The latest updated Lead4Pass 500-220 dumps contain 57 exam questions and answers, verified by the Cisco professional team, and corrected the past exam questions and answers to ensure that candidates can successfully pass the 500-220 Cisco Meraki Solutions Specialist certification exam.

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Verify some latest 500-220 Dumps exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease time
15Cisco Meraki Solutions SpecialistLead4PassDec 02, 2022
New Question 1:

Which Cisco Meraki best practice method preserves complete historical network event logs?

A. Configuring the preserved event number to maximize logging.

B. Configuring the preserved event period to unlimited.

C. Configuring a syslog server for the network.

D. Configuring Dashboard logging to preserve only certain event types.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 2:

Which two features and functions are supported when using an MX appliance in Passthrough mode? (Choose two.)

A. intrusion prevention

B. site-to-site VPN

C. secondary uplinks

D. DHCP

E. high availability

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MX/Networks_and_Routing/Passthrough_Mode_on_the_MX_Security_Appliance_and_Z-series_Teleworker_Gateway

New Question 3:

A customer requires a hub-and-spoke Auto VPN deployment with two NAT-mode hubs with dual uplink connections and 50 remote sites with a single uplink connection. How many tunnels does each hub need to support?

A. 52

B. 54

C. 100

D. 104

Correct Answer: C

New Question 4:
new 500-220 dumps questions 4

Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions are required to optimize load balancing asymmetrically with a 4:1 ratio between links? (Choose two.)

A. Change the primary uplink to “none”.

B. Add an internet traffic preference that defines the load-balancing ratio as 4:1.

C. Enable load balancing.

D. Set the speed of the cellular uplink to zero.

E. Change the assigned speeds of WAN 1 and WAN 2 so that the ratio is 4:1.

Correct Answer: BC

New Question 5:

What are the two roles of the network and device tags in a Dashboard? (Choose two.)

A. Tags enable administrators to configure a combination of network and device-specific tags to create summary reports filtered for specific devices across multiple networks.

B. Network tags can be used to assign networks to separate Auto VPN domains in an Organization with many networks.

C. Network tags can be used to simplify the assignment of network-level permissions in an Organization with many networks.

D. Device tags can be used to simplify the assignment of device-level permissions in an Organization with many administrators.

E. Device tags can be assigned to MR APs to influence the gateway selection for repeaters in a mesh wireless network.

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Organizations_and_Networks/Organization_Menu/Manage_Tags

New Question 6:

Which two actions can extend the video retention of a Cisco Meraki MV Smart Camera? (Choose two.)

A. enabling audio compression

B. installing an SSD memory extension

C. enabling motion-based retention

D. enabling maximum retention limit

E. configuring a recording schedule

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MV/Initial_Configuration/Video_Retention

New Question 7:
new 500-220 dumps questions 7

Refer to the exhibit. What is the advantage of implementing inter-VLAN routing on an MX Security Appliance rather than performing inter-VLAN routing on an MS Series Switch?

A. The MX appliance performs IDS/IPS for inter-VLAN traffic.

B. The MX appliance performs AMP for inter-VLAN traffic.

C. The MX appliance performs data encryption for inter-VLAN traffic.

D. The MX appliance performs content filtering for inter-VLAN traffic.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 8:

Which requirement is needed to implement Fast Lane on Cisco Meraki APs?

A. wireless profile installed on an Apple iOS device

B. wireless profile installed on a Cisco iOS access point

C. adaptive 802.11r disabled

D. traffic shaping rule tagging traffic with a DSCP value of 46 to Apple.com

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/WiFi_Basics_and_Best_Practices/Wireless_QoS_and_Fast_Lane

New Question 9:

Which three verbs of request are available in the Cisco Meraki API? (Choose three.)

A. SET

B. PUT

C. PATCH

D. ADD

E. POST

F. GET

Correct Answer: BEF

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Other_Topics/Cisco_Meraki_Dashboard_API

New Question 10:

In an organization that uses the Co-Termination licensing model, which two operations enable licenses to be applied? (Choose two.)

A. Renew the Dashboard license.

B. License a network.

C. License more devices.

D. Call Meraki support.

E. Wait for the devices to auto-renew.

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Licensing/Meraki_Co-Termination_Licensing_Overview

New Question 11:

One thousand concurrent users stream video to their laptops. A 30/70 split between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz is used. Based on the client count, how many APs (rounded to the nearest whole number) are needed?

A. 26

B. 28

C. 30

D. 32

Correct Answer: C

New Question 12:

For which two reasons can an organization become “Out of License”? (Choose two.)

A. licenses that are in the wrong network

B. more hardware devices than device licenses

C. expired device license

D. licenses that do not match the serial numbers in the organization

E. MR licenses that do not match the MR models in the organization

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Licensing/Meraki_Licensing_FAQs

New Question 13:

Which Meraki Dashboard menu section is accessed to enable Sentry enrollment on an SSID?

A. Wireless > Configure > Access Control

B. Wireless > Configure > Splash page

C. Wireless > Configure > Firewall and Traffic Shaping

D. Wireless > Configure > SSIDs

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/MR_Splash_Page/Systems_Manager_Sentry_Enrollment

New Question 14:

What is the best practice Systems Manager enrollment method when deploying corporate-owned iOS devices?

A. manual

B. Apple Configurator

C. Sentry enrollment

D. DEP

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://meraki.cisco.com/lib/pdf/meraki_whitepaper_ios.pdf

New Question 15:

A Cisco Meraki MV camera is monitoring an office and its field of vision currently captures work desks and employee computer screens. However, recording employee computer screens is prohibited by local regulations.

Which feature in the Dashboard can be used to preserve the current position of the camera while also meeting regulation requirements?

A. zone exclusion

B. privacy window

C. area or interest

D. sensor crop

E. restricted mode

Correct Answer: E


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About Cisco Enterprise Wireless Network

Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networking includes two important certification exam options:

300-425 ENWLSD Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD)

300-430 ENWLSI Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSI)

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Latest updated 300-425 Dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

Which UDP port numbers are used for exchanging mobility packets in an AireOS wireless deployment?

A. UDP 16666 for the control plane, EoIP (IP protocol 97) for the data plane

B. UDP 16668 for the control plane, UDP 16667 for the data plane

C. UDP 16667 for the control plane, UDP 16666 for the data plane

D. UDP 16666 for the control plane, UDP 16667 for the data plane

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 1

New Question 2:

An engineer is designing a wireless deployment for a university auditorium. Which two features can be used to help deal with the issues introduced by high AP count? (Choose two.)

A. TSPEC

B. RXSOP

C. TPC

D. LSS

E. DFS

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/80211/200069-Overview-on-802-11h-Transmit-Power-Cont.html

New Question 3:

A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network to support real-time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol must the engineer enable on the WLC so that the number of packets that are exchanged between an access point and client is reduced and fast roaming occurs?

A. 802.11w

B. 802.11r

C. 802.11i

D. 802.11k

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 3

New Question 4:

A network administrator of a global organization is collapsing all controllers into a single cluster located in central Europe. Which concern must be addressed?

A. Some channels may not be available consistently across the organization.

B. Different RF policies per office are not available in this configuration.

C. Syslog must be configured to the time zone of the NMS platform.

D. Centralized controllers cannot uniformly authenticate global users.

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/technotes/86/b_Cisco_Wireless_LAN_ Controller_Configuration_Best_Practices.html

New Question 5:

An engineer must ensure that the new wireless LAN deployment can support seamless roaming between access points using a standard based on an amendment to the 802.11 protocol. Which protocol must the engineer select?

A. 802.11i

B. 802.11ac

C. 802.11r

D. 802.11e

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 5

New Question 6:

A high-density wireless network is designed. Which Cisco WLC configuration setting must be incorporated in the design to encourage clients to use the 5 GHz spectrum?

A. Band Select

B. RRM

C. Cisco Centralized Key Management

D. load balancing

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 6

New Question 7:

A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters. Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.)

A. Use a battery pack to power APs B. Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements.

C. Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput.

D. Use APs with directional antennas.

E. Use APs with external antennas.

F. Use APs with built-in antennas.

Correct Answer: ABF

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/technology/mesh/8-4/b_mesh_84/Site_Preparation_and_Planning.html#ID3405

New Question 8:

A wireless engineer must optimize RF performance for multiple buildings with multiple types of construction and user density. Which two actions must be taken? (Choose two.)

A. Configure Flexconnect groups for each building.

B. Configure WMM profiles for each building.

C. Configure AP groups for each area type.

D. Configure RF profiles for each area type.

E. Enable DTPC on the network.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-10/config-guide/b_cg810/configuring_ap_groups.html

New Question 9:

A wireless engineer is hired to design a network for a technology company. The company campus has four buildings and a warehouse with access points that provide full wireless coverage as well as a pair of WLCs located in the core of the network. Which type of wireless architecture is being used?

A. unified deployment

B. autonomous deployment

C. centralized deployment

D. distributed deployment

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 9

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 300-425 dumps questions 10

What is the main reason why the Wi-Fi design engineer took a different approach than installing the APs in the offices, even though that installation provides better coverage?

A. aesthetics

B. transmit power considerations

C. antenna gain

D. power supply considerations

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Mobility/emob30dg/RFDesign.html#wp10 00551

New Question 11:

Where must the APs be mounted when used in a high-density wireless network to provide 6 dB to 20 dB of attenuation to a cell?

A. in the aisle

B. under the seat

C. above the stage

D. under the stage

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 11

New Question 12:

A company wants to replace its existing PBX system with a new VoIP System that will include wireless IP phones. The CIO has concerns about whether the company\’s existing wireless network can support the new system. Which tool in Cisco Prime can help ensure that the current network will support the new phone system?

A. Location Readiness

B. Site Calibration

C. Map Editor

D. Voice Readiness

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 12

New Question 13:

A rapidly expanding company has tasked its network engineer with wirelessly connecting a new cubicle area with Cisco workgroup bridges until the wired network is complete. Each of the 42 new users has a computer and VoIP phone. How many APs for workgroup bridging must be ordered to keep costs at a minimum while connecting all devices?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 7

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 13

So, each AP will have 25 clients. A minimum of 4 APs is sufficient.

New Question 14:

An engineer is designing a wireless network that will support many different types of wireless clients. When conducting the survey, which client must be used to ensure a consistent experience for all of the wireless clients?

A. the client that has the highest RF properties

B. the client that is used most by the company

C. the client that is used least by the company

D. the client with the worst RF characteristics

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 14

https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/WiFi_Basics_and_Best_Practices/Conducting_Site_Surveys_ with_MR_Access_Points

New Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 300-425 dumps questions 15

A client roams between two APs that are registered to two different controllers, where each controller has an interface in the client subnet. Both controllers are running AireOS. Which scenario explains the client roaming behavior?

A. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database entry is moved from the original controller to the new controller.

B. Controllers do not exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database, entry is not moved from the original controller to the new controller.

C. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and a new client session is started with the new controller.

D. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database entry is tunneled from the original controller to the new controller.

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 15-1


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New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. Users in the branch network of 2001:db8:0:4::/64 report that they cannot access the Internet. Which command is issued in IPv6 router EIGRP 100 configuration mode to solve this issue?

A. Issue the eigrp stub command on R1.

B. Issue the no eigrp stub command on R1.

C. Issue the eigrp stub command on R2.

D. Issue the no eigrp stub command on R2.

Check answer

New Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration configures a policy on R1 to forward any traffic that is sourced from the 192.168.130.0/24 network to R2?

A. access-list 1 permit 192.168.130.0 0.0.0.255 ! interface Gi0/2 IP policy route-map test! route-map test permit 10 match IP address 1 set IP next-hop 172.20.20.2

B. access-list 1 permit 192.168.130.0 0.0.0.255 ! interface Gi0/1 IP policy route-map test! route-map test permit 10 match IP address 1 set IP next-hop 172.20.40.2

C. access-list 1 permit 192.168.130.0 0.0.0.255 ! interface Gi0/2 IP policy route-map test! r oute-map test permit 10 match IP address 1 set IP next-hop 172.20.20.1

D. access-list 1 permit 192.168.130.0 0.0.0.255 ! interface Gi0/1 IP policy route-map test! route-map test permit 10 match IP address 1 set IP next-hop 172.20.40.1

E. access-list 1 permit 192.168.130.0 0.0.0.255 ! interface Gi0/1 IP policy route-map test! route-map test permit 10 match IP address 1 set IP next-hop 172.20.20.1

Check answer

New Question 3:

R2 has a locally originated prefix 192.168.130.0/24 and has these configurations: What is the result when the route-map OUT command is applied toward an eBGP neighbor R1 (1.1.1.1) by using the neighbor 1.1.1.1 route-map OUT out command?

A. R1 sees 192.168.130.0/24 as two AS hops away instead of one AS hop away.

B. R1 does not accept any routes other than 192.168.130.0/24

C. R1 does not forward traffic that is destined for 192.168.30.0/24

D. Network 192.168.130.0/24 is not allowed in the R1 table

Check answer

New Question 4:

Which method changes the forwarding decision that a router makes without first changing the routing table or influencing the IP data plane?

A. nonbroadcast multiaccess

B. packet switching

C. policy-based routing

D. forwarding information base

Check answer

New Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. The output of the traceroute from R5 shows a loop in the network. Which configuration prevents this loop?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Check answer

New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures a static route on a router, but when the engineer checks the route to the destination, a different next hop is chosen. What is the reason for this?

A. Dynamic routing protocols always have priority over static routes.

B. The metric of the OSPF route is lower than the metric of the static route.

C. The configured AD for the static route is higher than the AD of OSPF.

D. The syntax of the static route is not valid, so the route is not considered.

Check answer

New Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to generate a summary route in OSPF for network 10.0.0.0/8, but the summary route does not show up in the routing table. Why is the summary route missing?

A. The summary-address command is used only for summarizing prefixes between areas.

B. The summary route is visible only in the OSPF database, not in the routing table.

C. There is no route for a subnet inside 10.0.0.0/8, so the summary route is not generated.

D. The summary route is not visible on this router, but it is visible on other OSPF routers in the same area.

Check answer

New Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to block the route to 192.168.2.2 from the routing table by using the configuration that is shown.

The route is still present in the routing table as an OSPF route. Which action blocks the route?

A. Use an extended access list instead of a standard access list.

B. Change sequence 10 in the route-map command from permit to deny.

C. Use a prefix list instead of an access list in the route map.

D. Add this statement to the route map: route-map RM-OSPF-DL deny 20.

Check answer

New Question 9:

What is a prerequisite for configuring BFD?

A. Jumbo frame support must be configured on the router that is using BFD.

B. All routers in the path between two BFD endpoints must have BFD enabled.

C. Cisco Express Forwarding must be enabled on all participating BFD endpoints.

D. To use BFD with BGP, the timers 3 9 command must first be configured in the BGP routing process.

Check answer

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. R2 is a route reflector, and R1 and R3 are route reflector clients. The route reflector learns the route to 172.16.25.0/24 from R1, but it does not advertise to R3. What is the reason the route is not advertised?

A. R2 does not have a route to the next hop, so R2 does not advertise the prefix to other clients.

B. Route reflector setup requires full IBGP mesh between the routers.

C. In route reflector setup, only classful prefixes are advertised to other clients.

D. In route reflector setups, prefixes are not advertised from one client to another.

Check answer

New Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to redistribute OSPF to BGP, but not all of the routes are redistributed. What is the reason for this issue?

A. By default, only internal routes and external type 1 routes are redistributed into BGP

B. Only classful networks are redistributed from OSPF to BGP

C. BGP convergence is slow, so the route will eventually be present in the BGP table

D. By default, only internal OSPF routes are redistributed into BGP

Check answer

New Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

In which circumstance does the BGP neighbor remain in the idle condition?

A. if prefixes are not received from the BGP peer

B. if prefixes reach the maximum limit

C. if a prefix list is applied in the inbound direction

D. if prefixes exceed the maximum limit

Check answer

New Question 13:

Which attribute eliminates LFAs that belong to protected paths in situations where links in a network are connected through a common fiber?

A. Shared Risk Link Group (SRLG)-disjoint

B. linecard-disjoint

C. lowest-repair-path-metric

D. interface-disjoint

Check answer

New Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is troubleshooting BGP on a device but discovers that the clock on the device does not correspond to the time stamp of the log entries. Which action ensures consistency between the two times?

A. Configure the service timestamps log uptime command in global configuration mode.

B. Configure the logging clock synchronize command in global configuration mode.

C. Configure the service timestamps log datetime localtime command in global configuration mode.

D. Make sure that the clock on the device is synchronized with an NTP server.

Check answer

New Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of applying this configuration?

A. The router can form BGP neighborships with any other device.

B. The router cannot form BGP neighborships with any other device.

C. The router cannot form BGP neighborships with any device that is matched by the access list named “BGP”.

D. The router can form BGP neighborships with any device that is matched by the access list named “BGP”.

Check answer

Publish the answer:

Questions:Answers:Explain:
Q1B
Q2E
Q3A
Q4C
Q5A
Q6CThe AD of the static route is manually configured to 130 which is higher than the AD of the OSPF router which is 110.
Q7CThe summary address is only used to create aggregate addresses for OSPF at an autonomous system boundary.

It means this command should only be used on the ASBR when you are trying to summarize externally redistributed routes from another protocol domain or you have an NSSA area. But a requirement to create a summarized route is:

The ASBR compares the summary route\’s range of addresses with all routes redistributed into OSPF on that ASBR to find any subordinate subnets (subnets that sit inside the summary route range). If at least one subordinate subnet exists, the ASBR advertises the summary route.
Q8B
Q9C
Q10A
Q11DIf you configure the redistribution of OSPF into BGP without keywords, only OSPF intra-area and inter-area routes are redistributed into BGP, by default.

You can redistribute both internal and external (type-1 and type-2) OSPF routes via this command:

Router(config-router)#redistribute ospf 1 match internal external 1 external 2
Q12D
Q13A
Q14CThe Time zone needs to be changed. default it UTC Central European Time (CET)
Q15C

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The latest update of Cisco 350-401 exam questions and answers and official exam information tips

QUESTION 1:

Which two operations are valid for RESTCONF? (Choose two.)

A. HEAD
B. REMOVE
C. PULL
D. PATCH
E. ADD
F. PUSH

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/166/b_166_programmability_cg/b_166_programmability_cg_chapter_01011.html

QUESTION 2:

What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution?

A. to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships
B. to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric
C. to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD-Access fabric.
D. to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN?

A. ISE server
B. local WLC
C. RADIUS server
D. anchor WLC

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4:

How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?

A. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions correct
B. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table
C. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices
D. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing before they are sent to the FIB

Correct Answer: A

The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table?CEF uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions.

The FIB is conceptually similar to a routing table or information base. It maintains a mirror image of the forwarding information contained in the IP routing table. When routing or topology changes occur in the network, the IP routing table is updated, and these changes are reflected in the FIB. The FIB maintains next-hop address information based on the information in the IP routing table.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/routers/12000-seriesrouters/47321-ciscoef.html

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the OPSF debug output is true?

A. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent to received on interface Fa0/1.
B. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on all interfaces.
C. The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent received on interface Fa0/1.
D. The output displays OSPF hello and LSACK messages which router R1 has sent or received.

Correct Answer: C

This combination of commands is known as “Conditional debug” and will filter the debug output based on your conditions. Each condition added, will behave like an `And\\’ operator in Boolean logic. Some examples of the “debug IP OSPF hello” are shown below:

QUESTION 6:

Which standard access control entry permits from odd-numbered hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet?

A. Permit 10.0.0.0.0.0.0.1
B. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.0
C. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.254
D. Permit 10.0.0.0.255.255.255.254

Correct Answer: C

Remember, for the wildcard mask, 1s are I DON\\’T CARE, and 0s are I CARE. So now let\\’s analyze a simple ACL:

access-list 1 permit 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255

Two first octets are all 0\\’s meaning that we care about the network 172.23.x.x. The third octet of the wildcard mask, 15 (0000 1111 in binary), means that we care about the first 4 bits but don\\’t care about the last 4 bits so we allow the third octet in the form of 0001xxxx (minimum:00010000 = 16; maximum: 0001111 = 31).

The fourth octet is 255 (all 1 bits) which means I don\\’t care. Therefore network 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255 ranges from 172.23.16.0 to 172.23.31.255. Now let\\’s consider the wildcard mask of 0.0.0.254 (four-octet: 254 = 1111 1110) which means we only care about the last bit.

Therefore if the last bit of the IP address is a “1” (0000 0001) then only odd numbers are allowed.

If the last bit of the IP address is a “0” (0000 0000) then only even numbers are allowed.
Note: In binary, odd numbers always end with a “1” while even numbers always end with a “0”.

Therefore in this question, only the statement “permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.254” will allow all odd-numbered
hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet.

QUESTION 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the network. Which COS to the DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly?

A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46
B. COS of 7 to DSCP 48
C. COS of 6 to DSCP 46
D. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure.
Which design facilitates migration from a traditional campus design to a programmable fabric design?

A. Layer 2 access
B. three-tier
C. two-tier
D. routed access

Correct Answer: C

Intent-based networking (IBN) transforms a hardware-centric, manual network into a controller-led network that captures business intent and translates it into policies that can be automated and applied consistently across the network. The goal is for the network to continuously monitor and adjust network performance to help assure desired business outcomes. IBN builds on software-defined networking (SDN). SDN usually uses spine-leaf architecture, which is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves (such as an access layer).

QUESTION 9:

An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.)

A. Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic
B. Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible
C. Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate
D. Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it
E. Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible

Correct Answer: CE

Traffic policing propagates bursts. When the traffic rate reaches the configured maximum rate (or committed information rate), excess traffic is dropped (or remarked). The result is an output rate that appears as a saw-tooth with crests and troughs.

Unlike traffic shaping, traffic policing does not cause delays. Classification (which includes traffic policing, traffic shaping, and queuing techniques) should take place at the network edge. It is recommended that classification occur as close to the source of the traffic as possible. Also according to this Cisco link, “policing traffic as close to the source as possible”.

QUESTION 10:

To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect?

A. Auto
B. Active
C. On
D. Passive

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-mobility-documents/lag-link-aggregation/ta-p/3128669

QUESTION 11:

Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12:

On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric?

A. LISP
B. IS-IS
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. VXLAN

Correct Answer: D

The tunneling technology used for the fabric data plane is based on Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN). VXLAN encapsulation is UDP-based, meaning that it can be forwarded by any IP-based network (legacy or third party) and creates the overlay network for the SD-Access fabric. Although LISP is the control plane for the SD-Access fabric, it does not use LISP data encapsulation for the data plane; instead, it uses VXLAN encapsulation because it is capable of encapsulating the original Ethernet header to perform MAC-in-IP encapsulation, while LISP does not.

Using VXLAN
allows the SD-Access fabric to support Layer 2 and Layer 3 virtual topologies (overlays) and the ability to operate over any IP-based network with built-in network segmentation (VRF instance/VN) and built-in group-based policy.

Reference:
CCNP and CCIE Enterprise Core ENCOR 350-401 Official Cert Guide

QUESTION 13:

Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall?

A. Passive
B. Tap
C. Inline tap
D. Inline

Correct Answer: D

Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) provides six interface modes which are: Routed, Switched, Inline Pair, Inline Pair with Tap, Passive, and Passive (ERSPAN). When Inline Pair Mode is in use, packets can be blocked since they are processed inline When you use Inline Pair mode, the packet goes mainly through the FTD Snort engine When Tap Mode is enabled, a copy of the packet is inspected and dropped internally while the actual traffic goes through FTD unmodified
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-ngfw/200924-configuringfirepower-threat-defenseint.html

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[Updated 2022] Latest Cisco 350-201 dumps exam questions Free sharing

Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. A threat actor behind a single computer exploited a cloud-based application by sending multiple concurrent API requests. These requests made the application unresponsive. Which solution protects the application from being overloaded and ensures more equitable application access across the end-user community?

A. Limit the number of API calls that a single client is allowed to make

B. Add restrictions on the edge router on how often a single client can access the API

C. Reduce the amount of data that can be fetched from the total pool of active clients that call the API

D. Increase the application cache of the total pool of active clients that call the API

Correct Answer: A

 

Question 2:

A threat actor attacked an organization\’s Active Directory server from a remote location, and in a thirty-minute timeframe, stole the password for the administrator account and attempted to access 3 company servers. The threat actor successfully accessed the first server that contained sales data, but no files were downloaded. A second server was also accessed that contained marketing information and 11 files were downloaded. When the threat actor accessed the third server that contained corporate financial data, the session was disconnected, and the administrator\’s account was disabled.

Which activity triggered the behavior analytics tool?

A. accessing the Active Directory server

B. accessing the server with financial data

C. accessing multiple servers

D. downloading more than 10 files

Correct Answer: C

 

Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst needs to investigate a security incident involving several suspicious connections with a possible attacker. Which tool should the analyst use to identify the source IP of the offender?

A. packet sniffer

B. malware analysis

C. SIEM

D. firewall manager

Correct Answer: A

 

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop has automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine for further analysis. What should be concluded from this report?

A. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

B. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

C. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

D. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are low and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

Correct Answer: C

 

Question 5:

The physical security department received a report that an unauthorized person followed an authorized individual to enter a secured premises. The incident was documented and given to a security specialist to analyze. Which step should be taken at this stage?

A. Determine the assets to which the attacker has access

B. Identify assets the attacker handled or acquired

C. Change access controls to high-risk assets in the enterprise

D. Identify the movement of the attacker in the enterprise

Correct Answer: D

[Updated 2022] Get more up-to-date Cisco 350-201 exam questions and answers

The latest update of Cisco 350-201 exam questions and answers and official exam information tips

QUESTION 1:

cisco 350-201 q1

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop has automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine for further analysis. What should be concluded from this report?

A. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

B. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

C. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

D. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are low and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

Refer to the exhibit. Which command was executed in PowerShell to generate this log?cisco 350-201 q2

A. Get-EventLog -LogName*
B. Get-EventLog -List
C. Get-WinEvent -ListLog* -ComputerName localhost
D. Get-WinEvent -ListLog*

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://lists.xymon.com/archive/2019-March/046125.html

QUESTION 3:

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the threat from the left onto the scenario that introduces the threat on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

cisco 350-201 q3

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q3-1

QUESTION 4:

A SOC analyst is notified by the network monitoring tool that there are unusual types of internal traffic on the IP subnet 103.861.2117.0/24. The analyst discovers unexplained encrypted data files on a computer system that belongs on that specific subnet.
What is the cause of the issue?

A. DDoS attack
B. phishing attack
C. virus outbreak
D. malware outbreak

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit. Which asset has the highest risk value?cisco 350-201 q5

A. servers
B. website
C. payment process
D. secretary workstation

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

What is the principle of Infrastructure as Code?

A. System maintenance is delegated to software systems
B. Comprehensive initial designs support robust systems
C. Scripts and manual configurations work together to ensure repeatable routines
D. System downtime is grouped and scheduled across the infrastructure

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7:

An analyst is alerted to a malicious file hash. After analysis, the analyst determined that an internal workstation is communicating over port 80 with an external server and that the file hash is associated with Duqu malware. Which tactics, techniques, and procedures align with this analysis?

A. Command and Control, Application Layer Protocol, Duqu
B. Discovery, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
C. Lateral Movement, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
D. Discovery, System Network Configuration Discovery, Duqu

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

Refer to the exhibit. For IP 192.168.1.209, what are the risk level, activity, and next step?cisco 350-201 q8

A. high-risk level, anomalous periodic communication, quarantine with antivirus
B. critical risk level, malicious server IP, run in a sandboxed environment
C. critical risk level, data exfiltration, isolate the device
D. high-risk level, malicious host, investigate further

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

DRAG-DROPcisco 350-201 q9

Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Secure Network Analytics (Stealthwatch) console alerted with “New Malware Server Discovered” and the IOC indicates communication from an end-user desktop to a Zeus CandC Server. Drag and drop the actions that the analyst should take from the left into the order on the right to investigate and remediate this IOC.

Select and Place: cisco 350-201 q9-1

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q9-2

QUESTION 10:
cisco 350-201 q10

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine. What should be concluded from this report?

A. Threat scores are high, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified
B. Threat scores are low, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified
C. Threat scores are high, malicious activity is detected, but files have not been modified
D. Threat scores are low and no malicious file activity is detected

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11:

DRAG-DROP
An organization lost connectivity to critical servers, and users cannot access business applications and internal websites. An engineer checks the network devices to investigate the outage and determines that all devices are functioning. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to continue investigating this issue. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:cisco 350-201 q11

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q11-1

QUESTION 12:

An employee abused PowerShell commands and script interpreters, which lead to an indicator of compromise (IOC) trigger. The IOC event shows that a known malicious file has been executed, and there is an increased likelihood of a breach.
Which indicator generated this IOC event?

A. ExecutedMalware.ioc
B. Crossrider.ioc
C. ConnectToSuspiciousDomain.ioc
D. W32 AccesschkUtility.ioc

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13:

A threat actor used a phishing email to deliver a file with an embedded macro. The file was opened, and a remote code execution attack occurred in a company\\’s infrastructure. Which steps should an engineer take at the recovery stage?

A. Determine the systems involved and deploy available patches
B. Analyze event logs and restrict network access
C. Review access lists and require users to increase password complexity
D. Identify the attack vector and update the IDS signature list

Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: HP
Exam Code: HPE0-J68
Exam Name: HPE Storage Solutions
Certification: HPE ASE
Exam duration: 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length: 60 questions
Passing score: 63%
Delivery languages: English, Japanese, Korean
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Verification answer at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

A customer has a SAN infrastructure with the HPE C-class blade Enclosure, and a mix of ProLiant G7,gen8, and Ge9 servers. They require a new storage platform … How can you confirm the storage array will be supported in the existing environment?

A. Check recommended firmware levels in the HP SAN design reference guide to ensure firmware compatibility

B. Document existing server and SAN information, and consult SPOCK to ensure firmware compatibility

C. Design and array with the latest firmware, and recommend that the customer engage HPE point Next to upgrade the existing hardware

D. Design an array with older versions of the firmware to ensure compatibility

QUESTION 2:

What is the benefit of HPE Synergy? (Choose two.)

A. It supports up to three HPE StoreVirtual VSA nodes for storage RAID.
B. It can compose and reclaim DAS storage.
C. It supports HPE BladeSystem c-class FlexFabric interconnect modules.
D. It can use HPE 3PAR File Persona for object storage.
E. It can prevent block storage services from HPE 3PAR as part of the resource pool.

QUESTION 3:

What are the benefits of HPE synergy? (Select 2)

A. It can present block storage services from HPE 3par as part of the resource pool
B. It supports up to 3 HPE store Virtual VSA nodes for storage RAID
C. It can use HPE 3PAR file persona for objet storage
D. It can compose and reclaim DAS storage
E. It supports HPE blade system C-Class Flex Fabrics Interconnect module (need to check)

QUESTION 4:

You are planning a single-site Nimble solution with iSCSI connectivity. Two 10GbE SFP+ dual-port NICs are included in the configuration. You designed an Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF) stack with HPE FlexFabric 5900CP switches.
Which statement is correct when discussing the IRF limits for this configuration?

A. When connecting an iSCSI storage to an IRF stack, a minimum of four 10GbE ports must be used per switch.
B. A maximum of two switches can be used in an IRF stack when connecting storage.
C. In an IRF stack with storage connectivity, the 40GbE ports cannot be used.
D. The used IRF ports for iSCSI traffic have to be configured as 10GbE converged ports.

QUESTION 5:

You are advising a customer on a new backup strategy to deploy HPE StoreOnce.
What should you recommend to ensure the best storage utilization and performance?

A. consolidate activity windows for housekeeping tasks
B. size solution for a single backup device
C. combine management and backup Ethernet traffic
D. use separate backup targets for different data types

QUESTION 6:

During the Technology workshop, the customer asks about the difference between converged and fiber channel switches. What would be the benefits of using flex fabric switches in a fiber channel storage environment?

A. Support for combining multiple physical switches into one virtual switch with a single IP address

B. Support for six Ethernet and two fiber channels, or six Ethernet and two ISCSI or eight Ethernet adapters per server.

C. Zones can be configured for QoS with high, medium, and low priorities within a fabric on a zone-by-zone basic

D. In-flight compression and encryption provide efficient link utilization and security

QUESTION 7:

You are designing a new HPE 3PAR StoreServ all-flash array for the customer.. Which ratio should you expect to have the highest efficiency?

A. Read/write ratio
B. Reclamation ratio
C. Compaction Ratio
D. Thin provisioning ratio

QUESTION 8:

A customer wants to implement a virtualized environment and wants to provide independent storage access to individual virtual servers. Which feature needs to be enabled on the B-series FC switches to support this solution?

A. FCIP
B. NPIV
C. ALPA
D. RSCN

QUESTION 9:

A customer has an excisting environment with 3PAR, Nimble, and MSA
They are providing file servicing from all arrays with multiple virtual machines but preference is not adequate.
What should you add to the environment to increase performance, increase availability, and reduce management overhead?

A. StoreEasy 3850 Gateway
B. StoreEasy 5000
C. 3PAR File Persona
D. Simplvity 380

QUESTION 10:

You are adding a new host for an HPE 3PAR StoreServ proof-of-concept. In addition to the hostname, What is the minimum information that is required to create a host profile?

A. Host Persona
B. Host MAC
C. Host set
D. Host WWN

QUESTION 11:

A customer is concerned about the business risks of non-compliance for long-term data protection, retention, immutability, and encryption on petabytes of data consisting of millions of objects in a global namespace across multiple geographic locations.
Which products should you recommend to the customer to address their concern? (Choose two.)

A. HPE StoreOnce Systems
B. HPE Complete Veeam
C. HPE Complete iTernity iCAS
D. HPE Scality RING on HPE Apollo Servers
E. HPE 3PAR StoreServ 9000

QUESTION 12:

Which resource provides configurations for HPE tested and referenced configurations in a software-defined storage environment?

A. HPE Storage Sizer
B. One Config Advanced
C. NinjaStars
D. StoreVirtual VSA Ready Nodes

QUESTION 13:

A customer has a new Nimble CS3000 21T storage system and is facing latency issues for his 2TB ERP database.

What would be a design approach to solve this issue?

A. Perform controller upgrade to a Nimbel CS3000 storage systems
B. Add additional SSD drives as a cache to the system and PIN the volume
C. Enable storage tiering on the system and map the volume to the new tier
D. Change RAID of the drives to RAID -1 and setup the quality of services for the volume

……

Verify answer:

Number:Answers:Explain:
Q1B
Q2BE
Q3AD
Q4A
Q5A
Q6A
Q7C
Q8B
Q9A
Q10D
Q11AC
Q12DHPE StoreVirtual VSA Ready Nodes–HPE tested reference configurations on HPE ProLiant servers that address typical virtualization and remote office use cases and deployment of converged solutions.
Q13B

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Design, configure and troubleshoot various ClearPass products commonly used in large-scale customer deployments. This includes ClearPass Policy Manager, Guest, Analytics, Onboarding, Onguard, Status, Clustering, Redundancy, and External Server Integration.

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Details of the HPE6-A81 exam you need to know:

Vendor: HP
Exam Code: HPE6-A81
Exam Name: Aruba Certified ClearPass Expert Written Exam
Certification: Aruba Certified ClearPass Professional (ACCP)
Number of questions: 60
Types of questions: multiple responses, single response
Exam duration: 2 hours
Passing score: 65%
Languages: English
Exam Type: Proctored

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QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit:

You have configured Onboard and cannot get it working The customer has sent you the above screenshots.

How would you resolve the issue?

A. Re-provision the client by running the QuickConnect application as Administrator

B. Install a public signed server authentication certificate on the ClearPass server for EAP

C. Reconnect the client and select the correct certificate when prompted

D. Copy the [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] authentication method and set the correct OCSP URL

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

You are integrating a Postgres SQL server with the ClearPass Policy Manager.

What steps will you follow to complete the integration process? (Select three)

A. Click on the default filter name with pre-defined filter queries and check the box to enable as role.

B. Specify a new filter with filter queries to fetch authentication and authorization attributes.

C. Attribute Name under filter configuration must match one of the columns being requested from the database table.

D. Create a new Endpoint context server and add the SQL server IP, credentials, and database name.

E. Alias Name under filter configuration must match one of the columns being requested from the database table.

F. Create a new authentication source and add the SQL server IP, credentials, and database name.

Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 3:

A customer has completed all the required configurations in the Windows server in order for Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) to sign Onboard device TLS certificates.

The Onboard portal and the Onboard services are also configured.

Testing shows that the Client certificates ate still signed by the Onboard Certificate Authority and not ADCS.

How can you help the customer with the situation?

A. Educate the customer that, when integrating with Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) the Onboard CA will the same authority used for signing me final TLS certificate of the device.

B. Configure the identity certificate signer as Active Directory Certificate Services and enter the ADCS URL
http://ADCSVVeoEnrollmentServemostname/certsrv in the OnBoard Provisioning settings.

C. Enable access to EST servers from the Certificate Authority to make ClearPass Onboard to use of the Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) web enrollment to sign the device TLS certificates.

D. Enable access to SCEP servers from the Certificate Authority to make ClearPass Onboard to use of the Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) web enrollment to sign the device TLS certificates.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

How does the RadSec improve the RADIUS message exchange? (Select two.)

A. It can be used on an unsecured network or the Internet.

B. It builds a TTLS tunnel between the NAD and ClearPass.

C. Only the NAD needs to trust the ClearPass Certificate.

D. It encrypts the entire RADIUS message.

E. It uses UDP to exchange the radius packets.

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5:

A customer has deployed an OnGuard Solution to all the corporate devices using a group policy rule to push the OnGuard Agents.

The network administrator is complaining that some of the agents are communicating to the ClearPass server that is located in a DMZ, outside the firewall The network administrator wants all of the agents System Health Validation traffic to stay inside the Management subnets.

What can the ClearPass administrator do to move the traffic only to the ClearPass Management Ports?

A. Edit the agent.conf file being deployed to the clients to use the ClearPass Management Port for SHV updates.

B. Select the correct OnGuard Agent installer, and use the one configured for Management Port for the clients.

C. Configure a Policy Manager Zone mapping so the OnGuard agent will use the Management Port IP.

D. Filter TCP port 6658 on the firewall, forcing the OnGuard agent to use the ClearPass Management port.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

A customer is complaining that some of the devices, in their manufacturing network, are not getting profiled while other loT devices from the same subnet have been correctly profiled.

The network switches have been configured for DHCP IP helpers and IF-MAP has been configured on the Aruba Controllers.

What can the customer do to discover those devices as well? (Select two.)

A. Update the Fingerprints Dictionary to the latest in case new devices have been added.

B. Open a TAC case to help you troubleshoot the DHCP device profile functionality.

C. Add the ClearPass Server IP as an IP helper-address on the default gateway as well.

D. Allow time for IF-MAP service on the controller to discover the new devices as well.

E. Manually create a new device fingerprint for the devices that are not being profiled.

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7:

You have recently implemented a serf-registration portal in ClearPass Guest to be used on a Guest SSID broadcast from an Aruba controller. Your customer has started complaining that the users are not able to reliably access the internet after clicking the login button on the receipt page.

They tell you that the users will click the login button multiple times and alter about a minute they gain access.

What could be causing this issue?

A. The self-registration page is configured with a 1-minute login delay.

B. The guest client is delayed getting an IP address from the DHCP server.

C. The guest users are assigned a firewall user role that has a rate limit.

D. The enforcement profile on ClearPass is set up with an lETF:session delay.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

You have configured a Guest SSID with Captive-portal Web Authentication and MAC authentication The MAC caching expiry time set to 12 hours and the Guest Account expiration time is set to 8 hours.

What will happen if the guest were to disconnect from the SSID and re-connect 9 hours later?

A. The client will tail the MAC authentication and be denied access to the Guest SSID.

B. The client will successfully pass the mac authentication until the mac caching time expires.

C. The client will successfully pass the MAC authentication but still be redirected to captive portal page.

D. The client will fail the MAC authentication and will be redirected to the Captive-portal login page.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9:

Refer to the exhibit:

When creating a new report, there is an option to send report Notifications by Email.

Where is the email server configured?

A. In the ClearPass Policy Manager Endpoint Context servers under Administration.

B. In the Insight Reports Interface under Administration on the sidebar menu.

C. In the insight report on the next screen of the report definition.

D. In the ClearPass Policy Manager Messaging setup under Administration.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

Refer to the exhibit:

A customer has configured onboard in a cluster with two nodes All devices were onboarded in the network through node1 but those clients tail to authenticate through node2 with the error shown.

What steps would you suggest to make provisioning and authentication work across the entire cluster? (Select three.)

A. Have all of the BYOD clients re-run the Onboard process

B. Configure the Onboard Root CA to trust the Policy Manager EAP certificate root.

C. Have all of the BYOD clients disconnect and reconnect to me network

D. Make sure that the EAP certificates on both nodes are issued by one common root Certificate Authority (CA).

E. Make sure that the HTTPS certificate on both nodes is issued as a Code Signing certificate

F. Configure the Network Settings in Onboard to trust the Policy Manager EAP certificate

Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 11:

A Customer has these requirements:
*
2.000 loT endpoints that use MAC authentication
*
6,000 endpoints using a mix of username/password and certificate (Corporate/BYOD) based authentication
*
1,000 guest endpoints at peak usage that use guest self-registration
*
1500 BYOD devices estimated as 3 devices per User (500 users)
*
2,500 endpoints that have OnGuard installed and connect on a daily basis

What licenses should be installed to meet customer requirements?

A. 11,500 Access, 500 Onboard, 2,500 Onguard

B. 13.000 Access, 1.500 Onboard, 2,500 Onguard

C. 11,500 Access, 1,500 Onboard, 2.500 Onguard

D. 9,000 Access, 500 Onboard. 2.500 Onguard

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12:

What type of EAP certificate are you able to use on ClearPass? (Select two.)

A. Self signed, when all the clients are Onboarded with the same Root CA as the Self signed certificate.

B. Private signed, when the clients are onboarded or are part of the organization domain.

C. Private signed, when some clients are onboarded and some are not part of the organization.

D. Public signed, when not all of the clients are part of the organization domain.

E. Self signed, when all the clients are part of the organization domain.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13:

A customer is looking to implement a Web-Based Health Check solution with the following requirements:

for the HR user\’s client devices, check if a USB stick is mounted.
for the RandD user\’s client devices, check if the hard disk is fully encrypted.
The Web-Based Health Check service has been configured but the customer it is not sure how to design
the Profile Policy.
How can be accomplished this customer request?

A. create two Posture Policies and customize the OnGuard Agent (Persistent or Dissolvable) to select the correct SHV checks

B. create one Posture Policy and define Rules Conditions that will apply different Tokens for each SHV check condition

C. create two Posture Policies and use the Restrict by Roles option to filter for HR and RandD user roles and apply the correct SHV checks

D. create one Posture Policy to check the HR users client devices and use the NAP Agent to check RandD users client devices

Correct Answer: A

……

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HPE6-A78 Exam Summary:

Vendor: HP
Exam Code: HPE6-A78
Exam Name: Aruba Certified Network Security Associate
Certification: Aruba-ACNSA
Exam Duration: 1 hour 30 minutes
Passing score: 63%
Exam length: 60 questions
Language: Japanese, English, Latin American Spanish
HPE6-A78 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/hpe6-a78.html
HPE6-A78 Dumps Questions: 60 Q&A
Official Information: https://certification-learning.hpe.com/TR/datacard/Exam/HPE6-A78

Read the following HPE6-A78 free exam questions and answers:

QUESTION 1:

You need to deploy an Aruba instant AP where users can physically reach It. What are two recommended options for enhancing security for management access to the AP? (Select two )

A. Disable Its console ports
B. Place a Tamper Evident Label (TELS) over its console port
C. Disable the Web Ul.
D. Configure WPA3-Enterpnse security on the AP
E. install a CA-signed certificate

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2:

You have an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC). for which you are already using Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to authenticate access to the Web Ul with usernames and passwords You now want to enable managers to use certificates to log in to the Web Ul CPPM will continue to act as the external server to check the names in managers\’ certificates and tell the MC the managers\’ correct rote in addition to enabling certificate authentication.

What is a step that you should complete on the MC?

A. Verify that the MC has the correct certificates, and add RadSec to the RADIUS server configuration for CPPM

B. install all of the managers\’ certificates on the MC as OCSP Responder certificates

C. Verify that the MC trusts CPPM\’s HTTPS certificate by uploading a trusted CA certificate Also, configure a CPPM username and password on the MC

D. Create a local admin account mat uses certificates in the account, specify the correct trusted CA certificate and external authentication

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

A company has Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Aruba Campus APs. and ArubaOS-CX switches. The company plans to use ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to classify endpoints by type The ClearPass admins tell you that they want to run Network scans as part of the solution.

What should you do to configure the infrastructure to support the scans?

A. Create a TA profile on the ArubaOS-Switches with the root CA certificate for ClearPass\’s HTTPS certificate

B. Create device fingerprinting profiles on the ArubaOS-Switches that include SNMP. and apply the profiles to edge ports

C. Create remote mirrors on the ArubaOS-Swrtches that collect traffic on edge ports, and mirror it to CPPM\’s IP address.

D. Create SNMPv3 users on ArubaOS-CX switches, and make sure that the credentials match those configured on CPPM

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4:

What role does the Aruba ClearPass Device Insight Analyzer play in the Device Insight architecture?

A. It resides in the cloud and manages licensing and configuration for Collectors
B. It resides on-prem and provides the span port to which traffic is mirrored for deep analytics.
C. It resides on-prem and is responsible for running active SNMP and Nmap scans
D. It resides In the cloud and applies machine learning and supervised crowdsourcing to metadata sent by Collectors

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5:

What correctly describes the Pairwise Master Key (PMK) in the specified wireless security protocol?

A. In WPA3-Enterprise, the PMK is unique per session and derived using Simultaneous Authentication of Equals.

B. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is unique per session and derived using Simultaneous Authentication of Equals.

C. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is derived directly from the passphrase and is the same tor every session.

D. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is the same for each session and is communicated to clients that authenticate

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6:

Your Aruba Mobility Master-based solution has detected a rogue AP Among other information the ArubaOS Detected Radios page lists this Information for the AP SSID = PubllcWiFI
BSSID = a8M27 12 34:56 Match method = Exact match Match type = Eth-GW-wired-Mac-Table
The security team asks you to explain why this AP is classified as a rogue. What should you explain?

A. The AP Is connected to your LAN because It is transmitting wireless traffic with your network\’s default gateway\’s MAC address as a source MAC Because it does not belong to the company, it is a rogue

B. The ap has a BSSID mat matches authorized client MAC addresses. This indicates that the AP is spoofing the MAC address to gam unauthorized access to your company\’s wireless services, so It is a rogue

C. The AP has been detected as launching a DoS attack against your company\’s default gateway. This qualities it as a rogue which needs to be contained with wireless association frames immediately

D. The AP is spoofing a routers MAC address as its BSSID. This indicates mat, even though WIP cannot determine whether the AP is connected to your LAN. it is a rogue.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7:

Which attack is an example of social engineering?

A. An email Is used to impersonate a Dank and trick users into entering their bank login information on a fake website page.

B. A hacker eavesdrops on insecure communications, such as the Remote Desktop Program (RDP). and discovers login credentials.

C. A user visits a website and downloads a file that contains a worm, which sell-replicates throughout the network.

D. An attack exploits an operating system vulnerability and locks out users until they pay the ransom.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

What are the roles of 802.1X authenticators and authentication servers?

A. The authenticator stores the user account database, while the server stores access policies.
B. The authenticator supports only EAP, while the authentication server supports only RADIUS.
C. The authenticator is a RADIUS client and the authentication server is a RADIUS server.
D. The authenticator makes access decisions and the server communicates them to the supplicant.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9:

What is a Key feature of my ArubaOS firewall?

A. The firewall is stateful which means that n can track client sessions and automatically allow return traffic for permitted sessions

B. The firewall Includes application layer gateways (ALGs). which it uses to filter Web traffic based on the reputation of the destination website.

C. The firewall examines all traffic at Layer 2 through Layer 4 and uses source IP addresses as the primary way to determine how to control traffic.

D. The firewall is designed to fitter traffic primarily based on wireless 802.11 headers, making it ideal for mobility environments

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

What is a vulnerability of an unauthenticated Dime-Heliman exchange?

A. A hacker can replace the public values exchanged by the legitimate peers and launch an MITM attack.

B. A brute force attack can relatively quickly derive Diffie-Hellman private values if they are able to obtain public values

C. Diffie-Hellman with elliptic curve values is no longer considered secure in modem networks, based on NIST recommendations.

D. Participants must agree on a passphrase in advance, which can limit the usefulness of Diffie- Hell man in practical contexts.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

What is the benefit of deploying Aruba ClearPass Device insight?

A. Highly accurate endpoint classification for environments with many devices types, including Internet of Things (loT)

B. visibility into devices\’ 802.1X supplicant settings and automated certificate deployment

C. Agent-based analysts of devices\’ security settings and health status, with the ability to implement quarantining

D. Simpler troubleshooting of ClearPass solutions across an environment with multiple ClearPass Policy Managers

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

You need to ensure that only management stations in subnet 192.168.1.0/24 can access the ArubaOS-
Switches\’ CLI. Web Ul. and REST interfaces The company also wants to let managers use these stations to access other parts of the network.
What should you do?

A. Establish a Control Plane Policing class that selects traffic from 192.168 1.0/24.
B. Specify 192.168.1.0.255.255.255.0 as authorized IP manager address
C. Configure the switch to listen for these protocols on OOBM only.
D. Specify vlan 100 as the management vlan for the switches.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

How should admins deal with vulnerabilities that they find in their systems?

A. They should apply fixes, such as patches, to close the vulnerability before a hacker exploits it.
B. They should add the vulnerability to their Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE).
C. They should classify the vulnerability as malware. a DoS attack or a phishing attack.
D. They should notify the security team as soon as possible that the network has already been breached.

Correct Answer: A

……

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HPE2-W07 Exam Summary:

HPE2-W07 is the Selling Aruba Products and Solutions exam code, Belongs to one of HPE Sales Certified. See more HPE2-W07 exam details:

Vendor: HP
Exam Code: HPE2-W07
Exam Name: Selling Aruba Products and Solutions
Certification: HPE Sales Certified
Duration: 1 hour 30 minutes
Languages: Korean, Japanese, English
Exam length: 60 questions
Passing score: 62%

Read the following HPE2-W07 free dumps, then select Lead4Pass HPE2-W07 dumps:

QUESTION 1:

You need to qualify a customer for an Aruba wireless solution.
What is one question that you should ask to start qualifying the customer?

A. What types of applications and workloads are experiencing issues?
B. Are you ready to drop your wired network and go all wireless?
C. How much budget do you have allocated for IoT and other initiatives?
D. How much in-house expertise do you have in 802.11ac and 802.1ax solutions?

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

A retailer has large stores that have Inconsistent 5G coverage, which leads to complaints from customers. The retailer wants a simple way to give customers the 5G experience. Which Aruba feature should you emphasize to address these goals?

A. Dynamic Segmentation
B. Air Pass
C. Smart Rate
D. Zero Touch Provisioning

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

What is one key advantage of Aruba wireless solutions as compared to Cisco Meraki solutions?

A. Aruba offers cloud subscription-based licensing for all APs while Cisco Meraki requires a significant CAPEX expenditure.

B. Aruba offers beamforming in APs to improve wireless coverage while Cisco Meraki APS does not support any such feature.

C. Aruba offers integration with an extensive ecosystem while Cisco Meraki offers little third-party integration.

D. Aruba offers one simple choice for management while Cisco Meraki has a confusing array of management options.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

You want to determine if a customer is a good prospect for an Aruba Meridian and beacon solution. What is one topic that you should discuss?

A. how much time do IT staff members spend performing basic troubleshooting and whether does this interferes with their ability to innovate

B. how IT prioritizes unified management and integrating wired and wireless access

C. how concerned the customer is about ensuring that only authorized employees can access the wireless network

D. how the company is seeking to improve customer satisfaction scores and the role of mobile apps in their strategy.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5:

What is one key competitive advantage of Aruba AirWave over Cisco Prime?

A. Aruba AirWave is cloud-based, while Cisco Prime only offers on-premises management.
B. Aruba AirWave integrates network access control, while Cisco Prime does not.
C. Cisco Prime-only supports Cisco, while Aruba AirWave offers multi-vendor support.
D. Cisco Prime only offers single-server deployments, while Aruba offers larger deployments.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

Which Aruba solution uses Bluetooth Low Energy to precisely track the location of mobile users through their mobile devices?

A. Aruba Asset Tags
B. Aruba APs in Air Monitor (AM) mode
C. Aruba Beacons
D. Aruba APs in Spectrum Monitor (SM) mode

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7:

Your customer emphasizes the need to simplify network operations.
What is one reason for recommending Aruba 5400R zl2 switches for the customer\’s campus network?

A. Virtual Switching Framework (VSF) allows customers to combine 5400R switches into a single virtual switch which simplifies management tasks and provides more resilient connectivity.

B. Traditional stacking enables network administrators to manage up to 10 5400R switches from a single GUI.

C. Backplane stacking enables multiple 5400R switches to function as a single logical switch, using dedicated modules and stacking cables to integrate the switches.

D. Virtual Switching Extension (VSX) provides redundancy for management modules on the 5400R switches, with seamless failover.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

What is one characteristic of HPE and Aruba Edge-to-Cloud Solutions?

A. They provide RESTful APIs to make them open to easy integration with other applications.

B. They use a proprietary approach to technology to ensure that customers deploy HPE and Aruba from end to end.

C. They are designed for zero-touch management in which IT admins do not need to customize any features.

D. They offer a better ROI when purchased through capital expenditures than when consumed as a service.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

A customer is interested in Aruba ESP. but has policies that prevent using public cloud services. Which solution should you recommend for managing the ESP solution?

A. Aruba AirWave
B. Aruba Meridian
C. Aruba Instant On the app
D. Aruba Central on-premises (COP)

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

You are proposing Aruba Wi-Fi 6 APs as part of an Aruba ESP solution. The customer says, \’Many vendors offer VA-Fi What makes Aruba different?” How can you explain that Aruba Air Slice distinguishes Aruba\’s Wi-Fi 6 solutions?

A. Air Slice disconnects non-Wi-Fi 6 clients from the network to prevent thorn slowing down the entire network.

B. Air Slice uses signature-based scanning to doted compromised wireless devices and places them in quarantine

C. Air Slice provides rate- and application-based quality of service (QoS) that improves users\’ experience on the network.

D. Air Slice enhances security for all wireless clients, particularly loT ones, by implementing micro-segmentation.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11:

A customer wants to get branch networks up and running more quickly. Which Aruba features or solutions should you emphasize?

A. Installer app and Zero Touch Provisioning (ZTP)
B. Smart Rate and Air Slice
C. Aruba Fabric Composer (AFC) and Virtual Switching Framework (VSF)
D. Al Assist and Al Search

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

Where do analysts predict the majority of data will be generated by 2022?

A. The public cloud
B. On-prem data centers
C. Co-located data centers
D. The edge

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

You are meeting with a large hotel that needs a network upgrade. What is one benefit of Aruba solutions that you should emphasize to address a common concern of such customers?

A. better access control over IoT deployments using either Aruba AirWave or Aruba Central

B. simple management experience and end-to-end visibility for troubleshooting with Aruba IntroSpect

C. a higher quality guest wireless experience with features such as ClientMatch, AirGroup, and Cape Networks

D. better security that helps the hotel comply with regulations, based on Aruba Cape Networks sensors

Correct Answer: C

……

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Using HPE OneView Exam Details:

I will share exam-specific information that all candidates using HPE OneView should know.

HPE2-T37 is the latest exam for HPE Product Certified – OneView [2022] certification. For specific information, see:

Vendor: HP
Exam Code: HPE2-T37
Exam Name: Using HPE OneView
Certification: HPE Product Certified – OneView [2022]
Exam duration: 1 hour
Exam length: 40 questions
Passing score: 70%
Delivery languages: Japanese, English, Korean
types of questions: Matching, Multiple choice (multiple responses), Multiple choice (single response), Drag-and-drop, Point and click

Read the HPE2-T37 Free Dumps, Prepare for the Complete Using HPE OneView Exam Materials

QUESTION 1:

Your customer has an environment with five HPE Synergy Composers and 15 HPE OneView appliances managing servers that run VMware. The customer is having a hard time managing their servers.

What can the customer do to simplify the management of this complex environment?

A. deploy HPE OneView for VMware vCenter Server
B. deploy HPE OneView Global Dashboard
C. use an Ansible playbook
D. integrate all HPE OneView appliances and HPE Composers with Active Directory

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

Your customer plans to use HPE OneView to manage a small environment based on HPE ProLiant servers that include G7 and Gen10 systems.

What should you explain to this customer?

A. HPE ProLiant G7 and Gen10 cannot be managed using the same appliance
B. HPE Management Agent must be installed for HPE ProLiant Gen10 servers
C. Not all of the features will be available for HPE ProLiant G7 systems
D. HPE ProLiant Gen10 servers do not need an HPE OneView license

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3:

You try to add a new connection within a server profile, but an operation fails when you try to commit the changes.

What is a possible reason?

A. You tried to add an additional connection above the limit
B. The server is powered on
C. The server does not have an HPE OneView license applied
D. The server is powered off

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4:

HOTSPOT
Click the option that will prevent the appliance from sending any email notifications or forwarding any SNMP traps that are related to the server hardware.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docId=a00059445en_usanddocLocale=en_US

QUESTION 5:

You have created volumes using array management tools and imported the volumes to HPE OneView.

Which statement about these volumes is true?

A. Imported volumes are treated as private volumes and can be only used as boot volumes
B. Volumes imported to HPE OneView are managed just like a volume created using HPE OneView
C. Volumes imported to HPE OneView cannot be removed using the HPE OneView interface
D. A snapshot for imported volumes can be created only by using array management tools

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

You originally configured boot mode for HPE ProLiant Gen10 server to Legacy BIOS\\' in an HPE OneView server profile and deployed an operating system. A few weeks later, you change the boot mode to theUEFI optimized\’ to leverage some features provided by this model.

What must you do next?

A. reset an iLO management processor to activate the new boot mode for the server
B. reinstall an operating system, as UEFI is using a different drive format than Legacy BIOS
C. reset BIOS settings to the defaults so UEFI settings can be applied
D. reset BIOS settings to the defaults through the server profile after changing the boot mode

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7:

You want to update the firmware for only two HPE Synergy Virtual Connect SE 32Gb FC Modules of a large environment. From which level must this procedure be initiated?

A. Logical Enclosure
B. Logical Interconnect
C. Server Profile
D. Logical Interconnect Group

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8:

Which statement regarding HPE OneView backup restore is true?

A. During backup restore, users with Administrator privileges can still log in to HPE OneView
B. An HPE OneView backup can be used to restore individual components like server profile
C. Users with Backup Administrator privileges can restore an HPE OneView backup
D. Only users with Infrastructure Administrator privileges can restore an HPE OneView backup

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about server connections is true?

A. LACP on downlinks is configured for Ethernet connection
B. All connections within the server profile are using physical IDs
C. Ethernet connection is configured to boot from PXE
D. Storage array is connected directly to an HPE Synergy frame

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10:

You are creating a Logical Interconnect Group for a three-frame HPE Synergy solution with HPE Virtual Connect SE100Gb F32 Modules for Synergy.

In which scenario should you set redundancy for master modules to be highly available?

A. When storm control or loop protection will be enabled for Virtual Connect modules
B. When each of the frames has two Virtual Connect modules installed
C. When each Virtual Connect module is installed in a different frame
D. When each Virtual Connect module is installed in a different fabric

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11:

Which locations are supported for HPE OneView remote scheduled backup? (Choose two.)

A. SCP
B. HTTPS
C. SFTP
D. HTTP
E. FTP

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12:

How will setting the Purpose field within the network definition of a server profile impact the network traffic?

A. network purpose can give higher priority to a specific type of traffic
B. network purpose will impact the traffic only if Virtual Connect modules are used
C. network purpose will define QoS within Logical Interconnect
D. network purpose does not affect the behavior of the network

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the storage pools shown is true?

A. Volumes created on the first storage pool cannot use data reduction technologies
B. Both storage pools are in a managed state and can be used for volume provisioning
C. HPE OneView can be used to configure volume replication between these pools
D. Both storage pools have a license applied that enables management of these pools

Correct Answer: A

……

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