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Latest updates Microsoft AZ-220 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have an existing Azure IoT hub.
You need to connect physical IoT devices to the IoT hub.
You are connecting the devices through a firewall that allows only port 443 and port 80.
Which of following three communication protocols can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. HTTPS
B. MQTT
C. AMQP over WebSocket
D. MQTT over WebSocket
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 2
You have an Azure IoT hub that uses a Device Provision Service instance.
You plan to deploy 100 IoT devices.
You need to confirm the identity of the devices by using the Device Provision Service.
Which three device attestation mechanisms can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. X.509 certificates
B. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) 2.0
C. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) 1.2
D. Symmetric key
E. Device Identity Composition Engine (DICE)
Correct Answer: ABD
The Device Provisioning Service supports the following forms of attestation:
X.509 certificates based on the standard X.509 certificate authentication flow.
Trusted Platform Module (TPM) based on a nonce challenge, using the TPM 2.0 standard for keys to present a signed
Shared Access Signature (SAS) token. This does not require a physical TPM on the device, but the service expects to
attest using the endorsement key per the TPM spec.
Symmetric Key based on shared access signature (SAS) Security tokens, which include a hashed signature and an
embedded expiration.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-dps/concepts-service#attestation-mechanism

 

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub.
You receive a root certification authority (CA) certificate from the security department at your company.
You need to configure the IoT hub to use the root CA certificate.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:microsoft az-220 q3

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-security-x509-get-started

 

QUESTION 4
You need to store the real-time alerts generated by Stream Analytics to meet the technical requirements. Which type of
Stream Analytics output should you configure?
A. Azure Blob storage
B. Microsoft Power BI
C. Azure Cosmos DB
D. Azure SQL Database
Correct Answer: A
When you create a Time Series Insights Preview pay-as-you-go (PAYG) SKU environment, you create two Azure
resources:
An Azure Storage general-purpose V1 blob account for cold data storage.
An Azure Time Series Insights Preview environment that can be configured for warm data storage.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/time-series-insights/time-series-insights-update-storage-ingress

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and 1,000
connected IoT devices. The IoT devices are allocated to tour enrollment groups. Each enrollment group is configured to
use
certificate attestation.
You need to decommission all the devices in a single enrollment group and the enrollment group itself.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:microsoft az-220 q5

To deprovision all of the devices that have been provisioned through an enrollment group:
Disable the enrollment group to disallow its signing certificate.
Use the list of provisioned devices for that enrollment group to disable or delete each device from the identity registry of
its respective IoT hub.
After disabling or deleting all devices from their respective IoT hubs, you can optionally delete the enrollment group. Be
aware, though, that, if you delete the enrollment group and there is an enabled enrollment group for a signing certificate
higher up in the certificate chain of one or more of the devices, those devices can re-enroll.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-dps/how-to-unprovision-devices

 

QUESTION 6
You have a Standard tier Azure IoT hub and a fleet of IoT devices.
The devices connect to the IoT hub by using either Message Queuing Telemetry Transport (MQTT) or Advanced
Message Queuing Protocol (AMQP).
You need to send data to the IoT devices and each device must respond. Each device will require three minutes to
process the data and respond.
Solution: You update the twin desired property and check the corresponding reported property.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
IoT Hub provides three options for device apps to expose functionality to a back-end app:
Twin\\’s desired properties for long-running commands intended to put the device into a certain desired state. For
example, set the telemetry send interval to 30 minutes.
Direct methods for communications that require immediate confirmation of the result. Direct methods are often used for
interactive control of devices such as turning on a fan.
Cloud-to-device messages for one-way notifications to the device app.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-devguide-c2d-guidance

 

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You have the following device twin for the IoT device.microsoft az-220 q7

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft az-220 q7-1

Box1: Yes
Box 2: Yes
Fanspeed 73 is a reported property.
Box 3: No
The deviceID property is read only.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-devguide-device-twins

 

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and 1,000
connected IoT devices.
All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group.
You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT hub.
Solution: From the IoT hub, you change the credentials for the shared access policy of the IoT devices.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/iot-dps/how-to-unprovision-devices

 

QUESTION 9
You have an existing Azure IoT hub.
You use IoT Hub jobs to schedule long running tasks on connected devices.
Which two operations do the IoT Hub jobs support directly? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Trigger Azure functions.
B. Invoke direct methods.
C. Update desired properties.
D. Send cloud-to-device messages.
E. Disable IoT device registry entries.
Correct Answer: BC
Consider using jobs when you need to schedule and track progress any of the following activities on a set of devices:
Invoke direct methods Update desired properties Update tags
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-devguide-jobs

 

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You need to use message enrichment to add additional device information to messages sent from the IoT gateway
devices when the reported temperature exceeds a critical threshold.
How should you configure the enrich message values? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft az-220 q10

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-cyrl-ba/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-message-enrichments-overview

 

QUESTION 11
What should you do to identify the cause of the connectivity issues?
A. Send cloud-to-device messages to the IoT devices.
B. Use the heartbeat pattern to send messages from the IoT devices to iothub1.
C. Monitor the connection status of the device twin by using an Azure function.
D. Enable the collection of the Connections diagnostics logs and set up alerts for the connected devices count metric.
Correct Answer: D
Scenario: You discover connectivity issues between the IoT gateway devices and iothub1, which cause IoT devices to
lose connectivity and messages.
To log device connection events and errors, turn on diagnostics for IoT Hub. We recommend turning on these logs as
early as possible, because if diagnostic logs aren\\’t enabled, when device disconnects occur, you won\\’t have any
information to troubleshoot the problem with.
Step 1:
Sign in to the Azure portal.
Browse to your IoT hub.
Select Diagnostics settings.
Select Turn on diagnostics.
Enable Connections logs to be collected.
For easier analysis, turn on Send to Log Analytics (see pricing).
Step 2:
Set up alerts for device disconnect at scale
To get alerts when devices disconnect, configure alerts on the Connected devices (preview) metric.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-cyrl-ba/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-troubleshoot-connectivity

 

QUESTION 12
You use Azure Security Center in an Azure IoT solution.
You need to exclude some security events. The solution must minimize development effort.
What should you do?
A. Create an Azure function to filter security messages.
B. Add a configuration to the code of the physical IoT device.
C. Add configuration details to the device twin object.
D. Create an azureiotsecurity module twin and add configuration details to the module twin object.
Correct Answer: D
Properties related to every Azure Security Center for IoT security agent are located in the agent configuration object,
within the desired properties section, of the azureiotsecurity module.
To modify the configuration, create and modify this object inside the azureiotsecurity module twin identity.
Note: Azure Security Center for IoT\\’s security agent twin configuration object is a JSON format object. The
configuration object is a set of controllable properties that you can define to control the behavior of the agent.
These configurations help you customize the agent for each scenario required. For example, automatically excluding
some events, or keeping power consumption to a minimal level are possible by configuring these properties.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/asc-for-iot/how-to-agent-configuration

 

QUESTION 13
You have an Azure Stream Analytics job that receives input from an Azure IoT hub and sends the outputs to Azure Blob
storage. The job has compatibility level 1.1 and six streaming units. You have the following query for the job.microsoft az-220 q13

You plan to increase the streaming unit count to 12.
You need to optimize the job to take advantage of the additional streaming units and increase the throughput.
Solution: You change the compatibility level of the job to 1.2.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Max number of Streaming Units with one step and with no partitions is 6.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-parallelization

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Latest updates Cisco 300-815 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A support engineer is troubleshooting a voice network. When conducting a search for call setup details related to calling
search space issues, which trace files should be investigated?
A. CallManager traces
B. CTI Manager traces
C. Cisco IP Manager Assistant
D. Call logs
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-815 q2

Calls incoming from the provider are not working through newly set up Cisco Unified Border Element. Provider
engineers get the 404 Not Found SIP message. Incoming calls are coming from the provider with called number
“222333444” and Cisco Unified Communications Manager is expecting the called number to be delivered as
“444333222”. The administrator already verified that the IP address of the Cisco Unified CM is set up correctly and there are no dial peers configured other than those shown in the exhibit. Which action must the administrator take to fix the
issue?
A. Change the destination-pattern on the outgoing dial peer to match “444333222”.
B. Set up translation-profile on the incoming dial peer to match incoming traffic.
C. Create specific matching for “222333444” on the incoming dial peer.
D. Fix the voice translation-rule to match specifically number “222333444” and change it to “444333222”.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which IOS command creates a SIP-enabled dial peer?
A. voice dial-peer 20 sip
B. dial-peer voice 20 voip
C. dial-peer voice 20 pots
D. dial peer voice 20 sip
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=664148andseqNum=6

 

QUESTION 4
An administrator discovers that employees are making unauthorized long-distance and international calls from loggedoff Extension Mobility phones when the authorized users are away from their desks Which two configurations should the
administrator configure in the Cisco UCM to avoid this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions from the calling search space of the physical phone.
B. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the physical phone\\’s
directory number.
C. Remove the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions from the calling search space of the device profile.
D. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the physical phone.
E. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the device profile
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 5
A user in location X dials an extension at location Y. The call travels through a QoS-enabled WAN network, but the user
experiences choppy or clipped audio. What is the cause of this issue?
A. missing Call Admission Control
B. codec mismatch
C. ptime mismatch
D. phone class of service issue
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-815 q6

Users report that when they dial the emergency number 9911 from any internal phone, it takes a long time to connect
with the emergency operator. Which action resolves this issue?
A. Adjust the service parameter T302 timet to the desired value.
B. Adjust the service parameter T204 timer to the desired value.
C. Check the Urgent Priority check box under 9.911 pattern.
D. Point the emergency pattern directly to the PSTN gateway.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
What is first preference condition matched in a SIP-enabled incoming dial peer?
A. incoming uri
B. target carrier-id
C. answer-address
D. incoming called-number
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip-voip/211306-InDepthExplanation-of-Cisco-IOS-and-IO.html#anc8

 

QUESTION 8
An engineer must route all SIP calls in the form of @example.com to the SIP trunk gateway corporate local. Which two
SIP route patterns can be used to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. [email protected]
B. *@example.com
C. gateway.corporate.local
D. example.com
E. *.*
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-815 q9

An administrator is troubleshooting a situation where a call placed from a phone registered to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager does not complete. The administrator wants to use the Dialed Number Analyzer on Cisco
Unified CM to check which translation pattern the call is matching. However, when logging in to Cisco Unified
Serviceability there is no option for Dialed Number Analyzer under the tool menu. Which two steps must be performed
to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Restart the subscriber
B. Activate the Cisco Extended Functions service.
C. Activate the Cisco CallManager service.
D. Activate the Cisco Dialed Number Analyzer service.
E. Activate the Cisco Dialed Number Analyzer Server service.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 10
A user reports when they press the services key they do not receive a user ID and password prompt to assign the
phone extension. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Create the default device profiles for all phone models that are used.
B. Subscribe the phone to the Cisco Extension Mobility service.
C. Create the end user and associate it to the device profile.
D. Assign the extension as a mobile extension.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Which configuration must an administrator perform to display Translation Pattern operations in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager SDL traces?
A. Enable the Detailed Call Analysis option under Enterprise Parameters for Unified CM.
B. Set up the Digit Analysis Complexity in Service Parameters for Cisco Unified CM to
TranslationAndAlternatePatternAnalysis.
C. Check the Translation Patterns Analysis check box in Micro Traces on the Cisco Unified CM Serviceability page.
D. By default, the Translation Patterns operations are printed in SDL traces, so no additional configuration is necessary.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/taking-sip-call-trace-on-ciscounified-cm-usingrtmt/ta-p/3161200

 

QUESTION 12
A customer is using a SIP trunk to route calls to ITSP to decrease the possibility of downtime, the customer invested in
a failover device How does the customer ensure reachability to ITSP, so that if one device on ITSP fails, the calls will be
routed to another device?
A. Enable transmit security status on the SIP security profile
B. Enable ANAT on the SIP profile.
C. Monitor the link using network management toots, and if it fails, manually change the routing to another working
device.
D. Enable SIP Option Ping on the SIP profile.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Configure Call Queuing in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Where do you set the maximum number of callers
in the queue?
A. in the telephony service configuration
B. in the queuing configuration
C. in Cisco Unified CM Enterprise Parameters
D. in Cisco Unified CM Service Parameters
Correct Answer: B
Reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communicationsmanagercallmanager/200453-Configure-CUCM-Native-Call-Queuing-Featu.html

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QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You discover that some external users accessed content on a Microsoft SharePoint site. You modify the SharePoint
sharing policy to prevent sharing outside your organization.
You need to be notified if the SharePoint sharing policy is modified in the future.
Solution: From the Security and Compliance admin center, you create a threat management policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a new Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent users from sending email messages that contain Personally Identifiable Information (PII).
Solution: From the Exchange admin center, you create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
You create a Microsoft 36S subscription.
You need to create a deployment plan for Microsoft Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP).
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 Windows 8.1
devices.
You plan to deploy a custom Windows 10 Enterprise image to the Windows 8.1 devices.
You need to recommend a Windows 10 deployment method.
What should you recommend?
A. a provisioning package
B. an in-place upgrade
C. wipe and load refresh
D. Windows Autopilot
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/enterprise/windows10-infrastructure

 

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent users from accessing your Microsoft SharePoint Online sites unless the users are connected to
your on-premises network.
Solution: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you configure the Organization profile settings.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Conditional Access in SharePoint Online can be configured to use an IP Address white list to allow access.
References:
https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/Microsoft-SharePoint-Blog/Conditional-Access-in-SharePoint-Online-andOneDrive-for/ba-p/46678A


QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
All users are assigned a Microsoft 365 E3 license.
You enable auditing for your organization.
What is the maximum amount of time data will be retained in the Microsoft 365 audit log?
A. 2 years
B. 1 year
C. 30 days
D. 90 days
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/search-the-audit-log-in-security-andcompliance

 

QUESTION 7
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named
contoso.com. The company stores 2 TBs of data in SharePoint Online document libraries. The tenant has the labels
shown in the following table.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are deploying Microsoft Intune.
You successfully enroll Windows 10 devices in Intune.
When you try to enroll an iOS device in Intune, you get an error.
You need to ensure that you can enroll the iOS device in Intune.
Solution: You add your user account as a device enrollment manager.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
You have several devices enrolled in Microsoft Intone.
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that includes the users shown in the following table.

You add User3 as a device enrollment manager in Intune.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10
You need to protect the U.S. PII data to meet the technical requirements. What should you create?
A. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that contains a domain exception
B. a Security and Compliance retention policy that detects content containing sensitive data
C. a Security and Compliance alert policy that contains an activity
D. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that contains a user override
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/create-activity-alerts

 

QUESTION 11
You have a data loss prevention (DIP) policy.
You need to increase the likelihood that the DLP policy will apply to data that contains medical terms from the
International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9-CM). The solution must minimize the number of false positives.
Which two settings should you modify? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 12
Your company uses Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (ATP). Windows Defender ATP includes the
machine groups shown in the following table.

You onboard a computer named computer1 to Windows Defender ATP as shown in the following exhibit.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 13
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com and a Microsoft 365
subscription. The company recently hired four new users who have the devices shown in the following table.

You configure the Microsoft 365 subscription to ensure that the new devices enroll in Microsoft Intune automatically.
Which users have a device that can enroll in Microsoft Intune automatically?
A. User1 and User2 only
B. User 1, User2, and User only
C. User1, User2.User3, and User4
D. User2only
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the functionalities from the left onto the correct target fields on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
Which configuration modifies Local Packet Transport Services hardware policies?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/crs/software/crs_r4-1/addr_serv/command/reference/b_ipaddr_cr41crs/b_ipaddr_cr41crs_chapter_0111.html#wp1754734006

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is preparing to implement a data plane security configuration. Which statement about this
configuration is true?
A. Router 2 is the router receiving the DDoS attack.
B. Router 1 must be configured with uRPF for the RTBH implementation to be effective.
C. Router 1 is the trigger router in an RTBH implementation.
D. Router 2 must configure a route to null 0 for network 192.168.1.0/24 for the RTBH implementation to be complete.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which three OSPF parameters must match before two devices can establish an OSPF adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. subnet mask
C. interface cost
D. process ID
E. area number
F. hello timer setting
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 5
Which statement about segment routing prefix segments is true?
A. It is the longest path to a node.
B. It is linked to an adjacency SID that is globally unique within the router.
C. It is linked to a prefix SID that is globally unique within the segment routing domain.
D. It requires using EIGRP to operate.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/segment-routing/configuration/guide/b-segrouting-cg-asr9k/b-seg-routing-cg-asr9k_chapter_010.pdf

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement supports QPPB implementation?
A. QPPB policies affect only egress traffic.
B. QoS policies rely exclusively on BGP attributes to manipulate traffic.
C. QoS policies are identified in the MPLS forwarding table.
D. QoS policies use BGP to gain full coverage on the network.
Correct Answer: B
The QoS Policy Propagation via BGP feature allows you to classify packets by IP precedence based on the Border
Gateway Protocol (BGP) Attributes like community lists, BGP autonomous system paths, and access lists.

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration prevents the OSPF neighbor from establishing?
A. default-metric
B. duplex
C. network statement
D. MTU
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What are two factors to consider when implementing NSR High Availability on an MPLS PE router? (Choose two.)
A. It consumes more memory and CPU resources than NSF
B. It operates normally without NSR support on the PE peers.
C. It requires all PE-CE sessions to support NSR
D. It requires routing protocol extensions
E. It cannot sync state information across redundant RPs
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is implementing a BGP routing policy. Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. All traffic that matches acl10 is allowed without any change to its local preference.
B. All traffic that matches acl10 is dropped without any change to its local preference.
C. If traffic matches acl10, it is allowed and its local preference is set to 300.
D. All traffic is assigned a local preference of 300 regardless of its destination.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A network engineer is configuring a BGP route policy for the SUBNET prefix set. Matching traffic must be dropped, and
other traffic must have its MED value set to 400 and community 4:400 added to the route. Which configuration must an
engineer apply?
A. router-policy CISCO if destination in SUBNET then drop
else
set med 400
set community (4:400) additive
endif
end-policy
end
B. router-policy CISCO if destination in SUBNET then
drop
endif
set med 400
if community matches any SUBNET then
set local-preference 400
set med 500
set community (4:400) additive
endif
end-policy
end
C. router-policy SUBNET if destination in SUBNET then
drop
endif
set med 400
set local-preference 400
if community matches any SUBNET then
set community (4:400)
endif
end-policy
end
D. router-policy SUBNET if destination in BGP then drop
else
set med 400
set community (4:400)
endif
end-policy
end
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator working for a service provider with an employee id: 1234:56:789 applied this
configuration to a router.
Which additional step should the engineer use to enable LDP?
A. Enable MPLS LDP on the interface.
B. Disable Cisco Express Forwarding globally.
C. Delete the static router ID.
D. Configure both keywords to enable LDP globally.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

A network operator must configure CSR1 interlaces GigabitEihernet2 and GigabitEthemet to rewrite VLAN tags 12 and
21 for traffic between R1 and R2 respectively. Which configurator accomplishes this task?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
Correct Answer: C
IF bridge domain on both interfaces are 10

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit. Router 1 was experiencing a DDoS attack that was traced to interface gigabitethernet0/1. Which
statement about this configuration is true?
A. Router 1 accepts all traffic that ingresses and egresses interface gigabitethernet0/1.
B. Router 1 drops all traffic that ingresses interface gigabitethernet0/1 that has a FIB entry that exits a different
interface.
C. Router 1 accepts source addresses that have a match in the FIB that indicates it is reachable through a real
interface.
D. Router 1 accepts source addresses on interface gigabitethernet0/1 that are private addresses.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nxos/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_urpf.html

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QUESTION 1
Which two operations are valid for RESTCONF? (Choose two.)
A. HEAD
B. REMOVE
C. PULL
D. PATCH
E. ADD
F. PUSH
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/166/b_166_programmability_cg/b_166_programmability_cg_chapter_01011.html

 

QUESTION 2
What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution?
A. to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships
B. to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric
C. to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD-Access fabric.
D. to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button
under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN?
A. ISE server
B. local WLC
C. RADIUS server
D. anchor WLC
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions correct
B. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table
C. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices
D. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing
before they are sent to the FIB
Correct Answer: A
The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table?CEF uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions.
The FIB is conceptually similar to a routing table or information base. It maintains a mirror image of the forwarding
information contained in the IP routing table. When routing or topology changes occur in the network, the IP routing
table is updated, and these changes are reflected in the FIB. The FIB maintains next-hop address information based on
the information in the IP routing table. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/routers/12000-seriesrouters/47321-ciscoef.html

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the OPSF debug output is true?
A. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent to received on interface Fa0/1.
B. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on all interfaces.
C. The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent received on interface Fa0/1.
D. The output displays OSPF hello and LSACK messages which router R1 has sent or received.
Correct Answer: C
This combination of commands is known as “Conditional debug” and will filter the debug output based on your
conditions. Each condition added, will behave like an `And\\’ operator in Boolean logic. Some examples of the “debug IP OSPF hello” are shown below:

QUESTION 6
Which standard access control entry permits from odd-numbered hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet?
A. Permit 10.0.0.0.0.0.0.1
B. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.0
C. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.254
D. Permit 10.0.0.0.255.255.255.254
Correct Answer: C
Remember, for the wildcard mask, 1s are I DON\\’T CARE, and 0s are I CARE. So now let\\’s analyze a simple ACL:
access-list 1 permit 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255
Two first octets are all 0\\’s meaning that we care about the network 172.23.x.x. The third octet of the wildcard mask, 15
(0000 1111 in binary), means that we care about the first 4 bits but don\\’t care about the last 4 bits so we allow the third octet in
the form of 0001xxxx (minimum:00010000 = 16; maximum: 0001111 = 31).

The fourth octet is 255 (all 1 bits) which means I don\\’t care. Therefore network 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255 ranges from
172.23.16.0 to 172.23.31.255. Now let\\’s consider the wildcard mask of 0.0.0.254 (four-octet: 254 = 1111 1110) which
means we
only care the last bit. Therefore if the last bit of the IP address is a “1” (0000 0001) then only odd numbers are allowed.
If the last bit of the IP address is a “0” (0000 0000) then only even numbers are allowed.
Note: In binary, odd numbers always end with a “1” while even numbers always end with a “0”.
Therefore in this question, only the statement “permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.254” will allow all odd-numbered
hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet.

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the
network. Which COS to DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly?
A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46
B. COS of 7 to DSCP 48
C. COS of 6 to DSCP 46
D. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure.
Which design facilitates migration from a traditional campus design to a programmable fabric design?
A. Layer 2 access
B. three-tier
C. two-tier
D. routed access
Correct Answer: C
Intent-based networking (IBN) transforms a hardware-centric, manual network into a controller-led network that
captures business intent and translates it into policies that can be automated and applied consistently across the
network. The goal is for the network to continuously monitor and adjust network performance to help assure desired
business outcomes. IBN builds on software-defined networking (SDN). SDN usually uses spine-leaf architecture, which
is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves (such as an access layer).

 

QUESTION 9
An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.)
A. Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic
B. Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible
C. Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate
D. Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it
E. Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible
Correct Answer: CE
Traffic policing propagates bursts. When the traffic rate reaches the configured maximum rate (or committed information
rate), excess traffic is dropped (or remarked). The result is an output rate that appears as a saw-tooth with crests and
troughs.
Unlike traffic shaping, traffic policing does not cause delay. Classification (which includes traffic policing, traffic shaping, and queuing techniques) should take place at the network edge. It is recommended that classification occur as close to the source of the traffic as possible. Also according to this Cisco link, “policing traffic as close to the source as
possible”.

 

QUESTION 10
To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer
enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC
to connect?
A. Auto
B. Active
C. On
D. Passive
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-mobility-documents/lag-link-aggregation/ta-p/3128669

 

QUESTION 11
Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12
On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric?
A. LISP
B. IS-IS
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. VXLAN
Correct Answer: D
The tunneling technology used for the fabric data plane is based on Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN). VXLAN
encapsulation is UDP-based, meaning that it can be forwarded by any IP-based network (legacy or third party) and
creates the overlay network for the SD-Access fabric. Although LISP is the control plane for the SD-Access fabric, it
does not use LISP data encapsulation for the data plane; instead, it uses VXLAN encapsulation because it is capable of
encapsulating the original Ethernet header to perform MAC-in-IP encapsulation, while LISP does not. Using VXLAN
allows the SD-Access fabric to support Layer 2 and Layer 3 virtual topologies (overlays) and the ability to operate over
any IP-based network with built-in network segmentation (VRF instance/VN) and built-in group-based policy. Reference:
CCNP and CCIE Enterprise Core ENCOR 350-401 Official Cert Guide

 

QUESTION 13
Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall?
A. Passive
B. Tap
C. Inline tap
D. Inline
Correct Answer: D
Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) provides six interface modes which are: Routed, Switched, Inline Pair, Inline Pair with
Tap, Passive, Passive (ERSPAN). When Inline Pair Mode is in use, packets can be blocked since they are processed
inline When you use Inline Pair mode, the packet goes mainly through the FTD Snort engine When Tap Mode is
enabled, a copy of the packet is inspected and dropped internally while the actual traffic goes through FTD unmodified
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-ngfw/200924-configuringfirepower-threat-defenseint.html

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QUESTION 1

cisco 350-201 q1

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop has automatically submitted
a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine for further analysis. What should be concluded from this report?
A. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the
scores do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.
B. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the
scores are high and do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.
C. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.
D. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are
low and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which command was executed in PowerShell to generate this log?cisco 350-201 q2

A. Get-EventLog -LogName*
B. Get-EventLog -List
C. Get-WinEvent -ListLog* -ComputerName localhost
D. Get-WinEvent -ListLog*
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://lists.xymon.com/archive/2019-March/046125.html

 

QUESTION 3
DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the threat from the left onto the scenario that introduces the threat on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

cisco 350-201 q3

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q3-1

QUESTION 4
A SOC analyst is notified by the network monitoring tool that there are unusual types of internal traffic on IP subnet
103.861.2117.0/24. The analyst discovers unexplained encrypted data files on a computer system that belongs on that
specific subnet.
What is the cause of the issue?
A. DDoS attack
B. phishing attack
C. virus outbreak
D. malware outbreak
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Which asset has the highest risk value?cisco 350-201 q5

A. servers
B. website
C. payment process
D. secretary workstation
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
What is the principle of Infrastructure as Code?
A. System maintenance is delegated to software systems
B. Comprehensive initial designs support robust systems
C. Scripts and manual configurations work together to ensure repeatable routines
D. System downtime is grouped and scheduled across the infrastructure
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
An analyst is alerted for a malicious file hash. After analysis, the analyst determined that an internal workstation is
communicating over port 80 with an external server and that the file hash is associated with Duqu malware. Which
tactics, techniques, and procedures align with this analysis?
A. Command and Control, Application Layer Protocol, Duqu
B. Discovery, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
C. Lateral Movement, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
D. Discovery, System Network Configuration Discovery, Duqu
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. For IP 192.168.1.209, what are the risk level, activity, and next step?cisco 350-201 q8

A. high-risk level, anomalous periodic communication, quarantine with antivirus
B. critical risk level, malicious server IP, run in a sandboxed environment
C. critical risk level, data exfiltration, isolate the device
D. high-risk level, malicious host, investigate further
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROPcisco 350-201 q9

Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Secure Network Analytics (Stealthwatch) console alerted with “New Malware Server
Discovered” and the IOC indicates communication from an end-user desktop to a Zeus CandC Server. Drag and drop
the actions that the analyst should take from the left into the order on the right to investigate and remediate this IOC.
Select and Place: cisco 350-201 q9-1

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q9-2

QUESTION 10cisco 350-201 q10

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine. What should be concluded from this report?
A. Threat scores are high, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified
B. Threat scores are low, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified
C. Threat scores are high, malicious activity is detected, but files have not been modified
D. Threat scores are low and no malicious file activity is detected
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
DRAG-DROP
An organization lost connectivity to critical servers, and users cannot access business applications and internal
websites. An engineer checks the network devices to investigate the outage and determines that all devices are
functioning. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to continue investigating this issue. Not
all options are used.
Select and Place:cisco 350-201 q11

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q11-1

QUESTION 12
An employee abused PowerShell commands and script interpreters, which lead to an indicator of compromise (IOC)
trigger. The IOC event shows that a known malicious file has been executed, and there is an increased likelihood of a
breach.
Which indicator generated this IOC event?
A. ExecutedMalware.ioc
B. Crossrider.ioc
C. ConnectToSuspiciousDomain.ioc
D. W32 AccesschkUtility.ioc
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
A threat actor used a phishing email to deliver a file with an embedded macro. The file was opened, and a remote code
execution attack occurred in a company\\’s infrastructure. Which steps should an engineer take at the recovery stage?
A. Determine the systems involved and deploy available patches
B. Analyze event logs and restrict network access
C. Review access lists and require users to increase password complexity
D. Identify the attack vector and update the IDS signature list
Correct Answer: B

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Latest updates Microsoft MS-500 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain name of contoso.com.
The multi-factor authentication (MFA) service settings are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q1

In contoso.com, you create the users shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q1-1

What is the effect of the configuration? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q1-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q1-3

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. You create a label named CompanyConfidential in Microsoft Azure Information
Protection.
You add CompanyConfidential to global policy.
A user protects an email message by using CompanyConfidential and sends the label to several external recipients.
The external recipients report that they cannot open the email message.
You need to ensure that the external recipients can open protected email messages sent to them.
Solution: You create a new label in the global policy and instruct the user to resend the email message.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain name of contoso.com. Microsoft Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD) contains the users shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q3

Both devices have three apps named App1, App2, and App3 installed. You create an app protection policy named
ProtectionPolicy1 that has the following settings: Protected apps: App1 Exempt apps: App2 Windows Information
Protection mode: Block
You apply ProtectionPolicy1 to Group1 and Group3. You exclude Group2 from ProtectionPolicy1.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q3-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q3-2

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You create an Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) Safe attachments policy to quarantine malware.
You need to configure the retention duration for the attachments in quarantine.
Which type of threat management policy should you create from the SecurityandCompliance admin center?
A. ATP anti-phishing
B. DKIM
C. Anti-spam
D. Anti-malware
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You have the Microsoft conditions shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q5

You have the Azure Information Protection policies shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q5-1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q5-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q5-3

QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You have a site collection named SiteCollection1 that contains a site named Site2. Site2 contains a document library
named Customers.
Customers contain a document named Litware.docx. You need to remove Litware.docx permanently.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q6-1

QUESTION 7

Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain. The domain contains servers that run Windows Server
and have advanced auditing enabled.
The security logs of the servers are collected by using a third-party SIEM solution.
You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription and plan to deploy Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) by using
standalone sensors.
You need to ensure that you can detect when sensitive groups are modified and when malicious services are created.
What should you do?
A. Configure auditing in the Office 365 Security and Compliance center.
B. Turn off Delayed updates for the Azure ATP sensors.
C. Modify the Domain synchronizer candidate\\’s settings on the Azure ATP sensors.
D. Integrate SIEM and Azure ATP.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure-advanced-threat-protection/install-atp-step5

QUESTION 8
You need to configure threat detection for Active Directory. The solution must meet the security requirements.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place: lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q8-1

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You identify the following data loss prevention (DLP) requirements: Send notifications to users if they attempt to send
attachments that contain EU social security numbers Prevent any email messages that contain credit card numbers
from being sent outside your organization Block the external sharing of Microsoft OneDrive content that contains EU
passport numbers Send administrators email alerts if any rule matches occur.
What is the minimum number of DLP policies and rules you must create to meet the requirements? To answer, select
the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q8-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q8-3

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that is associated to a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant
named contoso.com.
You use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to federate on-premises Active Directory and the tenant. Azure
AD Connect has the following settings:
1.
Source Anchor: objectGUID
2.
Password Hash Synchronization: Disabled

3.
Password writeback: Disabled
4.
Directory extension attribute sync: Disabled
5.
Azure AD app and attribute filtering: Disabled
6.
Exchange hybrid deployment: Disabled
7.
User writeback: Disabled
You need to ensure that you can use leaked credentials detection in Azure AD Identity Protection.
Solution: You modify the Password Hash Synchronization settings.
Does that meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-ad-secure-steps

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You create a retention label named Label1 as shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q11

You publish Label1 to SharePoint sites.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q11-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q11-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/labels

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that contains the users shown in
the following table.lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q12

You create and enforce an Azure AD Identity Protection user risk policy that has the following settings:
1. Assignments: Include Group1, Exclude Group2
2. Conditions: Sign-in risk of Low and above
3. Access: Allow access, Require password change
You need to identify how the policy affects User1 and User2.
What occurs when User1 and User2 sign in from an unfamiliar location? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: 

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q12-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q12-2

QUESTION 13
You need to implement Windows Defender ATP to meet the security requirements. What should you do?
A. Configure port mirroring
B. Create the ForceDefenderPassiveMode registry setting
C. Download and install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent
D. Run WindowsDefenderATPOnboardingScript.cmd
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You implement the Compliance Manager.
You need to retrieve status information for a control task.
Which two options can you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q1-1

References: https://content.cloudguides.com/guides/Compliance%20Manager

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You manage point-of-sale terminals that run Windows 7.
You must upgrade the terminals to Windows 10. Terminals must not be upgraded again for at least five years. You have
the following requirements:
1.
Perform consistent scheduling of upgrades and updates across all devices.
2.
Minimize costs.
You need to prepare for the upgrades.
What should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q2-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-overview#long-term-servicing-channel
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-overview#servicing-tools

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company.
You identify the following requirements:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q3

You need to assign Microsoft 365 licenses to users based on the requirements for each department.
Which type of licenses should you assign to users? To answer, drag the appropriate license types to the correct
departments. Each license type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q3-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q3-2

References: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compare-all-microsoft-365-plans
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/security/office-365-security/automated-investigation-response-office

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
An organization is moving to Microsoft Azure and Microsoft 365.
You need to classify the following components:
1.
website hosting
2.
a virtual machine that runs Linux
3.
document storage that uses OneDrive for Business
Match each component to its classification. To answer, drag the appropriate components from the column on the left to
its classifications on the right. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q4-1

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. The company plans to upgrade client operating systems to
Windows 10.
You need to explain the concepts of Windows as a Service (WaaS) to the management team.
Match each term to its definition. To answer, drag the appropriate terms from the column on the left to its definitions on
the right. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q5

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-deployment-rings-windows-10-updates

QUESTION 6
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
When you enable external access by using the Microsoft 365 admin portal, data is available to anonymous users.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect,
select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change needed.
B. the Everyone group is applied to all shares with full control
C. you must configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
D. users can send sharing invitations for specific content
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/external-sharing-overview

QUESTION 7

DRAG DROP
Your company uses Microsoft 365 with a business support plan.
You need to identify Service Level Agreements (SLAs) from Microsoft for the support plan.
What response can you expect for each event type? To answer, drag the appropriate responses to the correct event
types. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or
scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q7

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/servicedescriptions/office-365-platform-servicedescription/support

QUESTION 8
A company that has 50 employees plans to purchase a Microsoft 365 Business subscription.
Which two payment methods are available? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. (Choose two.)
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. PayPal

B. automatic bank transfer
C. Enterprise Agreement
D. credit card or debit card
Correct Answer: BD
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/subscriptions-and-billing/pay-for-yoursubscription?view=o365-worldwide

QUESTION 9
You need to identify which Microsoft platforms provide hybrid capabilities for migrating from an on-premises
deployment. Which two platforms provide hybrid capabilities for migration? Each correct answer provides a complete
solution. (Choose two.) NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Microsoft Skype for Business
B. Microsoft Yammer
C. Microsoft Exchange
D. Microsoft Teams
Correct Answer: AC
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/architecture-of-microsoft-hybrid-cloud-scenarios

QUESTION 10
You are the network administrator of a company.
The Microsoft 365 tenant contains sensitive information. Employees must verify their identities when they sign into
Microsoft 365 by providing information in addition to their Azure AD password.
You need to select the tools that employees can use to verify their identities.
Which two tools should you select? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Customer Lockbox for Office 365
B. Microsoft Security Center
C. Windows Hello for Business
D. Microsoft Authenticator
Correct Answer: CD
Two-step authentication can be implemented by using Windows Hello for Business or Microsoft Authenticator. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/hello-for-business/hello-manage-inorganization https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/4026727/microsoft-account-how-to-use-the-microsoftauthenticator-app

QUESTION 11
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company.
Your company wants to learn more about what happens if the availability terms of the Microsoft Office 365 services are
not met.
Where can you find this information?
A. Service Level agreement
B. Microsoft Services agreement
C. Microsoft Cloud agreement
D. Microsoft Products and Services agreement
E. Microsoft Enterprise agreement
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/servicedescriptions/office-365-platform-servicedescription/service-level-agreement

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You are a Microsoft 365 administrator.
You need to implement the appropriate features for each scenario.
What should you implement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q12-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/clients-and-mobile-in-exchange-online/outlook-for-ios-andandroid/secure-outlook-for-ios-and-android https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/identityprotection/overview https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pimconfigure

QUESTION 13
You deploy Enterprise Mobility + Security E5 and assign Microsoft 365 licenses to all employees.
Employees must not be able to share documents or forward emails that contain sensitive information outside the
company.
You need to enforce the file-sharing restrictions. What should you do?
A. Use Microsoft Azure Information Protection to define a label. Associate the label with an Azure Rights Management template that prevents the sharing of files or emails that are marked with the label.
B. Create a Microsoft SharePoint Online content type named Sensitivity. Apply the content type to other content types in
Microsoft 365. Create a Microsoft Azure Rights Management template that prevents the sharing of any content where
the Sensitivity column value is set to Sensitive.
C. Use Microsoft Azure Information Rights Protection to define a label. Associate the label with an Active Directory
Rights Management template that prevents the sharing of files or emails that are marked with the label.
D. Create a label named Sensitive. Apply a Data Layer Protection policy that notifies users when their document
contains personally identifiable information (PII).
Correct Answer: A 

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QUESTION 1
Ann, an employee at a company, calls the help disk to report issues logging on to a vendor\\’s website. Joe, the
technician, is able to log in successfully with his credentials before going to Ann\\’s office. However, when he attempts to
log in from
Ann\\’s office, Joe experiences the same issue. Ann asks Joe questions about the new software installed on the laptop
from the pop-up notification.
Which of the following are the NEXT steps Joe should take to resolve the issue? (Select two.)
A. Ask Ann for her credentials to verify and log on to the vendor\\’s website from Ann\\’s laptop
B. Verify Ann\\’s laptop has the correct browser settings
C. Check all browser cached files on Ann\\’s laptop and log on to another vendor\\’s website
D. Attempt to log on to another vendor\\’s website from Ann\\’s laptop
E. Ask Ann about the notification and review the installed programs
F. Reinstall the browser, reboot the laptop, and check the vendor\\’s website again
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following variable types should be used to store the data “Chicago” within a script or code?
A. Integer
B. String
C. Boolean
D. Float
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
A user notices recent print jobs are not printing to the local printer despite printing fine yesterday. There are no errors
indicated on the taskbar printer icon. Which of the following actions should the user take FIRST?
A. Check to ensure the printer selected is the default printer
B. Check the status of the print server queue
C. Cancel all documents and print them again
D. Check that the printer is not offline print mode
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
A technician receives the Chief Executive Officer\\’s (CEO\\’s) Windows 10 laptop, which has been infected with
malware. The technician wants to make sure best practices are followed for troubleshooting and remediating the
malware. Which of the following best practices should the technician perform FIRST in this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. Disconnect the device from the network
B. Identify and research the symptoms
C. Restore the computer to the previous checkpoint
D. Scan and use removal techniques
E. Create a restore point
F. Educate the end user
G. Schedule scans and run updates
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 5
A MAC user\\’s operating system became corrupted, and files were deleted after malware was downloaded. The user
needs to access the data that was previously stored on the MAC. Which of the following built-in utilities should be
used?
A. Time Machine
B. Snapshot
C. System Restore
D. Boot Camp
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
A technician is selling up a computer that will have a hypervisor installed. The technician checks the specifications of the
available computer. Which of the following specifications are MOST important to consider? (Select TWO)
A. Size of HDD
B. Speed of NIC
C. Graphic resolution
D. External storage
E. Amount of RAW
F. Second NIC installed
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 7
A technician received 300 old desktops following a recent computer upgrade. After taking inventory of the old machines,
the technician must destroy the data on the HDDs. Which of the following would be the MOST effective method to
accomplish this task?
A. Drill
B. Hammer
C. Low-level format
D. Degaussing
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which of the following Microsoft operating systems defaults to a tiled menu instead of the desktop?
A. Windows 7
B. Windows 8
C. Windows 8.1
D. Windows 10
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following threats uses personalized information in an attempt at obtaining information?
A. Whaling
B. Impersonation
C. Spoofing
D. Spear phishing
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
A technician has identified malware on a user\\’s system. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT
according to malware removal best practices?
A. Enable System Restore and create a restore point so no data is lost
B. Educate the user about how to avoid malware in the future
C. Update the antivirus software and run a full system scan
D. Move the infected system to a lab with no network connectivity
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
A technician is troubleshooting a printer issue on a Windows computer and wants to disable the printer to test a theory.
Which of the following should the technician use to accomplish this?
A. Devices and Printers
B. Sync Center
C. Device Manger
D. Power Options
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
While preparing a computer that will be issued to a new user, the technician discovers the computer\\’s former user
configured a supervisor password in the BIOS. Which of the following can the technician do to allow the password to be
removed?
A. Reimage the machine from a network share
B. Change the boot order and boot to an external drive
C. Remove and then replace the CMOS battery
D. Use the BIOS user password to reset the supervisor password
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
A company\\’s security team has noticed a lot of unusual network traffic coming from an internal IP address. The team
wants to obtain the name of the computer and then troubleshoot. Which of the following tools would BEST accomplish
this task?
A. nslookup
B. ipconfig
C. tracert
D. ping
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1
A customer\\’s workstation will not boot. A technician runs diagnostics on the system and discovers it is set up in a RAID
0 configuration, and a single SATA hard drive has failed. The system was set up for performance. Once repaired, the
customer requests redundancy be built into the system and an increase in performance.
Which of the following describes how the technician should set up the new RAID configuration?
A. RAID 1 configuration that will utilize new SSD
B. RAID 5 configuration that will allow the loss of a hard drive without failure
C. RAID 6 configuration that will allow the loss of two hard drives without failure
D. RAID 10 configuration utilizing new HDD
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Multiple users report that the network printer, which is connected through the print server, is not printing.
Which of the following should a technician do FIRST to remedy this situation?
A. Replace the USB cable.
B. Reinstall the drivers on users\\’ PCs.
C. have users restart their PCs.
D. Clear the print queue.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
A technician is building a Windows server to meet the specific needs of a user. The user needs to house a replica of a
very large SQL database to be able to query the database locally.
Which of the following drive configurations would BEST meet the requirements while providing the maximum amount of
performance and storage?
A. OS disk: 128GB M2 Data disk: 4TB 7200rpm HDD
B. OS disk: 256GB 5400rpm HDD Data disk: 1TB 5400rpm HDD
C. OS disk: 512GB 15000rpm HDD Data disk: 64GB M2
D. OS disk: 1TB 7200rpm HDD Data disk: 128GB 10000rpm HDD
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A business owner is concerned about excessive paper usage but is not concerned about the wear to the printer of the
use of toner. The business owner asks a technician to find a low-cost solution.
Which of the following is the BEST action for the technician to perform?
A. Configure duplexing
B. Enable collating
C. Adjust the orientation
D. Decrease the quality
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
A systems administrator wants to take advantage of the benefits of the major cloud providers while retaining some data
and services in the local datacenter.
Which of the following types of cloud model should the administrator consider?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Hybrid
D. Community
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
A customer has the LCD display in a laptop replaced. After the repair, the customer notices the laptop is showing a
weaker WiFi signal than before the display was replaced. Which of the following BEST explains the lower WiFi signal?
A. The antenna is too close to the screen\\’s power inverter.
B. The new LCD panel is causing interference.
C. The digitizer is calibrated improperly.
D. The radio antennas are damaged.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
An employee\\’s mobile device no longer charges, and the employee believes the battery is bad. A technician tests the
mobile device and finds it will charge on a wireless charging pad but not when it is connected to a charging cable. Other
devices charge without issue when the cable is used. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST to
resolve the issue?
A. Clean out the charging port on the device
B. Replace the mobile device\\’s battery
C. Issue a new charging cable to the employee
D. Send the device for service and give the employee a loaner
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
A technician has configured a custom PC with an eight-core processor. 8GD of RAM a 500GB SSD, and a 100Mbps
NIC for a user who utilizes it for CAD design The user has stated that every tune the CAD program is launched, it slows
down and is almost unusable Which of the following should the technician do to impact system performance the
MOST?
A. Increase the CPUs to 16 cores.
B. Increase the memory to 37GB.
C. Increase the SSD size to 1 IB.
D. Replace the NIC with a 1 Gbps NIC.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A technician ha just installed a new power ATX power supply in a PC. The technician attached the power cable
attempted boot the machine. The machine prompts with a POST beep code referencing issues with the CPU. Which of
the following connections should be checked?
A. P12 connector
B. HDD Molex connector
C. Fan header connectors
D. ATX power connector
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
A technician is setting up a new wireless network at a branch office that previously had only wired connectivity with
statically assigned IP addresses. After setting up the network, the technician configures a server to provide IP
addresses to wireless clients. During testing, the technician is unable to access the Internet or named network
resources. The technician receives a valid IP address from the DHCP server and can ping the default gateway.
Which of the following should be technician check NEXT to resolve this issue?
A. Ensure the options are configured to provide a DNS server.
B. Verify the Windows Firewall is turned off.
C. Configure the wireless network\\’s SSID to be hidden.
D. Enable file and printer sharing in the OS.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
A developer wants to add a Windows 10 64-bit VM with the minimum system requirements to a virtual host workstation.
The virtual host is running Windows Server 2008 R2 and has 24GB of RAM, a 1TB hard drive, and a Gigabit Ethernet
NIC with Cat 5e cabling. The current configuration of VMs is as follows:
1.
Windows 7 VM with 4GB RAM and 200GB HDD
2.
Linux VM with 16GB RAM and 200GB HDD
3.
Linux VM with 2GB RAM and 100GB HDD
Which of the following should the technician recommend to the developer FIRST?
A. Increase the HDD in the virtual host
B. Install an additional NIC and configure teaming
C. Upgrade the network cabling to Cat 6
D. Increase the memory in the virtual host
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
A user purchases a wireless printer and sets it up in an office. The user installs all necessary software for the printer on
the computer and connects the printer to the guest wireless network. However, when the user attempts to print to the
printer, nothing happens.
Which of the following will resolve the issue?
A. Set up the user\\’s computer to act as a print server.
B. Configure the printer to use the Internet printing protocol.
C. Ensure the user\\’s computer is set to DHCP.
D. Connect the printer to the company wireless network.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
A customer is using a cloud storage program that maintains a copy of local files on the cloud storage servers. The WiFi
network is not very fast, and the customer uses bandwidth-intensive video streaming all day. Which of the following
parameters should be adjusted to keep the cloud storage program from using too much bandwidth?
A. Synchronization settings
B. Wireless settings
C. Video streaming settings
D. QoS settings
Correct Answer: D

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