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HP HPE6-A79 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1

Refer to the exhibit.

hp hpe6-a79 exam questions q1

Based on the output shown in the exhibit, which channel offers the highest quality?

A. Channel 1
B. Channel 6
C. Channel 11
D. Channel 14
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

An organization has several RAPs at different locations that broadcast two SSIDs. The internet-only SSID is in
bridge/always mode, and the corporate SSID is in split-tunneling/standard mode. The network administrator deploys 10 more RAPs in different locations.
Users can successfully connect to the corporate SSID that is propagated by a RAP at a remote location. However, they
report that it takes too long to access public internet websites.
What is one part of the configuration that should be checked by the network administrator to verify this RAP
deployment?

A. User roles policies
B. IP pool
C. Operating mode
D. Assigned VLAN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibits. Exhibit 1

hp hpe6-a79 exam questions q3

Exhibit 2

hp hpe6-a79 exam questions q3-1

Exhibit 3

hp hpe6-a79 exam questions q3-2

A network administrator wants to allow contractors to access the corporate WLAN named EmployeesNet with the
contractor role in VLAN 40. When users connect, they do not seem to get an IP address. After some verification checks,
the network administrator confirms the DHCP server (10.254.1.21) is reachable from the Mobility Controller (MC) and
obtains the outputs shown in the exhibits.

What should the network administrator do next to troubleshoot this problem?

A. Permit UDP67 to the contractor role.
B. Remove the IP address in VLAN 40.
C. Configure the DHCP helper address.
D. Confirm there is an IP pool for VLAN 40.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit.

hp hpe6-a79 exam questions q4

A network administrator adds a Mobility Controller (MC) in the /mm level and notices that the device does not show up in the managed networks hierarchy. The network administrator accesses the CLI. executes the show switches
command, and obtains the output shown in the exhibit.

What is the reason that the MC does not appear as a managed device in the hierarchy?

A. The network administrator added the device using the wrong Pre-Shared Key (PSK).
B. The network administrator has not moved the device into a group yet.
C. The digital certificate of the MC is not trusted by the MM.
D. The IP address of the MC does not match the one that was defined in the MM.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit.

hp hpe6-a79 exam questions q5

A network administrator wants to allow contractors to access the WLAN named EmployeesNet. In order to restrict
network access, the network administrator wants to assign this category of users to the contractor user role. To do this,
the network administrator configures ClearPass in a way that it returns the Aruba-User-Role with the contractor value.
When testing the solution, the network administrator receives the wrong role.
What should the network administrator do to assign the contractor role to contractor users without affecting any other
role assignment?

A. Check the Download role from the CPPM option in the AAA profile.
B. Set contractor as the default role in the AAA profile.
C. Create Contractor firewall role in the M.
D. Create server deviation rules in the server group.
Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ClearPass/6.7/Aruba_DeployGd_HTML/Content/Aruba%20Contro
ller%20Configuration/AAA_profile_adding.html

QUESTION 6

A company plans to build a resort that includes a hotel with 1610 rooms, a casino, and a convention center. The
company is interested in a mobility solution that provides scalability and a service-based approach, where they can rent the WLAN infrastructure at the convention center to any customer (tenant) that hosts events at the resort.
The solution should provide:
Seamless roaming when users move from the hotel to the casino or the convention center
Simultaneous propagation of the resort and customer-owned SSIDs at the convention center
Null management access upon resort network infrastructure to the customers (tenants)
Configuration and monitor rights of rented SSIDs to the customers (tenants)

Which deployment meets the requirements?

A. Deploy an MM-MC infrastructure with multizone AP\’s, with one zone for tenant SSIDs.
B. Deploy IAPs along with AirWave, and deploy role-based management access control.
C. Deploy IAPs with zone-based SSIDs and manage them with different central accounts.
D. Deploy an MM-MC infrastructure and create different hierarchy groups for MCs and APs.
E. Deploy IAPs and manage them with different central accounts.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7

A company with 535 users deploys an Aruba solution with more than 1000 Aruba APs, two 7220 Mobility Controllers,
and a single Mobility Master (MM) virtual appliance at the campus server farm. The MCs run a HA Fast failover group in
dual mode and operate at 50% AP capacity.
If there is an MM or MC failure, the network administrator must ensure that the network is fully manageable and the MC load does not exceed 80%.

What can the network administrator do to meet these requirements?

A. Place the APs in the same hierarchy level.
B. Create a cluster with AP load balancing.
C. Enable oversubscription in the HA group.
D. Add an MC and an MM in the server farm.
E. Add an MM and enable DC redundancy.
F. Place the APs in two different AP-Groups.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit.

hp hpe6-a79 exam questions q8

A network administrator is evaluating a deployment to validate that a user is assigned the proper role and reviews the
output in the exhibit. How is the role assigned to the user?
A. The MC assigned the role based on Aruba VSAs.
B. The MC assigned the machine authentication default user role.
C. The MC assigned the default role based on the authentication method.
D. The MC assigned the role based on server derivation rules.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibits.

hp hpe6-a79 exam questions q9

A network administrator deploys User-Based Tunneling (UBT) in a corporate network to unify the security policies
enforcement. When users authenticate with 802.1X, ClearPass shows Accept results and sends the Aruba-User-Role
attribute as expected. However, the AOS-CX based switch does not seem to build the tunnel to the Mobility Controller
(MC) for this user.

Why does the switch fail to run UBT for the user?

A. The switch has not been fully associated with the MC.
B. ClearPass is sending the wrong Vendor ID.
C. The switch is not configured with the gateway role.
D. ClearPass is sending the wrong VSA type.
E. The switch is not configured with the port-access role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Refer to the exhibit

hp hpe6-a79 exam questions q10

A network administrator deploys a standalone Mobility Controller (MC) and configures some VAPs within the CAMPUS
AP group. The network administrator realizes that none of the VAPs are being broadcasted.
Based on the output shown in the exhibit, what should the network administrator do to solve this problem?

A. Install MC-VA licenses, then install PEF licenses and enabled the PEF feature.
B. Install MC-VA licenses, then reprovision the APs.
C. Install MM licenses, then install PEF licenses and enable the PEF feature.
D. Install MM licenses and install MC-VA licenses, then install RFP licenses.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

A joint venture between two companies results in a fully functional WLAN Aruba solution. The network administrator
uses the following script to integrate the WLAN solution with two radius servers, radius1 and radius2.

hp hpe6-a79 exam questions q11

While all users authenticate with [email protected] type of credentials, radius1 has user accounts with the
domain name portion. Which additional configuration is required to authenticate corp1.com users with radius1 and corp2 users with radius2?

hp hpe6-a79 exam questions q11-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibits. Exhibit 1

hp hpe6-a79 exam questions q12

Exhibit 2

hp hpe6-a79 exam questions q12-1

A network administrator adds a new Mobility Controller (MC) to the production Mobility Master (MM) and deploys APs
that start broadcasting the employee SSID in the West Wing of the building. Suddenly, the employees report client
disconnects. When accessing the MM the network administrator notices that the MC is unreachable, then proceeds to
access the MC\’s console and obtains the outputs shown in the exhibits.

What should the network administrator do next to solve the current problem?

A. Open a TAC case and send the output of the tar crash.
B. Kill two zombie processes then reboot the MC.
C. Verify the license pools in the MM.
D. Decommission the MC from the MM and add it again.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit

hp hpe6-a79 exam questions q13

A 7008 Branch Office Controller (BOC) is deployed in a remote office behind a core router. This core does not support
802.1q encapsulation. The Mobility Controller (MC) is the gateway for two tunneling mode SSIDs, as shown in the
exhibit. Which two different configuration options ensure that wireless users are able to reach the branch network
through the router? (Choose two.)

A. Configure all ports of the BOC as access ports on the controller VLAN, and change the gateway of clients to the core
router IP.
B. Configure the uplink of the BOC as an access port on the controller VLAN and add static routes in the router for the
SSID VLAN subnets.
C. Configure the uplink of the BOC as a trunk port that permits the controller and the SSID VLANs. The controller VLAN
must be native.
D. Configure the uplink of the BOC as an access port on the controller VLAN and enable NAT for the SSID VLANs.
E. Configure the uplink of the BOC as a trunk port, tagging the controller and the SSOD VLANs, and enable NAT for the
SSID VLANs.
Correct Answer: BE

Summarize:

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QUESTION 1

An administrator has an aggregation layer of 8325CX switches configured as a VSX pair. The administrator is
concerned that when OSPF network changes occur, the aggregation switches will respond to the changes slowly, and
this will affect network connectivity, especially VoIP calls, in the connected access layer switches.
What should the administrator do on the aggregation layer switches to alleviate this issue?
A. Implement route aggregation
B. Implement bidirectional forwarding detection (BFD)
C. Reduce the hello and dead interval timers
D. Implement graceful restart
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Examine the network topology.

hp hpe6-a73 exam questions q2

The network is configured for OSPF with the following attributes: Core1 and Core2 and ABRs Area 1 has 20 networks in
the 10.1.0.0/16 range Area 0 has 10 networks in the 10.0.0.0/16 range Area 2 has 50 networks in the 10.2.0.0/16 range
The ASBR is importing a static route into Area 1 Core2 has a summary for Area 2: area 0.0.0.2 range 10.2.0.0/16 type
inter-area Here is the OSPF configuration performed on Core1:

hp hpe6-a73 exam questions q2-1

Based on the above information, what is correct?
A. ISP 1 is not reachable from any area.
B. Core1 has received one type 5 LSA from the ASBR.
C. Area 0 has 81 routes
D. Area 1 has 23 routes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

When comparing PIM-DM and PIM-SM, which multicast components are only found with PIM-SM in multicast routing?
(Choose two.)
A. IGMP querier
B. Rendezvous point
C. Bootstrap router
D. Shortest path tree
E. Designated router
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4

When implementing deficit weighted round-robin queuing, what importance does the weight value have?
A. Prioritizing latency-sensitive traffic
B. Queue priority in processing traffic
C. Strict priority queue
D. Percentage of the interface bandwidth
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Examine the network topology.

hp hpe6-a73 exam questions q5

The network is configured for OSPF with the following attributes: Core1 and Core2 and ABRs Area 1 has 20 networks in
the 10.1.0.0/16 range Area 0 has 10 networks in the 10.0.0.0/16 range Area 2 has 50 networks in the 10.2.0.0/16 range
The ASBR is importing a static route into Area 1 Core2 has a summary for Area 2: area 0.0.0.2 range 10.2.0.0/16 type
inter-area Here is the OSPF configuration performed on Core1:

hp hpe6-a73 exam questions q5-1

Based on the above information, what is correct?
A. Area 0 has 13 routes
B. Core1 has no OSPF routes
C. Core1 has received one LSA Type 5 from the ASBR
D. Area 1 has 23 routes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

An administrator in a company of 349 users has a pair of AOS-CX switches with connections to external networks. Both
switches are configured for OSPF. The administrator wants to import external routes on both switches, but assigns
different seed metrics to the routes, as well as imports them as external type-1 routes.
What is the best way for the administrator to accomplish this?
A. Create a route map with the correct route type and metrics
B. Define the route type and metrics in the OSPF process
C. Create a classifier policy with the correct route type and metrics
D. Define a class and policy map with the correct route type and metrics
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Which protocol does NetEdit use to discover devices in a subnet during the discovery process?
A. LLDP
B. ARP
C. DHCP
D. ICMP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

A company is implementing AOS-CX switches at the access layer. The company wants to implement access control for
employees and guests.
Which security features will require a ClearPass server to be installed and used by the company?
A. Downloadable user roles
B. Dynamic segmentation
C. User-based tunneling (UBT)
D. Change of authorization (CoA)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

Which AOS-CX feature is used to prevent head-on-line (HOL) blocking?
A. VSF
B. WFQ
C. VOQ
D. VSX
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

How is NetEdit installed at a customer location?
A. Via an Aruba NetEdit hardware appliance
B. Via a DVD using a virtualized platform like Microsoft\’s Hyper-V
C. Via the Aruba Central cloud solution
D. Via an OVA file and a virtualized platform like VMware\’s ESXi
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

What is correct regarding the operation of VSX and multicasting with PIM-SM routing configured?
A. Each VSX peer runs PIM and builds its own group database. One of the VSX peers is elected as the designated
router (DR) to forward multicast streams to a receiver VLAN
B. Each VSX peer runs PIM and creates a shared group database. Both VSX peers can forward multicast streams to
receivers in a VLAN, achieving load sharing
C. Each VSX peer runs PIM and builds its own group database. Both VSX peers can forward multicast streams to
receivers in a VLAN, achieving load sharing
D. Each VSX peer runs PIM and creates a shared group database. One of the VSX peers is elected as the designated
router (DR) to forward multicast streams to a receiver VLAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Which statement is correct regarding ACLs and TCAM usage?
A. Applying an ACL to a group of ports consumes the same resources as specific ACE entries
B. Using object groups consumes the same resources as specific ACE entries
C. Compression is automatically enabled for ASIC TCAMs on AOS-CX switches
D. Applying an ACL to a group of VLANs consumes the same resources as specific ACE entries
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

Examine the VSX-related configuration of the core layer AOS-CX switch:

hp hpe6-a73 exam questions q13

A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue involving the VSX LAG (link aggregation) between the
core and access layer switch, during HW replacement of one of the core switches.
Which configuration should the administrator add to the core switch to fix this issue?
A. ICX-Tx-Core1(config)# vsx ICX-Tx-Core1(config-vsx)# system-mac 02:01:00:00:01:00
B. ICX-Tx-Core1(config)# interface lag 1 multi-chassis ICX-Tx-Core1(config-if-lag-if)# mtu 9198
C. ICX-Tx-Core1(config)# interface 1/1/46-1/1/47 ICX-Tx-Core1(config-if-vlan)# active-gateway ip 10.1.11.1 mac
02:02:00:00:01:00
D. ICX-Tx-Core1(config)# interface 1/1/45 ICX-Tx-Core1(config-if-vlan)# active-gateway ip 192.168.0.0 mac
02:02:00:00:01:00
Correct Answer: D

Summarize:

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Free sharing of HP HPE6-A73 exam practice questions can improve your exam success rate.
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HP HPE6-A48 online practice test from a part of Lead4Pass HPE6-A48 dumps

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.hp hpe6-a48 exam questions q1

Based on the output shown in the exhibitm with which Aruba devices has Access-1 established tunnels?
A. a pair of MCs within a cluster
B. a single standalone MC
C. a pair of MCs with APFF enabled
D. a pair of switches
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
An organization owns a fully functional multi-controller Aruba network with a Virtual Mobility Master (VMM) in VLAN 20.
They have asked a network consultant to deploy a redundant MM on a different server. The solution must offer the
lowest convergence time and require no human interaction in case of failure.
The servers host other virtual machines and are connected to different switches that implement ACLs to protect them.
The organization grants the network consultant access to the servers only, and appoints a network administrator to
assist with the deployment.
What must the network administrator do so the network consultant can successfully deploy the solution? (Select three.)
A. Reserve one IP address for the second MM and another IP address for its gateway
B. Configure an ACL entry that permits IP protocol 50, UDP port 500, and multicast IP 224.0.0.18.
C. Allocate VLAN 20 to the second server, and extend it throughout the switches.
D. Reserve one IP address for the second MM and another for the VIP.
E. Configure an ACL entry that permits UDP 500, UDP 4500, and multicast IP 224.0.0.1.
F. Allocate another VLAN to the second server, and permit routing between them.
Correct Answer: ACE

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit1hp hpe6-a48 exam questions q3

Exhibit2

hp hpe6-a48 exam questions q3-1 hp hpe6-a48 exam questions q3-2

A network administrator integrates a current Mobility Master (MM)-Mobility Controller (MC) deployment with a RADIUS
infrastructure. After using the RADIUS server to authenticate a wireless user, the network administrator realizes that the
client machine is not falling into the it_department role, as shown in the exhibits.
Which configuration is required to map the users into the proper role, based on standard attributes returned by the
RADIUS server in the Access Accept message?
A. aaa server-group Corp-Network set role condition Filter-Id equals it-role set-value it_department
B. aaa server-group GROUP-RADIUS set role condition Filter-Id equals it-role set-value it_department
C. aaa server-group Corp-employee set role condition Filter-Id equals it-role set-value it_department
D. aaa server-group Corp-employee set role condition Filter-Id value-of
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit 1hp hpe6-a48 exam questions q4

Exhibit 2

hp hpe6-a48 exam questions q4-1

A network administrator deploys a test environment with two Mobility Masters (MMs), two two-member Mobility
Controller (MC) clusters, and two CAPs, with the intention of testing several ArubaOS features, Cluster members run
VRRP for AP boot redundancy. Based on the information shown in the exhibits, what is the current status of the APs?
A. APs are currently communicating with LMS IP, and 10.1.140.100 is S-AAC.
B. APs are currently communicating with BLMS IP, and 10.1.140.101 is A-AAC.
C. APs are currently communicating with BLMS IP, and 10.1.140.101 is S-AAC.
D. APs are currently communicating with BLMS IP, and 10.1.140.100 is A-AAC.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.hp hpe6-a48 exam questions q5

A user reports show response time to a network administrator and suggests that there might be a problem with the
WLAN. The user\\’s laptop supports 802.11n in the 2.4 GHz band only. The network administrator finds the user on the
Mobility Master (MM) and reviews the output shown in the exhibit.
What can the network administrator conclude after analyzing the data?
A. Client health is low, and retried frames are high. It is possible there is high channel utilization.
B. Client health is low, but SNR is high. It is possible data in the dashboard is not accurate and needs to be updated.
C. The speed is good. Client health seems to be related to a problem with the client NIC.
D. The network is low because of low SNR. TX power must be increased in both the client and the AP.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
A point venture between two companies results in a fully functional WLAN Aruba solution. The network administrator
uses the following script to integrate the WLAN solution with two radius servers, radius1 and radius2.hp hpe6-a48 exam questions q6

While all users authenticate with [email protected] type of credentials, radius1 has user accounts without
the domain name portion.
Which additional configuration is required to authenticate corp1.com users with radius1 and corp2 users with radius2?
A. aaa authentication-server radius radius1 trim-fqdn ! aaa server-group-corp auth-server radius1 match-authstring
corp1.com auth-server radius1 match-authstring corp2.com
B. aaa server-group-corp auth-server radius1 match-fqdn corp1.com auth-server radius1 trim-fqdn auth-server radius2
match-fqdn corp2.com
C. aaa authentication-server tadius radius1 ! aaa server-group-corp auth-server radius1 match-string corp1.com trimfqdn auth-server radius1 match-string corp2.com
D. aaa authentication-server radius radius1 trim-fqdn ! aaa server-group-corp auth-server radius1 match-domain
corp1.com auth-server radius1 match-domain corp2.com
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
A network administrator needs to deploy L2 Mobility Master (MM) redundancy. MM1 uses IP address
10.201.0.10 and MAC address 1c:98:ec:25:48:50, and MM2 uses IP address 10.201.0.20 and MAC 1c:98:ec:99:8a:80.
Both run VRRP process with VRID 201.
Which configuration should the network administrator use to accomplish this task?
A. /mm (MM1): database synchronize period 30 /mm/mynode (MM1): master-redundancy master-vrrp 201 peer-ipaddress 10.201.0.20 ipsec key123 /mm/mynode (MM2): master-redundancy master-vrrp 201 peer-ip-address
10.201.0.10 ipsec key123
B. /mm (MM1): master-redundancy master-vrrp 10 peer-ip-address 10.201.0.20 ipsec key123 database synchronize
period 30 /mm/mynode (MM2): master-redundancy master-vrrp 201 peer-ip-address 10.201.0.10 ipsec key123
C. /mm/mynode (MM1): master-redundancy master-vrrp 201 peer-ip-address 10.201.0.20 ipsec key123 database
synchronize period 30 /mm/mynode (MM2): master-redundancy master-vrrp 201 peer-ip-address 10.201.0.20 ipsec
key123 database synchronize period 30
D. /mm (MM1): database synchronize period 30 /mm/mynode (MM1): master-redundancy master-vrrp 201 peer-ipaddress 10.201.0.10 ipsec key123 /mm/mynode (MM2): master-redundancy master-vrrp 201 peer-ip-address
10.201.0.20 ipsec key123
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
A network administrator assists with the migration of a WLAN from a third-party vendor to Aruba in different locations
throughout the country. In order to manage the solution from a central point, the network administrator decides to deploy
redundant Mobility Masters (MMs) in a datacenter that are reachable through the Internet.
Since not all locations own public IP addresses, the security team is not able to configure strict firewall policies at the
datacenter without disrupting some MM to Mobility Controller (MC) communications. They are also concerned about
exposing the MMs to unauthorized inbound connection attempts.
What should the network administrator do to ensure the solution is functional and secure?
A. Deploy an MC at the datacenter as a VPN concentrator.
B. Block all ports to the MMs except UDP 500 and 4500.
C. Install a PEFV license, and configure firewall policies that protect the MM.
D. Block all inbound connections, and instruct the MM to initiate the connection to the MCs.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibits. Exhibit1hp hpe6-a48 exam questions q9

Exhibit 2

hp hpe6-a48 exam questions q9-1

Based on outputs shown in the exhibits, what is the reason that AP12 is seen by two different controllers?
A. AP12 connects to a high availability group. MC1 is the active controller, and MC11 is the standby controller.
B. AP12 is a multizone AP. MC1 is part of the primary zone, and MC11 is part of the datazone.
C. AP12 connects to an MC cluster. MC1 is the A-AAC, and MC2 is S-AAC.
D. AP12 is in the middle of the boot process. MC1 is the master IP controller, and MC11 is the LMS IP controller.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
A software development company has 700 employees who work from home. The company also has small offices
located in different cities throughout the world. During working hours, they use RAPs to connect to a datacenter to
upload software code as well as interact with databases.
In the past two months, brief failures have occurred in the 7240XM Mobility Controller (MC) that runs ArubaOS 8.3 and
terminates the RAPs. These RAPs disconnect, affecting the users connected to the RAPs. This also causes problems
with code uploads and database synchronizations. Therefore, the company decides to add a second 7240XM controller
for redundancy.
How should the network administrator deploy both controllers in order to provide redundancy while preventing failover
events from disconnecting users?
A. Connect both controllers with common VLANs, and create an L2-connected cluster using public addresses in the
internet VLAN.
B. Connect both controllers with common VLANs, and create an HA fast failover group with public addresses in the
internet VLAN.
C. Connect both controllers with different VLANs, and create an L2-connected cluster using private addresses in the
internet VLAN.
D. Connect both controllers with common VLANs, and configure LMS/BLMS values equal to public addresses in the
internet VLAN.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Users run encrypted Skype for Business traffic with no WMM support over an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)Mobility
Controller (MC) based network. When voice, video, and application sharing traffic arrive at the wired side of the network,
all the flows look alike due the lack of L2 or L3 markings.
How can the network administrator identify these flows and mark QoS accordingly?
A. Confirm the MC is the Openflow controller of the MMs and Openflow is enabled in VAP and the firewall roles. Then
enable WMM in a VAP profile.
B. Confirm the MM is the Openflow controller of the MCs and Openflow is enabled in VAP and the firewall roles. Then
integrate the MM with the Skype4Business SDN API, and enable the Skype4Business ALG
in the UCC Profiles.
C. Confirm the MC is the OpenFlow controller of the MMs and Openflow is enabled in VAP and the firewall roles. Then
enable the Skype4Business ALG in the UCC profiles.
D. Use a media firewall policy that match these three flows, and use permit and TOS actions with 56, 40, and 34 values
for voice, video, and application sharing, respectively. Then enable the Skype4Business ALG in the UCC profiles.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
A financial institution contacts an Aruba partner to deploy an advanced and secure Mobility Master (MM)Mobility
Controller (MC) WLAN solution in its main campus and 14 small offices/home offices (SOHOs). Key requirements are
that users at all locations, including telecommuters with VIA, should be assigned roles with policies that filter undesired
traffic. Also, advanced WIPs should be enforced at the campus only.
These are additional requirements for this deployment:
RAPs should ship directly to their final destinations without any pre-setup and should come up with the right
configuration as soon as they get Internet access. Activate should be configured with devices MACs, serial numbers,
and provisioning rules that redirect them to the standalone VMC at the DMZ Users should be able to reach DNS, FTP,
Web and telephone servers in the campus as well as send and receive IP telephone calls to and from the voice
10.1.50.0/24 segment. Local Internet access should be granted.
Refer to the exhibit.hp hpe6-a48 exam questions q12

Refer to the scenario and the exhibit.

hp hpe6-a48 exam questions q12-1

The standalone VMC will act as a VPN Concentrator of the RAPs. The network administrator configures the Standalone
VMC with a pool of addresses and the SOHOs AP Group from the MM.
Which additional steps must the network administrator perform to allow the RAPs to terminate their IPSec tunnels and
associate to the Standalone VMC?
A. Add RAP MAC addresses into the RAP whitelist, and associate them with the SOHOs AP-Group.
B. Add RAP MAC addresses into the CPSec whitelist, and associate them with the SOHOs AP-Group.
C. Configure the same IP Pool at the MM group level, then create user accounts for the RAPs in the internal database.
D. Create user accounts with the sys-ap-role, and define shared secrets to associate to RAP IP addresses at the MM
group level.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.hp hpe6-a48 exam questions q13

After a recent power outage where MM1 is located, the network administrator could not perform configuration tasks on
Mobility Controllers (MC) for several hours. The network administrator decides to acquire another Mobility Master (MM)
and deploy L2 MM redundancy. The new MM is assigned the
10.254.10.15 IP address and VRRP is configured in both units. The network administrator verifies that VRRP is running,
and prepares to complete the setup with the following scripts.

hp hpe6-a48 exam questions q13-1

Which configuration tasks must the network administrator do before applying the script in order to successfully deploy
L2 MM redundancy and prevent any other control plane outage?
A. Confirm that the VRRP and master redundancy keys are the same.
B. Change the VIP address of ther VRRP process 140 to 10.254.10.15.
C. Reduce the VRRP priority to 90 and restart the process in MM2.
D. Enable the MM database synchronization in MM2.
Correct Answer: A

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Latest updates Microsoft AZ-220 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have an existing Azure IoT hub.
You need to connect physical IoT devices to the IoT hub.
You are connecting the devices through a firewall that allows only port 443 and port 80.
Which of following three communication protocols can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. HTTPS
B. MQTT
C. AMQP over WebSocket
D. MQTT over WebSocket
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 2
You have an Azure IoT hub that uses a Device Provision Service instance.
You plan to deploy 100 IoT devices.
You need to confirm the identity of the devices by using the Device Provision Service.
Which three device attestation mechanisms can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. X.509 certificates
B. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) 2.0
C. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) 1.2
D. Symmetric key
E. Device Identity Composition Engine (DICE)
Correct Answer: ABD
The Device Provisioning Service supports the following forms of attestation:
X.509 certificates based on the standard X.509 certificate authentication flow.
Trusted Platform Module (TPM) based on a nonce challenge, using the TPM 2.0 standard for keys to present a signed
Shared Access Signature (SAS) token. This does not require a physical TPM on the device, but the service expects to
attest using the endorsement key per the TPM spec.
Symmetric Key based on shared access signature (SAS) Security tokens, which include a hashed signature and an
embedded expiration.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-dps/concepts-service#attestation-mechanism

 

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub.
You receive a root certification authority (CA) certificate from the security department at your company.
You need to configure the IoT hub to use the root CA certificate.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:microsoft az-220 q3

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-security-x509-get-started

 

QUESTION 4
You need to store the real-time alerts generated by Stream Analytics to meet the technical requirements. Which type of
Stream Analytics output should you configure?
A. Azure Blob storage
B. Microsoft Power BI
C. Azure Cosmos DB
D. Azure SQL Database
Correct Answer: A
When you create a Time Series Insights Preview pay-as-you-go (PAYG) SKU environment, you create two Azure
resources:
An Azure Storage general-purpose V1 blob account for cold data storage.
An Azure Time Series Insights Preview environment that can be configured for warm data storage.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/time-series-insights/time-series-insights-update-storage-ingress

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and 1,000
connected IoT devices. The IoT devices are allocated to tour enrollment groups. Each enrollment group is configured to
use
certificate attestation.
You need to decommission all the devices in a single enrollment group and the enrollment group itself.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:microsoft az-220 q5

To deprovision all of the devices that have been provisioned through an enrollment group:
Disable the enrollment group to disallow its signing certificate.
Use the list of provisioned devices for that enrollment group to disable or delete each device from the identity registry of
its respective IoT hub.
After disabling or deleting all devices from their respective IoT hubs, you can optionally delete the enrollment group. Be
aware, though, that, if you delete the enrollment group and there is an enabled enrollment group for a signing certificate
higher up in the certificate chain of one or more of the devices, those devices can re-enroll.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-dps/how-to-unprovision-devices

 

QUESTION 6
You have a Standard tier Azure IoT hub and a fleet of IoT devices.
The devices connect to the IoT hub by using either Message Queuing Telemetry Transport (MQTT) or Advanced
Message Queuing Protocol (AMQP).
You need to send data to the IoT devices and each device must respond. Each device will require three minutes to
process the data and respond.
Solution: You update the twin desired property and check the corresponding reported property.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
IoT Hub provides three options for device apps to expose functionality to a back-end app:
Twin\\’s desired properties for long-running commands intended to put the device into a certain desired state. For
example, set the telemetry send interval to 30 minutes.
Direct methods for communications that require immediate confirmation of the result. Direct methods are often used for
interactive control of devices such as turning on a fan.
Cloud-to-device messages for one-way notifications to the device app.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-devguide-c2d-guidance

 

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You have the following device twin for the IoT device.microsoft az-220 q7

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft az-220 q7-1

Box1: Yes
Box 2: Yes
Fanspeed 73 is a reported property.
Box 3: No
The deviceID property is read only.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-devguide-device-twins

 

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and 1,000
connected IoT devices.
All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group.
You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT hub.
Solution: From the IoT hub, you change the credentials for the shared access policy of the IoT devices.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/iot-dps/how-to-unprovision-devices

 

QUESTION 9
You have an existing Azure IoT hub.
You use IoT Hub jobs to schedule long running tasks on connected devices.
Which two operations do the IoT Hub jobs support directly? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Trigger Azure functions.
B. Invoke direct methods.
C. Update desired properties.
D. Send cloud-to-device messages.
E. Disable IoT device registry entries.
Correct Answer: BC
Consider using jobs when you need to schedule and track progress any of the following activities on a set of devices:
Invoke direct methods Update desired properties Update tags
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-devguide-jobs

 

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You need to use message enrichment to add additional device information to messages sent from the IoT gateway
devices when the reported temperature exceeds a critical threshold.
How should you configure the enrich message values? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft az-220 q10

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-cyrl-ba/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-message-enrichments-overview

 

QUESTION 11
What should you do to identify the cause of the connectivity issues?
A. Send cloud-to-device messages to the IoT devices.
B. Use the heartbeat pattern to send messages from the IoT devices to iothub1.
C. Monitor the connection status of the device twin by using an Azure function.
D. Enable the collection of the Connections diagnostics logs and set up alerts for the connected devices count metric.
Correct Answer: D
Scenario: You discover connectivity issues between the IoT gateway devices and iothub1, which cause IoT devices to
lose connectivity and messages.
To log device connection events and errors, turn on diagnostics for IoT Hub. We recommend turning on these logs as
early as possible, because if diagnostic logs aren\\’t enabled, when device disconnects occur, you won\\’t have any
information to troubleshoot the problem with.
Step 1:
Sign in to the Azure portal.
Browse to your IoT hub.
Select Diagnostics settings.
Select Turn on diagnostics.
Enable Connections logs to be collected.
For easier analysis, turn on Send to Log Analytics (see pricing).
Step 2:
Set up alerts for device disconnect at scale
To get alerts when devices disconnect, configure alerts on the Connected devices (preview) metric.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-cyrl-ba/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-troubleshoot-connectivity

 

QUESTION 12
You use Azure Security Center in an Azure IoT solution.
You need to exclude some security events. The solution must minimize development effort.
What should you do?
A. Create an Azure function to filter security messages.
B. Add a configuration to the code of the physical IoT device.
C. Add configuration details to the device twin object.
D. Create an azureiotsecurity module twin and add configuration details to the module twin object.
Correct Answer: D
Properties related to every Azure Security Center for IoT security agent are located in the agent configuration object,
within the desired properties section, of the azureiotsecurity module.
To modify the configuration, create and modify this object inside the azureiotsecurity module twin identity.
Note: Azure Security Center for IoT\\’s security agent twin configuration object is a JSON format object. The
configuration object is a set of controllable properties that you can define to control the behavior of the agent.
These configurations help you customize the agent for each scenario required. For example, automatically excluding
some events, or keeping power consumption to a minimal level are possible by configuring these properties.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/asc-for-iot/how-to-agent-configuration

 

QUESTION 13
You have an Azure Stream Analytics job that receives input from an Azure IoT hub and sends the outputs to Azure Blob
storage. The job has compatibility level 1.1 and six streaming units. You have the following query for the job.microsoft az-220 q13

You plan to increase the streaming unit count to 12.
You need to optimize the job to take advantage of the additional streaming units and increase the throughput.
Solution: You change the compatibility level of the job to 1.2.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Max number of Streaming Units with one step and with no partitions is 6.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-parallelization

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Latest updates Cisco 300-815 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A support engineer is troubleshooting a voice network. When conducting a search for call setup details related to calling
search space issues, which trace files should be investigated?
A. CallManager traces
B. CTI Manager traces
C. Cisco IP Manager Assistant
D. Call logs
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-815 q2

Calls incoming from the provider are not working through newly set up Cisco Unified Border Element. Provider
engineers get the 404 Not Found SIP message. Incoming calls are coming from the provider with called number
“222333444” and Cisco Unified Communications Manager is expecting the called number to be delivered as
“444333222”. The administrator already verified that the IP address of the Cisco Unified CM is set up correctly and there are no dial peers configured other than those shown in the exhibit. Which action must the administrator take to fix the
issue?
A. Change the destination-pattern on the outgoing dial peer to match “444333222”.
B. Set up translation-profile on the incoming dial peer to match incoming traffic.
C. Create specific matching for “222333444” on the incoming dial peer.
D. Fix the voice translation-rule to match specifically number “222333444” and change it to “444333222”.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which IOS command creates a SIP-enabled dial peer?
A. voice dial-peer 20 sip
B. dial-peer voice 20 voip
C. dial-peer voice 20 pots
D. dial peer voice 20 sip
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=664148andseqNum=6

 

QUESTION 4
An administrator discovers that employees are making unauthorized long-distance and international calls from loggedoff Extension Mobility phones when the authorized users are away from their desks Which two configurations should the
administrator configure in the Cisco UCM to avoid this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions from the calling search space of the physical phone.
B. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the physical phone\\’s
directory number.
C. Remove the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions from the calling search space of the device profile.
D. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the physical phone.
E. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the device profile
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 5
A user in location X dials an extension at location Y. The call travels through a QoS-enabled WAN network, but the user
experiences choppy or clipped audio. What is the cause of this issue?
A. missing Call Admission Control
B. codec mismatch
C. ptime mismatch
D. phone class of service issue
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-815 q6

Users report that when they dial the emergency number 9911 from any internal phone, it takes a long time to connect
with the emergency operator. Which action resolves this issue?
A. Adjust the service parameter T302 timet to the desired value.
B. Adjust the service parameter T204 timer to the desired value.
C. Check the Urgent Priority check box under 9.911 pattern.
D. Point the emergency pattern directly to the PSTN gateway.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
What is first preference condition matched in a SIP-enabled incoming dial peer?
A. incoming uri
B. target carrier-id
C. answer-address
D. incoming called-number
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip-voip/211306-InDepthExplanation-of-Cisco-IOS-and-IO.html#anc8

 

QUESTION 8
An engineer must route all SIP calls in the form of @example.com to the SIP trunk gateway corporate local. Which two
SIP route patterns can be used to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. [email protected]
B. *@example.com
C. gateway.corporate.local
D. example.com
E. *.*
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-815 q9

An administrator is troubleshooting a situation where a call placed from a phone registered to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager does not complete. The administrator wants to use the Dialed Number Analyzer on Cisco
Unified CM to check which translation pattern the call is matching. However, when logging in to Cisco Unified
Serviceability there is no option for Dialed Number Analyzer under the tool menu. Which two steps must be performed
to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Restart the subscriber
B. Activate the Cisco Extended Functions service.
C. Activate the Cisco CallManager service.
D. Activate the Cisco Dialed Number Analyzer service.
E. Activate the Cisco Dialed Number Analyzer Server service.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 10
A user reports when they press the services key they do not receive a user ID and password prompt to assign the
phone extension. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Create the default device profiles for all phone models that are used.
B. Subscribe the phone to the Cisco Extension Mobility service.
C. Create the end user and associate it to the device profile.
D. Assign the extension as a mobile extension.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Which configuration must an administrator perform to display Translation Pattern operations in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager SDL traces?
A. Enable the Detailed Call Analysis option under Enterprise Parameters for Unified CM.
B. Set up the Digit Analysis Complexity in Service Parameters for Cisco Unified CM to
TranslationAndAlternatePatternAnalysis.
C. Check the Translation Patterns Analysis check box in Micro Traces on the Cisco Unified CM Serviceability page.
D. By default, the Translation Patterns operations are printed in SDL traces, so no additional configuration is necessary.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/taking-sip-call-trace-on-ciscounified-cm-usingrtmt/ta-p/3161200

 

QUESTION 12
A customer is using a SIP trunk to route calls to ITSP to decrease the possibility of downtime, the customer invested in
a failover device How does the customer ensure reachability to ITSP, so that if one device on ITSP fails, the calls will be
routed to another device?
A. Enable transmit security status on the SIP security profile
B. Enable ANAT on the SIP profile.
C. Monitor the link using network management toots, and if it fails, manually change the routing to another working
device.
D. Enable SIP Option Ping on the SIP profile.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Configure Call Queuing in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Where do you set the maximum number of callers
in the queue?
A. in the telephony service configuration
B. in the queuing configuration
C. in Cisco Unified CM Enterprise Parameters
D. in Cisco Unified CM Service Parameters
Correct Answer: B
Reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communicationsmanagercallmanager/200453-Configure-CUCM-Native-Call-Queuing-Featu.html

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Latest updates Microsoft MS-101 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You discover that some external users accessed content on a Microsoft SharePoint site. You modify the SharePoint
sharing policy to prevent sharing outside your organization.
You need to be notified if the SharePoint sharing policy is modified in the future.
Solution: From the Security and Compliance admin center, you create a threat management policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a new Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent users from sending email messages that contain Personally Identifiable Information (PII).
Solution: From the Exchange admin center, you create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
You create a Microsoft 36S subscription.
You need to create a deployment plan for Microsoft Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP).
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 Windows 8.1
devices.
You plan to deploy a custom Windows 10 Enterprise image to the Windows 8.1 devices.
You need to recommend a Windows 10 deployment method.
What should you recommend?
A. a provisioning package
B. an in-place upgrade
C. wipe and load refresh
D. Windows Autopilot
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/enterprise/windows10-infrastructure

 

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent users from accessing your Microsoft SharePoint Online sites unless the users are connected to
your on-premises network.
Solution: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you configure the Organization profile settings.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Conditional Access in SharePoint Online can be configured to use an IP Address white list to allow access.
References:
https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/Microsoft-SharePoint-Blog/Conditional-Access-in-SharePoint-Online-andOneDrive-for/ba-p/46678A


QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
All users are assigned a Microsoft 365 E3 license.
You enable auditing for your organization.
What is the maximum amount of time data will be retained in the Microsoft 365 audit log?
A. 2 years
B. 1 year
C. 30 days
D. 90 days
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/search-the-audit-log-in-security-andcompliance

 

QUESTION 7
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named
contoso.com. The company stores 2 TBs of data in SharePoint Online document libraries. The tenant has the labels
shown in the following table.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are deploying Microsoft Intune.
You successfully enroll Windows 10 devices in Intune.
When you try to enroll an iOS device in Intune, you get an error.
You need to ensure that you can enroll the iOS device in Intune.
Solution: You add your user account as a device enrollment manager.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
You have several devices enrolled in Microsoft Intone.
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that includes the users shown in the following table.

You add User3 as a device enrollment manager in Intune.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10
You need to protect the U.S. PII data to meet the technical requirements. What should you create?
A. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that contains a domain exception
B. a Security and Compliance retention policy that detects content containing sensitive data
C. a Security and Compliance alert policy that contains an activity
D. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that contains a user override
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/create-activity-alerts

 

QUESTION 11
You have a data loss prevention (DIP) policy.
You need to increase the likelihood that the DLP policy will apply to data that contains medical terms from the
International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9-CM). The solution must minimize the number of false positives.
Which two settings should you modify? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 12
Your company uses Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (ATP). Windows Defender ATP includes the
machine groups shown in the following table.

You onboard a computer named computer1 to Windows Defender ATP as shown in the following exhibit.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 13
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com and a Microsoft 365
subscription. The company recently hired four new users who have the devices shown in the following table.

You configure the Microsoft 365 subscription to ensure that the new devices enroll in Microsoft Intune automatically.
Which users have a device that can enroll in Microsoft Intune automatically?
A. User1 and User2 only
B. User 1, User2, and User only
C. User1, User2.User3, and User4
D. User2only
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the functionalities from the left onto the correct target fields on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
Which configuration modifies Local Packet Transport Services hardware policies?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/crs/software/crs_r4-1/addr_serv/command/reference/b_ipaddr_cr41crs/b_ipaddr_cr41crs_chapter_0111.html#wp1754734006

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is preparing to implement a data plane security configuration. Which statement about this
configuration is true?
A. Router 2 is the router receiving the DDoS attack.
B. Router 1 must be configured with uRPF for the RTBH implementation to be effective.
C. Router 1 is the trigger router in an RTBH implementation.
D. Router 2 must configure a route to null 0 for network 192.168.1.0/24 for the RTBH implementation to be complete.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which three OSPF parameters must match before two devices can establish an OSPF adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. subnet mask
C. interface cost
D. process ID
E. area number
F. hello timer setting
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 5
Which statement about segment routing prefix segments is true?
A. It is the longest path to a node.
B. It is linked to an adjacency SID that is globally unique within the router.
C. It is linked to a prefix SID that is globally unique within the segment routing domain.
D. It requires using EIGRP to operate.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/segment-routing/configuration/guide/b-segrouting-cg-asr9k/b-seg-routing-cg-asr9k_chapter_010.pdf

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement supports QPPB implementation?
A. QPPB policies affect only egress traffic.
B. QoS policies rely exclusively on BGP attributes to manipulate traffic.
C. QoS policies are identified in the MPLS forwarding table.
D. QoS policies use BGP to gain full coverage on the network.
Correct Answer: B
The QoS Policy Propagation via BGP feature allows you to classify packets by IP precedence based on the Border
Gateway Protocol (BGP) Attributes like community lists, BGP autonomous system paths, and access lists.

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration prevents the OSPF neighbor from establishing?
A. default-metric
B. duplex
C. network statement
D. MTU
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What are two factors to consider when implementing NSR High Availability on an MPLS PE router? (Choose two.)
A. It consumes more memory and CPU resources than NSF
B. It operates normally without NSR support on the PE peers.
C. It requires all PE-CE sessions to support NSR
D. It requires routing protocol extensions
E. It cannot sync state information across redundant RPs
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is implementing a BGP routing policy. Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. All traffic that matches acl10 is allowed without any change to its local preference.
B. All traffic that matches acl10 is dropped without any change to its local preference.
C. If traffic matches acl10, it is allowed and its local preference is set to 300.
D. All traffic is assigned a local preference of 300 regardless of its destination.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A network engineer is configuring a BGP route policy for the SUBNET prefix set. Matching traffic must be dropped, and
other traffic must have its MED value set to 400 and community 4:400 added to the route. Which configuration must an
engineer apply?
A. router-policy CISCO if destination in SUBNET then drop
else
set med 400
set community (4:400) additive
endif
end-policy
end
B. router-policy CISCO if destination in SUBNET then
drop
endif
set med 400
if community matches any SUBNET then
set local-preference 400
set med 500
set community (4:400) additive
endif
end-policy
end
C. router-policy SUBNET if destination in SUBNET then
drop
endif
set med 400
set local-preference 400
if community matches any SUBNET then
set community (4:400)
endif
end-policy
end
D. router-policy SUBNET if destination in BGP then drop
else
set med 400
set community (4:400)
endif
end-policy
end
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator working for a service provider with an employee id: 1234:56:789 applied this
configuration to a router.
Which additional step should the engineer use to enable LDP?
A. Enable MPLS LDP on the interface.
B. Disable Cisco Express Forwarding globally.
C. Delete the static router ID.
D. Configure both keywords to enable LDP globally.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

A network operator must configure CSR1 interlaces GigabitEihernet2 and GigabitEthemet to rewrite VLAN tags 12 and
21 for traffic between R1 and R2 respectively. Which configurator accomplishes this task?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
Correct Answer: C
IF bridge domain on both interfaces are 10

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit. Router 1 was experiencing a DDoS attack that was traced to interface gigabitethernet0/1. Which
statement about this configuration is true?
A. Router 1 accepts all traffic that ingresses and egresses interface gigabitethernet0/1.
B. Router 1 drops all traffic that ingresses interface gigabitethernet0/1 that has a FIB entry that exits a different
interface.
C. Router 1 accepts source addresses that have a match in the FIB that indicates it is reachable through a real
interface.
D. Router 1 accepts source addresses on interface gigabitethernet0/1 that are private addresses.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nxos/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_urpf.html

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QUESTION 1
Which two operations are valid for RESTCONF? (Choose two.)
A. HEAD
B. REMOVE
C. PULL
D. PATCH
E. ADD
F. PUSH
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/166/b_166_programmability_cg/b_166_programmability_cg_chapter_01011.html

 

QUESTION 2
What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution?
A. to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships
B. to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric
C. to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD-Access fabric.
D. to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button
under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN?
A. ISE server
B. local WLC
C. RADIUS server
D. anchor WLC
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions correct
B. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table
C. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices
D. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing
before they are sent to the FIB
Correct Answer: A
The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table?CEF uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions.
The FIB is conceptually similar to a routing table or information base. It maintains a mirror image of the forwarding
information contained in the IP routing table. When routing or topology changes occur in the network, the IP routing
table is updated, and these changes are reflected in the FIB. The FIB maintains next-hop address information based on
the information in the IP routing table. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/routers/12000-seriesrouters/47321-ciscoef.html

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the OPSF debug output is true?
A. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent to received on interface Fa0/1.
B. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on all interfaces.
C. The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent received on interface Fa0/1.
D. The output displays OSPF hello and LSACK messages which router R1 has sent or received.
Correct Answer: C
This combination of commands is known as “Conditional debug” and will filter the debug output based on your
conditions. Each condition added, will behave like an `And\\’ operator in Boolean logic. Some examples of the “debug IP OSPF hello” are shown below:

QUESTION 6
Which standard access control entry permits from odd-numbered hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet?
A. Permit 10.0.0.0.0.0.0.1
B. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.0
C. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.254
D. Permit 10.0.0.0.255.255.255.254
Correct Answer: C
Remember, for the wildcard mask, 1s are I DON\\’T CARE, and 0s are I CARE. So now let\\’s analyze a simple ACL:
access-list 1 permit 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255
Two first octets are all 0\\’s meaning that we care about the network 172.23.x.x. The third octet of the wildcard mask, 15
(0000 1111 in binary), means that we care about the first 4 bits but don\\’t care about the last 4 bits so we allow the third octet in
the form of 0001xxxx (minimum:00010000 = 16; maximum: 0001111 = 31).

The fourth octet is 255 (all 1 bits) which means I don\\’t care. Therefore network 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255 ranges from
172.23.16.0 to 172.23.31.255. Now let\\’s consider the wildcard mask of 0.0.0.254 (four-octet: 254 = 1111 1110) which
means we
only care the last bit. Therefore if the last bit of the IP address is a “1” (0000 0001) then only odd numbers are allowed.
If the last bit of the IP address is a “0” (0000 0000) then only even numbers are allowed.
Note: In binary, odd numbers always end with a “1” while even numbers always end with a “0”.
Therefore in this question, only the statement “permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.254” will allow all odd-numbered
hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet.

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the
network. Which COS to DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly?
A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46
B. COS of 7 to DSCP 48
C. COS of 6 to DSCP 46
D. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure.
Which design facilitates migration from a traditional campus design to a programmable fabric design?
A. Layer 2 access
B. three-tier
C. two-tier
D. routed access
Correct Answer: C
Intent-based networking (IBN) transforms a hardware-centric, manual network into a controller-led network that
captures business intent and translates it into policies that can be automated and applied consistently across the
network. The goal is for the network to continuously monitor and adjust network performance to help assure desired
business outcomes. IBN builds on software-defined networking (SDN). SDN usually uses spine-leaf architecture, which
is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves (such as an access layer).

 

QUESTION 9
An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.)
A. Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic
B. Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible
C. Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate
D. Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it
E. Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible
Correct Answer: CE
Traffic policing propagates bursts. When the traffic rate reaches the configured maximum rate (or committed information
rate), excess traffic is dropped (or remarked). The result is an output rate that appears as a saw-tooth with crests and
troughs.
Unlike traffic shaping, traffic policing does not cause delay. Classification (which includes traffic policing, traffic shaping, and queuing techniques) should take place at the network edge. It is recommended that classification occur as close to the source of the traffic as possible. Also according to this Cisco link, “policing traffic as close to the source as
possible”.

 

QUESTION 10
To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer
enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC
to connect?
A. Auto
B. Active
C. On
D. Passive
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-mobility-documents/lag-link-aggregation/ta-p/3128669

 

QUESTION 11
Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12
On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric?
A. LISP
B. IS-IS
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. VXLAN
Correct Answer: D
The tunneling technology used for the fabric data plane is based on Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN). VXLAN
encapsulation is UDP-based, meaning that it can be forwarded by any IP-based network (legacy or third party) and
creates the overlay network for the SD-Access fabric. Although LISP is the control plane for the SD-Access fabric, it
does not use LISP data encapsulation for the data plane; instead, it uses VXLAN encapsulation because it is capable of
encapsulating the original Ethernet header to perform MAC-in-IP encapsulation, while LISP does not. Using VXLAN
allows the SD-Access fabric to support Layer 2 and Layer 3 virtual topologies (overlays) and the ability to operate over
any IP-based network with built-in network segmentation (VRF instance/VN) and built-in group-based policy. Reference:
CCNP and CCIE Enterprise Core ENCOR 350-401 Official Cert Guide

 

QUESTION 13
Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall?
A. Passive
B. Tap
C. Inline tap
D. Inline
Correct Answer: D
Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) provides six interface modes which are: Routed, Switched, Inline Pair, Inline Pair with
Tap, Passive, Passive (ERSPAN). When Inline Pair Mode is in use, packets can be blocked since they are processed
inline When you use Inline Pair mode, the packet goes mainly through the FTD Snort engine When Tap Mode is
enabled, a copy of the packet is inspected and dropped internally while the actual traffic goes through FTD unmodified
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-ngfw/200924-configuringfirepower-threat-defenseint.html

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QUESTION 1

cisco 350-201 q1

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop has automatically submitted
a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine for further analysis. What should be concluded from this report?
A. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the
scores do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.
B. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the
scores are high and do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.
C. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.
D. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are
low and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which command was executed in PowerShell to generate this log?cisco 350-201 q2

A. Get-EventLog -LogName*
B. Get-EventLog -List
C. Get-WinEvent -ListLog* -ComputerName localhost
D. Get-WinEvent -ListLog*
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://lists.xymon.com/archive/2019-March/046125.html

 

QUESTION 3
DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the threat from the left onto the scenario that introduces the threat on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

cisco 350-201 q3

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q3-1

QUESTION 4
A SOC analyst is notified by the network monitoring tool that there are unusual types of internal traffic on IP subnet
103.861.2117.0/24. The analyst discovers unexplained encrypted data files on a computer system that belongs on that
specific subnet.
What is the cause of the issue?
A. DDoS attack
B. phishing attack
C. virus outbreak
D. malware outbreak
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Which asset has the highest risk value?cisco 350-201 q5

A. servers
B. website
C. payment process
D. secretary workstation
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
What is the principle of Infrastructure as Code?
A. System maintenance is delegated to software systems
B. Comprehensive initial designs support robust systems
C. Scripts and manual configurations work together to ensure repeatable routines
D. System downtime is grouped and scheduled across the infrastructure
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
An analyst is alerted for a malicious file hash. After analysis, the analyst determined that an internal workstation is
communicating over port 80 with an external server and that the file hash is associated with Duqu malware. Which
tactics, techniques, and procedures align with this analysis?
A. Command and Control, Application Layer Protocol, Duqu
B. Discovery, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
C. Lateral Movement, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
D. Discovery, System Network Configuration Discovery, Duqu
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. For IP 192.168.1.209, what are the risk level, activity, and next step?cisco 350-201 q8

A. high-risk level, anomalous periodic communication, quarantine with antivirus
B. critical risk level, malicious server IP, run in a sandboxed environment
C. critical risk level, data exfiltration, isolate the device
D. high-risk level, malicious host, investigate further
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROPcisco 350-201 q9

Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Secure Network Analytics (Stealthwatch) console alerted with “New Malware Server
Discovered” and the IOC indicates communication from an end-user desktop to a Zeus CandC Server. Drag and drop
the actions that the analyst should take from the left into the order on the right to investigate and remediate this IOC.
Select and Place: cisco 350-201 q9-1

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q9-2

QUESTION 10cisco 350-201 q10

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine. What should be concluded from this report?
A. Threat scores are high, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified
B. Threat scores are low, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified
C. Threat scores are high, malicious activity is detected, but files have not been modified
D. Threat scores are low and no malicious file activity is detected
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
DRAG-DROP
An organization lost connectivity to critical servers, and users cannot access business applications and internal
websites. An engineer checks the network devices to investigate the outage and determines that all devices are
functioning. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to continue investigating this issue. Not
all options are used.
Select and Place:cisco 350-201 q11

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q11-1

QUESTION 12
An employee abused PowerShell commands and script interpreters, which lead to an indicator of compromise (IOC)
trigger. The IOC event shows that a known malicious file has been executed, and there is an increased likelihood of a
breach.
Which indicator generated this IOC event?
A. ExecutedMalware.ioc
B. Crossrider.ioc
C. ConnectToSuspiciousDomain.ioc
D. W32 AccesschkUtility.ioc
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
A threat actor used a phishing email to deliver a file with an embedded macro. The file was opened, and a remote code
execution attack occurred in a company\\’s infrastructure. Which steps should an engineer take at the recovery stage?
A. Determine the systems involved and deploy available patches
B. Analyze event logs and restrict network access
C. Review access lists and require users to increase password complexity
D. Identify the attack vector and update the IDS signature list
Correct Answer: B

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Latest updates Microsoft MS-500 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain name of contoso.com.
The multi-factor authentication (MFA) service settings are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q1

In contoso.com, you create the users shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q1-1

What is the effect of the configuration? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q1-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q1-3

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. You create a label named CompanyConfidential in Microsoft Azure Information
Protection.
You add CompanyConfidential to global policy.
A user protects an email message by using CompanyConfidential and sends the label to several external recipients.
The external recipients report that they cannot open the email message.
You need to ensure that the external recipients can open protected email messages sent to them.
Solution: You create a new label in the global policy and instruct the user to resend the email message.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain name of contoso.com. Microsoft Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD) contains the users shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q3

Both devices have three apps named App1, App2, and App3 installed. You create an app protection policy named
ProtectionPolicy1 that has the following settings: Protected apps: App1 Exempt apps: App2 Windows Information
Protection mode: Block
You apply ProtectionPolicy1 to Group1 and Group3. You exclude Group2 from ProtectionPolicy1.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q3-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q3-2

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You create an Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) Safe attachments policy to quarantine malware.
You need to configure the retention duration for the attachments in quarantine.
Which type of threat management policy should you create from the SecurityandCompliance admin center?
A. ATP anti-phishing
B. DKIM
C. Anti-spam
D. Anti-malware
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You have the Microsoft conditions shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q5

You have the Azure Information Protection policies shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q5-1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q5-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q5-3

QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You have a site collection named SiteCollection1 that contains a site named Site2. Site2 contains a document library
named Customers.
Customers contain a document named Litware.docx. You need to remove Litware.docx permanently.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q6-1

QUESTION 7

Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain. The domain contains servers that run Windows Server
and have advanced auditing enabled.
The security logs of the servers are collected by using a third-party SIEM solution.
You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription and plan to deploy Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) by using
standalone sensors.
You need to ensure that you can detect when sensitive groups are modified and when malicious services are created.
What should you do?
A. Configure auditing in the Office 365 Security and Compliance center.
B. Turn off Delayed updates for the Azure ATP sensors.
C. Modify the Domain synchronizer candidate\\’s settings on the Azure ATP sensors.
D. Integrate SIEM and Azure ATP.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure-advanced-threat-protection/install-atp-step5

QUESTION 8
You need to configure threat detection for Active Directory. The solution must meet the security requirements.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place: lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q8-1

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You identify the following data loss prevention (DLP) requirements: Send notifications to users if they attempt to send
attachments that contain EU social security numbers Prevent any email messages that contain credit card numbers
from being sent outside your organization Block the external sharing of Microsoft OneDrive content that contains EU
passport numbers Send administrators email alerts if any rule matches occur.
What is the minimum number of DLP policies and rules you must create to meet the requirements? To answer, select
the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q8-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q8-3

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that is associated to a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant
named contoso.com.
You use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to federate on-premises Active Directory and the tenant. Azure
AD Connect has the following settings:
1.
Source Anchor: objectGUID
2.
Password Hash Synchronization: Disabled

3.
Password writeback: Disabled
4.
Directory extension attribute sync: Disabled
5.
Azure AD app and attribute filtering: Disabled
6.
Exchange hybrid deployment: Disabled
7.
User writeback: Disabled
You need to ensure that you can use leaked credentials detection in Azure AD Identity Protection.
Solution: You modify the Password Hash Synchronization settings.
Does that meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-ad-secure-steps

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You create a retention label named Label1 as shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q11

You publish Label1 to SharePoint sites.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q11-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q11-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/labels

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that contains the users shown in
the following table.lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q12

You create and enforce an Azure AD Identity Protection user risk policy that has the following settings:
1. Assignments: Include Group1, Exclude Group2
2. Conditions: Sign-in risk of Low and above
3. Access: Allow access, Require password change
You need to identify how the policy affects User1 and User2.
What occurs when User1 and User2 sign in from an unfamiliar location? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: 

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q12-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q12-2

QUESTION 13
You need to implement Windows Defender ATP to meet the security requirements. What should you do?
A. Configure port mirroring
B. Create the ForceDefenderPassiveMode registry setting
C. Download and install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent
D. Run WindowsDefenderATPOnboardingScript.cmd
Correct Answer: C

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