop replaced. After the repair, the customer notices the laptop is showing a
weaker WiFi signal than before the display was replaced. Which of the following BEST explains the lower WiFi signal?
A. The antenna is too close to the screen\\’s power inverter.
B. The new LCD panel is causing interference.
C. The digitizer is calibrated improperly.
D. The radio antennas are damaged.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
An employee\\’s mobile device no longer charges, and the employee believes the battery is bad. A technician tests the
mobile device and finds it will charge on a wireless charging pad but not when it is connected to a charging cable. Other
devices charge without issue when the cable is used. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST to
resolve the issue?
A. Clean out the charging port on the device
B. Replace the mobile device\\’s battery
C. Issue a new charging cable to the employee
D. Send the device for service and give the employee a loaner
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
A technician has configured a custom PC with an eight-core processor. 8GD of RAM a 500GB SSD, and a 100Mbps
NIC for a user who utilizes it for CAD design The user has stated that every tune the CAD program is launched, it slows
down and is almost unusable Which of the following should the technician do to impact system performance the
MOST?
A. Increase the CPUs to 16 cores.
B. Increase the memory to 37GB.
C. Increase the SSD size to 1 IB.
D. Replace the NIC with a 1 Gbps NIC.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A technician ha just installed a new power ATX power supply in a PC. The technician attached the power cable
attempted boot the machine. The machine prompts with a POST beep code referencing issues with the CPU. Which of
the following connections should be checked?
A. P12 connector
B. HDD Molex connector
C. Fan header connectors
D. ATX power connector
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
A technician is setting up a new wireless network at a branch office that previously had only wired connectivity with
statically assigned IP addresses. After setting up the network, the technician configures a server to provide IP
addresses to wireless clients. During testing, the technician is unable to access the Internet or named network
resources. The technician receives a valid IP address from the DHCP server and can ping the default gateway.
Which of the following should be technician check NEXT to resolve this issue?
A. Ensure the options are configured to provide a DNS server.
B. Verify the Windows Firewall is turned off.
C. Configure the wireless network\\’s SSID to be hidden.
D. Enable file and printer sharing in the OS.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
A developer wants to add a Windows 10 64-bit VM with the minimum system requirements to a virtual host workstation.
The virtual host is running Windows Server 2008 R2 and has 24GB of RAM, a 1TB hard drive, and a Gigabit Ethernet
NIC with Cat 5e cabling. The current configuration of VMs is as follows:
1.
Windows 7 VM with 4GB RAM and 200GB HDD
2.
Linux VM with 16GB RAM and 200GB HDD
3.
Linux VM with 2GB RAM and 100GB HDD
Which of the following should the technician recommend to the developer FIRST?
A. Increase the HDD in the virtual host
B. Install an additional NIC and configure teaming
C. Upgrade the network cabling to Cat 6
D. Increase the memory in the virtual host
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
A user purchases a wireless printer and sets it up in an office. The user installs all necessary software for the printer on
the computer and connects the printer to the guest wireless network. However, when the user attempts to print to the
printer, nothing happens.
Which of the following will resolve the issue?
A. Set up the user\\’s computer to act as a print server.
B. Configure the printer to use the Internet printing protocol.
C. Ensure the user\\’s computer is set to DHCP.
D. Connect the printer to the company wireless network.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
A customer is using a cloud storage program that maintains a copy of local files on the cloud storage servers. The WiFi
network is not very fast, and the customer uses bandwidth-intensive video streaming all day. Which of the following
parameters should be adjusted to keep the cloud storage program from using too much bandwidth?
A. Synchronization settings
B. Wireless settings
C. Video streaming settings
D. QoS settings
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
A. 0
B. 110
C. 38443
D. 3184439
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q2

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with
IP address 10.20.20.1/24?lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q3

A. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1
255.255.255.0
B. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1
255.255.255.0
C. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
D. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q4-1

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to
interface FastEthernet 0/1?lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5

A. DHCP client
B. access point
C. router
D. PC
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibitlead4pass 200-301 exam questions q6

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers
must be able to access the web server.

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q6-1

Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
How can the Cisco Discovery Protocol be used?
A. to allow a switch to discover the devices that are connected to its ports
B. to determine the hardware platform of the device
C. to determine the IP addresses of connected Cisco devices
D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
A. 2000::/3
B. FC00::/7
C. FE80::/10
D. FF00::/8
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q9

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2. The configuration failed to work as intended.
Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while
still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two.)
A. Add a “permit ip any any” statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.
B. Add a “permit ip any any” statement to the beginning of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.
C. The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2.
D. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101.
E. The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 10
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?
A. collision
B. CRC
C. runt
D. late collision
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
A. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
B. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
C. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
A. 172.9.0.0/16
B. 172.28.0.0/16
C. 192.0.0.0/8
D. 209.165.201.0/24
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be
allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior?
(Choose two.)
A. The ACL is empty
B. A matching permit statement is too broadly defined
C. The packets fail to match any permit statement
D. A matching deny statement is too high in the access list
E. A matching permit statement is too high in the access list
Correct Answer: BE

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Cisco 200-201 Practice testing questions from Youtube

latest updated Cisco 200-201 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which type of data collection requires the largest amount of storage space?
A. alert data
B. transaction data
C. session data
D. full packet capture
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
What does cyber attribution identity in an investigation?
A. cause of an attack
B. exploit of an attack
C. vulnerabilities exploited
D. threat actors of an attack
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3lead4pass 200-201 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. This request was sent to a web application server driven by a database.
Which type of web server attack is represented?
A. parameter manipulation
B. heap memory corruption
C. command injection
D. blind SQL injection
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
What is the benefit of agent-based protection when compared to agentless protection?
A. It lowers maintenance costs
B. It provides a centralized platform
C. It collects and detects all traffic locally
D. It manages numerous devices simultaneously
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
What is the difference between statistical detection and rule-based detection models?
A. Rule-based detection involves the collection of data in relation to the behavior of legitimate users over a period of
time
B. Statistical detection defines legitimate data of users over a period of time and rule-based detection defines it on an
IF/THEN basis
C. Statistical detection involves the evaluation of an object on its intended actions before it executes that behavior
D. Rule-based detection defines legitimate data of users over a period of time and statistical detection defines it on an
IF/THEN basis
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6lead4pass 200-201 exam questions q6

Refer to the exhibit. What information is depicted?
A. IIS data
B. NetFlow data
C. network discovery event
D. IPS event data
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
How does an attacker observe network traffic exchanged between two users?
A. port scanning
B. man-in-the-middle
C. command injection
D. denial of service
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8lead4pass 200-201 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. What is the expected result when the “Allow subdissector to reassemble TCP streams” feature is
enabled?
A. insert TCP subdissectors
B. extract a file from a packet capture
C. disable TCP streams
D. unfragment TCP
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation and traffic mirroring?
A. Inline inspection acts on the original traffic data flow
B. Traffic mirroring passes live traffic to a tool for blocking
C. Traffic mirroring inspects live traffic for analysis and mitigation
D. Inline traffic copies packets for analysis and security
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
What causes events on a Windows system to show Event Code 4625 in the log messages?
A. The system detected an XSS attack
B. Someone is trying a brute force attack on the network
C. Another device is gaining root access to the system
D. A privileged user successfully logged into the system
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?
A. SSL interception
B. packet header size
C. signature detection time
D. encryption
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12lead4pass 200-201 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. Which application protocol is in this PCAP file?
A. SSH
B. TCP
C. TLS
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its
integrity?
A. examination
B. investigation
C. collection
D. reporting
Correct Answer: C

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Latest updates Microsoft MS-500 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain name of contoso.com.
The multi-factor authentication (MFA) service settings are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q1

In contoso.com, you create the users shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q1-1

What is the effect of the configuration? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q1-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q1-3

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. You create a label named CompanyConfidential in Microsoft Azure Information
Protection.
You add CompanyConfidential to global policy.
A user protects an email message by using CompanyConfidential and sends the label to several external recipients.
The external recipients report that they cannot open the email message.
You need to ensure that the external recipients can open protected email messages sent to them.
Solution: You create a new label in the global policy and instruct the user to resend the email message.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain name of contoso.com. Microsoft Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD) contains the users shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q3

Both devices have three apps named App1, App2, and App3 installed. You create an app protection policy named
ProtectionPolicy1 that has the following settings: Protected apps: App1 Exempt apps: App2 Windows Information
Protection mode: Block
You apply ProtectionPolicy1 to Group1 and Group3. You exclude Group2 from ProtectionPolicy1.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q3-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q3-2

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You create an Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) Safe attachments policy to quarantine malware.
You need to configure the retention duration for the attachments in quarantine.
Which type of threat management policy should you create from the SecurityandCompliance admin center?
A. ATP anti-phishing
B. DKIM
C. Anti-spam
D. Anti-malware
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You have the Microsoft conditions shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q5

You have the Azure Information Protection policies shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q5-1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q5-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q5-3

QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You have a site collection named SiteCollection1 that contains a site named Site2. Site2 contains a document library
named Customers.
Customers contain a document named Litware.docx. You need to remove Litware.docx permanently.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q6-1

QUESTION 7

Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain. The domain contains servers that run Windows Server
and have advanced auditing enabled.
The security logs of the servers are collected by using a third-party SIEM solution.
You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription and plan to deploy Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) by using
standalone sensors.
You need to ensure that you can detect when sensitive groups are modified and when malicious services are created.
What should you do?
A. Configure auditing in the Office 365 Security and Compliance center.
B. Turn off Delayed updates for the Azure ATP sensors.
C. Modify the Domain synchronizer candidate\\’s settings on the Azure ATP sensors.
D. Integrate SIEM and Azure ATP.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure-advanced-threat-protection/install-atp-step5

QUESTION 8
You need to configure threat detection for Active Directory. The solution must meet the security requirements.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place: lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q8-1

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You identify the following data loss prevention (DLP) requirements: Send notifications to users if they attempt to send
attachments that contain EU social security numbers Prevent any email messages that contain credit card numbers
from being sent outside your organization Block the external sharing of Microsoft OneDrive content that contains EU
passport numbers Send administrators email alerts if any rule matches occur.
What is the minimum number of DLP policies and rules you must create to meet the requirements? To answer, select
the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q8-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q8-3

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that is associated to a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant
named contoso.com.
You use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to federate on-premises Active Directory and the tenant. Azure
AD Connect has the following settings:
1.
Source Anchor: objectGUID
2.
Password Hash Synchronization: Disabled

3.
Password writeback: Disabled
4.
Directory extension attribute sync: Disabled
5.
Azure AD app and attribute filtering: Disabled
6.
Exchange hybrid deployment: Disabled
7.
User writeback: Disabled
You need to ensure that you can use leaked credentials detection in Azure AD Identity Protection.
Solution: You modify the Password Hash Synchronization settings.
Does that meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-ad-secure-steps

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You create a retention label named Label1 as shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q11

You publish Label1 to SharePoint sites.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q11-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q11-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/labels

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that contains the users shown in
the following table.lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q12

You create and enforce an Azure AD Identity Protection user risk policy that has the following settings:
1. Assignments: Include Group1, Exclude Group2
2. Conditions: Sign-in risk of Low and above
3. Access: Allow access, Require password change
You need to identify how the policy affects User1 and User2.
What occurs when User1 and User2 sign in from an unfamiliar location? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: 

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q12-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q12-2

QUESTION 13
You need to implement Windows Defender ATP to meet the security requirements. What should you do?
A. Configure port mirroring
B. Create the ForceDefenderPassiveMode registry setting
C. Download and install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent
D. Run WindowsDefenderATPOnboardingScript.cmd
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What is the benefit of the application-aware firewall?
A. It blocks traffic by MAC address
B. It blocks traffic by MTU of the packet.
C. It blocks traffic by application.
D. It blocks encrypted traffic
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_data_zbf/configuration/xe-16-9/sec-data-zbf-xe-16-9-book/secdata-zbf-xe-16-9-book_chapter_0100100.html

 

QUESTION 2
When redistribution is configured between OMP and BGP at two Data Center sites that have Direct Connection interlink,
which step avoids learning the same routes on WAN Edge routers of the DCs from LAN?
A. Define different VRFs on both DCs
B. Set the same overlay AS on both DC WAN Edge routers
C. Set down-bit on Edge routers on DC1
D. Set OMP admin distance lower than BGP admin distance
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which on-the-box security feature k supported by the Cisco ISR 4451 SD-WAN device and not on vEdge?
A. Cloud Express service
B. Enterprise Firewall with Application Awareness
C. reverse proxy
D. IPsec/GRE cloud proxy
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Which logs verify when a device was upgraded?
A. Audit
B. Email
C. ACL
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which template configures the out-of-band management VPN?lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q5 lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q5-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
On which device Is a service FW address configured to Insert firewall service at the hub?
A. vEdge at the branch
B. vSmart at the hub
C. vEdge at the hub
D. vSmart at the branch
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/Software_Features/Release_18.4/07Policy_Applications/02Service_Chaining/Service_Chaining_Configuration_Examples

 

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco SD-WAN WAN Edge platform supports LTE and Wi-Fi?
A. vEdge2000
B. ASR1001
C. CSR 1000v
D. ISR 1101
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the vManage policy configuration procedures from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q8-1

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/vedge/policies-book/datapolicies.html

 

QUESTION 9
Which alarm setting is configured to monitor serious events that affect but do not shut down, the operation of a network
function?
A. Minor
B. Major
C. Medium
D. Critical
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/vManage_HowTos/Troubleshooting/Monitor_Alarms

 

QUESTION 10
A policy is created to influence routing in the network using a group of prefixes. What policy application will achieve this goal when applied to a site list?
A. Vpn-membership policy
B. Control-policy
C. cflowd-template
D. App-route policy
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
What are the two advantages of deploying cloud-based Cisco SD-WAN controllers? (Choose two.)
A. centralized control and data plane
B. distributed authentication policies
C. management of SLA
D. infrastructure as a service
E. centralized raid storage of data
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
Which value is verified in the certificates to confirm the identity of the physical WAN Edge device?
A. Serial Number
B. OTP
C. System-IP
D. Chassis-ID
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which command displays BFD session summary information per TLOC on vEdge routers?
A. show bfd history
B. show bfd summary
C. show BFD sessions
D. show BFD tloc-summary-list
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/command/sdwan-cr-book/sdwan-cr-book_chapter_0100.html

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the SNMP attributes in Cisco IOS devices from the left onto the correct SNMPv2c or SNMPV3 categories
on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco VPN technology can use the multipoint tunnel, resulting in a single GRE tunnel interface on the hub, to support
multiple connections from multiple spoke devices?
A. DMVPN
B. GETVPN
C. Cisco Easy VPN
D. FlexVPN
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which next hop is going to be used for 172.17.1.0/24?lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q3

A. 10.0.0.1
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 10.0.0.2
D. 192.168.3.2
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which label operations are performed by a label edge router?
A. SWAP and POP
B. SWAP and PUSH
C. PUSH and PHP
D. PUSH and POP
Correct Answer: D
A label edge router (LER, also known as edge LSR) is a router that operates at the edge of an MPLS network and acts
as the entry and exit points for the network. LERs push an MPLS label onto an incoming packet and pop it off an
outgoing
packet.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nxos/mpls/configuration/guide/mpls_cg/mp_mpls_overview.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the OSPF adjacency states from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q5-1 lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q5-2

Down This is the first OSPF neighbor state. It means that no information (hellos) has been received from this neighbor,
but hello packets can still be sent to the neighbor in this state. During the fully adjacent neighbor state, if a router
doesn\\’t receive a hello packet from a neighbor within the Router Dead Interval time (RouterDeadInterval =
4*HelloInterval by default) or if the manually configured neighbor is being removed from the configuration, then the
neighbor state changes from Full to Down.
Attempt This state is only valid for manually configured neighbors in an NBMA environment. In an Attempt state, the router
sends unicast hello packets every poll interval to the neighbor, from which hellos have not been received within the
dead interval. Init This state specifies that the router has received a hello packet from its neighbor, but the receiving
router\\’s ID was not included in the Hello packet. When a router receives a hello packet from a neighbor, it should list
the sender\\’s router ID in its hello packet as an acknowledgment that it received a valid hello packet.
2-Way This state designates that bi-directional communication has been established between two routers. Bi-directional
means that each router has seen the other\\’s hello packet. This state is attained when the router receiving the hello
packet sees its own Router ID within the received hello packet\\’s neighbor field. At this state, a router decides whether
to become adjacent to this neighbor. On broadcast media and non-broadcast multiaccess networks, a router becomes
full only with the designated router (DR) and the backup designated router (BDR); it stays in the 2-way state with all
other neighbors. On Point-to-point and Point-to-multipoint networks, a router becomes full with all connected routers. At
the end of this stage, the DR and BDR for broadcast and non-broadcast multiaccess networks are elected. For more
information on the DR election process, refer to DR Election. Note: Receiving a Database Descriptor (DBD) packet from
a neighbor in the init state will also cause a transition to a 2-way state.
Exstart Once the DR and BDR are elected, the actual process of exchanging link-state information can start between
the routers and their DR and BDR. (ie. Shared or NBMA networks). In this state, the routers and their DR and BDR
establish a master-slave relationship and choose the initial sequence number for adjacency formation. The router with
the higher router ID becomes the master and starts the exchange, and as such, is the only router that can increment the
sequence number. Note that one would logically conclude that the DR/BDR with the highest router ID will become the
master during this process of master-slave relation. Remember that the DR/BDR election might be purely by virtue of a
higher priority configured on the router instead of the highest router ID. Thus, it is possible that DR plays the role of a slave.
And also note that the master/slave election is on a per-neighbor basis.
Exchange In the exchange state, OSPF routers exchange database descriptor (DBD) packets. Database descriptors
contain link-state advertisement (LSA) headers only and describe the contents of the entire link-state database. Each
DBD packet has a sequence number that can be incremented only by the master which is explicitly acknowledged by the slave. Routers also send link-state request packets and link-state update packets (which contain the entire LSA) in this
state. The contents of the DBD received are compared to the information contained in the routers link-state database to
check if new or more current link-state information is available with the neighbor.
Loading In this state, the actual exchange of link-state information occurs. Based on the information provided by the
DBDs, routers send link-state request packets. The neighbor then provides the requested link-state information in link state update packets. During the adjacency, if a router receives an outdated or missing LSA, it requests that LSA by
sending a link-state request packet. All link-state update packets are acknowledged.
Full In this state, routers are fully adjacent to each other. All the router and network LSAs are exchanged and the
routers\\’ databases are fully synchronized. Full is the normal state for an OSPF router. If a router is stuck in another
state, it is an indication that there are problems in forming adjacencies. The only exception to this is the 2-way state,
which is normal in a broadcast network. Routers achieve the FULL state with their DR and BDR in NBMA/broadcast
media and FULL state with every neighbor in the remaining media such as point-to-point and point-to-multipoint. Note:
The DR and BDR that achieve a FULL state with every router on the segment will display FULL/BROTHER when you
enter the show IP OSPF neighbor command on either a DR or BDR. This simply means that the neighbor is not a DR or
BDR, but since the router on which the command was entered is either a DR or BDR, this shows the neighbor as
FULL/BROTHER.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html
+
Each router compares the DBD packets that were received from the other router: Exchange
+
Routers exchange information with other routers in the multiaccess network: Exstart
+
The neighboring router requests the other routers to send missing entries: Loading
+
The network has already elected a DR and a backup BDR: 2-way
+
The OSPF router ID of the receiving router was not contained in the hello message: Init
+
No hellos have been received from a neighbor router: Down
When OSPF adjacency is formed, a router goes through several state changes before it becomes fully adjacent with its
neighbor.
The states are Down -> Attempt (optional) -> Init -> 2-Way -> Exstart -> Exchange -> Loading -> Full. Short descriptions
about these states are listed below:
Down: no information (hellos) has been received from this neighbor. Attempt: only valid for manually configured
neighbors in an NBMA environment. In Attempt state, the router sends unicast hello packets every poll interval to the
neighbor,
from which hellos have not been received within the dead interval.
Init: specifies that the router has received a hello packet from its neighbor, but the receiving router\\’s ID was not
included in the hello packet
2-Way: indicates bi-directional communication has been established between two routers. Extract: Once the DR and
BDR is elected, the actual process of exchanging link-state information can start between the routers and their DR
and
BDR.
Exchange: OSPF routers exchange and compare database descriptor (DBD) packets Loading: In this state, the actual
exchange of link-state information occurs. Outdated or missing entries are also requested to be resent.
Full: routers are fully adjacent with each other
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080093f0e.shtml
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer executes the show ipv6 OSPF database command and is presented with the
output that is shown. Which flooding scope is referenced in the link-state type?lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q6

A. link-local
B. area
C. As (OSPF domain)
D. reserved
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. During troubleshooting, it was discovered that the device is not reachable using a secure web
browser. What is needed to fix the problem?
A. permit TCP port 443
B. permit UDP port 465
C. permit TCP port 465
D. permit TCP port 22
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. In which circumstance does the BGP neighbor remain in the idle condition?
A. if prefixes are not received from the BGP peer
B. if prefixes reach the maximum limit
C. if a prefix list is applied in the inbound direction
D. if prefixes exceed the maximum limit
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to block the route to 192.168.2.2 from the routing table by using the
configuration that is shown. The route is still present in the routing table as an OSPF route. Which action blocks the
route?lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q9

A. Use an extended access list instead of a standard access list.
B. Change sequence 10 in the route-map command from permit to deny.
C. Use a prefix-list instead of an access list in the route map.
D. Add this statement to the route map: route-map RM-OSPF-DL denies 20.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
While working with software images, an engineer observes that Cisco DNA Center cannot upload its software image
directly from the device. Why is the image not uploading?
A. The device must be resynced to Cisco DNA Center.
B. The software image for the device is in install mode.
C. The device has lost connectivity to Cisco DNA Center.
D. The software image for the device is in bundle mode
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-and/management/dna-center/1-2-10/user_guide/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_1_2_10/b_dnac_ug_1_2_10_chapter_0100.html

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q11

A company is evaluating multiple network management system tools. Trending graphs generated by SNMP data are
returned by the NMS and appear to have multiple gaps. While troubleshooting the issue, an engineer noticed the
relevant output.
What solves the gaps in the graphs?
A. Remove the exceed-rate command in the class map.
B. Remove the class-map NMS from being part of control plane policing.
C. Configure the CIR rate to a lower value that accommodates all the NMS tools
D. Separate the NMS class-map into multiple class maps based on the specific protocols with appropriate CoPP actions
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/copp_best_practices

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the following output:
Router#show ip nhrp detail
1.1.2/8 via 10.2.1.2, Tunnel1 created 00:00:12, expire 01:59:47 TypE. dynamic, Flags: authoritative unique nat
registered used NBMA address:
10.12.1.2
What does the authoritative flag mean in regards to the NHRP information?
A. It was obtained directly from the next-hop server.
B. Data packets are process switches for this mapping entry.
C. NHRP mapping is for networks that are local to this router.
D. The mapping entry was created in response to an NHRP registration request.
E. The NHRP mapping entry cannot be overwritten
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Drag and drop the operations from the left onto the locations where the operations are performed on the right. Drag
each definition on the left to the matching term on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q13

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q13-1

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Lead4Pass has 7 years of exam experience! A number of professional Cisco exam experts! Update exam questions throughout the year! The most complete exam questions and answers! The safest buying experience! The greatest free sharing of exam practice questions and answers!
Our goal is to help more people pass the Cisco exam! Exams are a part of life, but they are important! In the study, you need to sum up the study! Trust Lead4Pass to help you pass the exam 100%!
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Summarize:

This blog shares the latest Cisco 300-410 exam dumps, 300-410 exam questions and answers! 300-410 pdf, 300-410 exam video!
You can also practice the test online! Lead4pass is the industry leader!
Select Lead4Pass 300-410 exams Pass Cisco 300-410 exams “Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)”. Help you successfully pass the 300-410 exam.

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QUESTION 1
Which tool is available to expand the size of Cisco Unified ICM databases?
A. Microsoft SQL Studio
B. DBExpand
C. database sizing utility
D. ICMDBA
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which batch script can be used to view VXML application states and port count for a Cisco Unified CVP VXML server?
A. getVersions.bat
B. status.bat
C. updateApp.bat
D. displayApp.bat
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
What must be enabled when configuring voice gateways to support SIP dialers?
A. 100rel
B. signaling forward unconditional
C. 200rel
D. signaling forward 100
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 500-450 exam questions q4

In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise 10.0 Outbound Option with SIP Dialer, you check the status of the Dialer
process from Diagnostic Framework Portico. What does the circled message “R” represent?
A. customer instance name
B. telephony port status
C. configured ports
D. ready ports
E. reserved ports
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which three objects are created by the Domain Manager tool in the Cisco Unified ICM? (Choose three.)
A. ICM Organizational Unit
B. ICM facility
C. ICM User Group policy
D. ICM Security policy
E. ICM instance
F. ICM agent users
Correct Answer: ABE

 

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum number of agents that can be configured within Cisco Packaged Contact Center Enterprise up to
release 10.5?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 2000
D. 6000
E. 76,000
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
When performing an upgrade to Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, which components do not need to be
upgraded together during the same maintenance window?
A. Cisco Unified ICM call router and logger
B. Cisco Unified ICM call router and administrative workstation
C. Cisco Unified ICM call router and peripheral gateway
D. administrative workstation and HDS-DDS
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which statement about administrative scripts in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution is true?
A. Administrative scripts can run more than one time per second.
B. Administrative scripts must be associated with a call type.
C. Administrative scripts can use a DB Lookup node.
D. Administrative scripts can use an ICM Gateway node.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable?
A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could
increment from 151191 to 151192.
B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could advance
from “Monday” to “Tuesday”.
C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example: at midnight it would
reset to zero.
D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call.
E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution with SIP Dialer, which option lists the correct order to set up the
components (assuming the agent peripheral gateway host already exists)?
A. configure media routing peripheral gateway, dialer; install media routing peripheral gateway, dialer
B. configure dialer, port map, media routing peripheral gateway; install dialer, media routing peripheral gateway
C. install dialer, media routing peripheral gateway; configure dialer, port map, media routing peripheral gateway
D. install media routing peripheral gateway, dialer; configure media routing peripheral gateway, dialer
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 500-450 exam questions q11

The Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal post-call survey is enabled on OAMP. Which option describes what the survey
Does the dialed number pattern represent?
A. dial-peer configured for survey DN
B. dialed number configured for UCCE scripts
C. route pattern configured for survey DN
D. dial-peer configured for survey DN and dialed number configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise scripts
E. dial-peer and route pattern configured for survey DN and dialed number configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center
Enterprise scripts
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
In the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution, which process is responsible for peer-to-peer synchronization?
A. ccagent
B. MDS
C. router
D. OPC
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
When configuring the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Courtesy Callback feature in the ingress and VXML gateway,
which configuration is needed to ensure that SIP is set up to forward SIP INFO messaging?
A. signaling sip forward unconditional
B. signaling forward conditional
C. signaling forward unconditional
D. signaling forward unconditional sip info
E. signaling forward conditional sip info
Correct Answer: C

 

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Studio scripts are allowed to be modified for the Courtesy Callback
feature?
A. BillingQueue, Callback Engine, CallbackEntry, CallbackQueue, CallbackWait
B. Billing, Callback Engine, CallbackEntry, CallbackQueue, CallbackWait
C. BillingQueue, Callback Engine, CallbackEntry, CallbackBilling, CallbackWait
D. BillingQueue, CallbackEntry, CallbackWait
E. BillingQueue, Callback Engine, CallbackEntry
F. Billing, CallbackEntry, CallbackWait
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement about using agent targeting rules in Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is true?
A. Agent device targets must be created for each phone that is used by an agent.
B. Agent labels must be created for each routing client that can route calls to an agent.
C. Agent extensions can be defined as a range, without having to build each device target.
D. Agent targeting rules are not allowed with translation routes.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
The JTAPI communications between the Cisco Unified Communication Manager cluster and Cisco Unified Contact
Center Enterprise includes three distinct types of messaging. Which two options are those messages? (Choose two.)
A. devise and call monitoring
B. SIP call control messages
C. service control
D. single sign-on messages
E. routing control (Cisco Unified CM cluster request instructions from Cisco Unified CCE)
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 4
A customer has a remote site with 100 agents, and the remote site only has SRST for E.911. 50% of the supervisors are
located at HQ where the data center is. The agents to supervisor ratio is 10%. The customer requires that supervisors
from any remote site can record and silent monitor active calls. With BW design consideration, how many minimum RTP
streams are needed between the data center and agent remote sites?
A. 300 RTP streams
B. 150 RTP streams
C. 110 RTP streams
D. 120 RTP streams
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, primary and secondary nodes can be installed on separate domains. Which two
requirements must be met for the pair to work properly? (Choose two.)
A. Each Cisco Finesse server should be able to perform a DNS lookup of the other server using a fully qualified domain
name.
B. Primary and secondary Cisco Finesse servers should only communicate with IP addresses.
C. All Cisco Finesse clients should be able to perform DNS lookups of the Cisco Finesse servers using the FQDN.
D. All Cisco Finesse clients should connect to the server with IP address.
E. All Cisco Finesse clients should be local to the Cisco Finesse servers.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 6
Which three statements about the high availability of the Cisco Unified Intelligent Contact Management central controller are
valid? (Choose three.)
A. If one ICM call router of a duplex pair of Cisco Unified ICM call routers fails, the surviving ICM call router recognizes
the failure when it receives no response to heartbeats over the private LAN.
B. During Cisco Unified ICM call router failover processing, calls in progress in Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal are
disconnected, but all new calls are processed successfully.
C. If ICM Logger Side A fails, the impact of call processing is limited to ICM call router side A.
D. If ICM Logger Side A fails, router side B cannot send historical info to ICM Logger side A and is limited to ICM Logger
side B.
E. There is no impact on call processing during a Cisco Unified ICM Logger failure.
F. If the private LAN fails, the peripheral gateways are used to help determine the active call router side of the duplex
pair.
G. If ICM Logger Side B fails, the ICM Router side B cannot send real-time and historical info to logger side A.
Correct Answer: AEF

 

QUESTION 7
Erlang calculations are used to size contact center resources. Which two resources are sized by using Erlang-B?
(Choose two.)
A. reporting ports
B. estimated wait times
C. PSTN gateway trunks
D. agents
E. IVR ports
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 8
When using micro-apps, which core components are required for calls that originate from Cisco Unified Communications
Manager to Cisco Unified CVP using Comprehensive mode?
A. CUCM: CTI Route Port, SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU, CUBE, VXML Gateway
B. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway
C. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway
D. CUCM: CTI Route Port and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about combining IP telephony and Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Extensions on the
same IP phone are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified CCE supports only one agent ACD line on the IP phone.
B. The ACD line on the IP phone may have voicemail or call forwarding defined.
C. In a typical call center, the ACD line is the first line on the phone to make it easier for the agent to forward inbound
ACD calls.
D. The agent state changes based on the activity of the ACD line.
E. If the agent picks up the phone to place a call, the agent is put into ready mode.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 10
Which three benefits does a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise centralized deployment with small agents branch
provide? (Choose three.)
A. It requires only a small data switch and router, IP phones, and agent desktops at remote sites for a few agents.
B. It requires only a limited system and network management skills at remote sites.
C. Small remote branches require PSTN and SIP trunks, in addition to the ones needed for local POTS lines for
emergency services (911) in the event of a WAN link loss.
D. PSTN trunks for incoming traffic connect to data centers for efficiency.
E. It does not use VoIP WAN bandwidth when an agent is answering the call.
F. Calls extend over the WAN only while calls are in the queue.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 11
Which two features does the Cisco Unified Border Element provide when Cisco Unified CCE and Cisco Unified Customer
Voice Portals are used? (Choose two.)
A. load-balancing outbound calls
B. secure communication using flow around mode
C. normalize SIP messages using SIP profiles
D. Silent Monitor inbound voice calls
E. record calls by forking the media
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
Which three WAN/MAN configurations are valid in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise clustering over the WAN
deployment model? (Choose three.)
A. A highly available visible network WAN/MAN/DWDM and a dedicated private network WAN.
B. A highly available MPLS WAN shared by the visible and private networks with a 2 second convergence time.
C. A highly available MPLS WAN shared by the visible and private networks where the private network is pinned to a
single path and the visible network aligned to an alternate path failing to the private network path as a redundant link with
QoS and bandwidth provisioning.
D. A highly available DWDM/CWDM network shared by the visible and private networks with a sub-500 ms convergence
time.
E. All traffic is converged on a single MPLS network by using appropriate QoS markings and settings to ensure latency
and bandwidth requirements.
F. A highly available DWDM/CWDM network shared by the visible and private networks with 1500 ms convergence
time.
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 500-440 exam questions q13

Which includes three inbound call flows with their respective average handle times. The deployment includes Cisco
Unified Contact Center Enterprise, Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal, Cisco Unified Communication Manager, and
Cisco Unified Border Element. The customer needs to record all agent conversations with callers. What is the minimum
average handle time needed to determine how many recording ports are required?
A. 290.0 seconds
B. 259.5 seconds
C. 146.9 seconds
D. 117.5 seconds
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You implement the Compliance Manager.
You need to retrieve status information for a control task.
Which two options can you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q1-1

References: https://content.cloudguides.com/guides/Compliance%20Manager

 

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You manage point-of-sale terminals that run Windows 7.
You must upgrade the terminals to Windows 10. Terminals must not be upgraded again for at least five years. You have
the following requirements:
1.
Perform consistent scheduling of upgrades and updates across all devices.
2.
Minimize costs.
You need to prepare for the upgrades.
What should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q2-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-overview#long-term-servicing-channel
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-overview#servicing-tools

 

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company.
You identify the following requirements:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q3

You need to assign Microsoft 365 licenses to users based on the requirements for each department.
Which type of licenses should you assign to users? To answer, drag the appropriate license types to the correct
departments. Each license type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q3-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q3-2

References: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compare-all-microsoft-365-plans
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/security/office-365-security/automated-investigation-response-office

 

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
An organization is moving to Microsoft Azure and Microsoft 365.
You need to classify the following components:
1.
website hosting
2.
a virtual machine that runs Linux
3.
document storage that uses OneDrive for Business
Match each component to its classification. To answer, drag the appropriate components from the column on the left to
its classifications on the right. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q4-1

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. The company plans to upgrade client operating systems to
Windows 10.
You need to explain the concepts of Windows as a Service (WaaS) to the management team.
Match each term to its definition. To answer, drag the appropriate terms from the column on the left to its definitions on
the right. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q5

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-deployment-rings-windows-10-updates

 

QUESTION 6
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
When you enable external access by using the Microsoft 365 admin portal, data is available to anonymous users.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect,
select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change needed.
B. the Everyone group is applied to all shares with full control
C. you must configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
D. users can send sharing invitations for specific content
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/external-sharing-overview

 

QUESTION 7

DRAG DROP
Your company uses Microsoft 365 with a business support plan.
You need to identify Service Level Agreements (SLAs) from Microsoft for the support plan.
What response can you expect for each event type? To answer, drag the appropriate responses to the correct event
types. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or
scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q7

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/servicedescriptions/office-365-platform-servicedescription/support

 

QUESTION 8
A company that has 50 employees plans to purchase a Microsoft 365 Business subscription.
Which two payment methods are available? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. (Choose two.)
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. PayPal

B. automatic bank transfer
C. Enterprise Agreement
D. credit card or debit card
Correct Answer: BD
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/subscriptions-and-billing/pay-for-yoursubscription?view=o365-worldwide

 

QUESTION 9
You need to identify which Microsoft platforms provide hybrid capabilities for migrating from an on-premises
deployment. Which two platforms provide hybrid capabilities for migration? Each correct answer provides a complete
solution. (Choose two.) NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Microsoft Skype for Business
B. Microsoft Yammer
C. Microsoft Exchange
D. Microsoft Teams
Correct Answer: AC
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/architecture-of-microsoft-hybrid-cloud-scenarios

 

QUESTION 10
You are the network administrator of a company.
The Microsoft 365 tenant contains sensitive information. Employees must verify their identities when they sign into
Microsoft 365 by providing information in addition to their Azure AD password.
You need to select the tools that employees can use to verify their identities.
Which two tools should you select? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Customer Lockbox for Office 365
B. Microsoft Security Center
C. Windows Hello for Business
D. Microsoft Authenticator
Correct Answer: CD
Two-step authentication can be implemented by using Windows Hello for Business or Microsoft Authenticator. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/hello-for-business/hello-manage-inorganization https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/4026727/microsoft-account-how-to-use-the-microsoftauthenticator-app

 

QUESTION 11
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company.
Your company wants to learn more about what happens if the availability terms of the Microsoft Office 365 services are
not met.
Where can you find this information?
A. Service Level agreement
B. Microsoft Services agreement
C. Microsoft Cloud agreement
D. Microsoft Products and Services agreement
E. Microsoft Enterprise agreement
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/servicedescriptions/office-365-platform-servicedescription/service-level-agreement

 

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You are a Microsoft 365 administrator.
You need to implement the appropriate features for each scenario.
What should you implement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q12-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/clients-and-mobile-in-exchange-online/outlook-for-ios-andandroid/secure-outlook-for-ios-and-android https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/identityprotection/overview https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pimconfigure

 

QUESTION 13
You deploy Enterprise Mobility + Security E5 and assign Microsoft 365 licenses to all employees.
Employees must not be able to share documents or forward emails that contain sensitive information outside the
company.
You need to enforce the file-sharing restrictions. What should you do?
A. Use Microsoft Azure Information Protection to define a label. Associate the label with an Azure Rights Management template that prevents the sharing of files or emails that are marked with the label.
B. Create a Microsoft SharePoint Online content type named Sensitivity. Apply the content type to other content types in
Microsoft 365. Create a Microsoft Azure Rights Management template that prevents the sharing of any content where
the Sensitivity column value is set to Sensitive.
C. Use Microsoft Azure Information Rights Protection to define a label. Associate the label with an Active Directory
Rights Management template that prevents the sharing of files or emails that are marked with the label.
D. Create a label named Sensitive. Apply a Data Layer Protection policy that notifies users when their document
contains personally identifiable information (PII).
Correct Answer: A 

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