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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: A+
Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam
Exam Code: 220-902
Total Questions: 1280 Q&As

New CompTIA A+ 220-902 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
A user regularly calls and states that they have a computer with possibly corrupt system files and wants to know how to repair them. Which of the following utilities would resolve the problem?
A. ASR
B. FIXMBR
C. SFC
D. MSCONFIG
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Joe, a technician, recently built a new gaming PC for Ann, a customer, with two hard drives configured in RAID 0. Ann calls and states she was playing a game online and the computer shut off. Now the computer will not boot. Which of the following is a cost effective way to correct the issue?
A. Remove both drives from the RAID array
B. Reformat both drives and reload windows
C. Replace both of the drives and load windows
D. Replace one of the drives and rebuild the array
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A user is having difficulty installing a program in Windows Vista, as the computer appears to stall prior to the installation. Which of the following is the BEST choice of why this is occurring?
A. Aero Settings are not enabled.
B. Power Settings need to be enabled.
C. BitLocker is scanning for corrupt software.
D. UAC is waiting for user input.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A technician is trying to remove a resilient computer virus. The virus keeps coming back after rebooting the system because some program or service has locked some of the virus’ files and is preventing the AV from cleaning the system.
Which of the following is the BEST approach to try and remove the virus while minimizing negative impact to the system?
A. Use REGSRV32 to deregister the virus DLLs.
B. Run the antivirus after rebooting in safe mode.
C. Use the repair disk and follow the prompts.
D. Use the recovery console to disable all windows services.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A SOHO has had several issues with various unauthorized devices consuming the network’s bandwidth. There are only four network devices that are authorized to access the Internet as well as the local LAN’s resources. 220-902 dumps Which of the following security implementations would MOST likely help disable network access to the unauthorized devices?
A. Using complex passwords
B. Disabling the use of static IP addresses
C. Disabling ports
D. MAC filtering
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A technician is troubleshooting a reported wireless connectivity problem with a user’s laptop. The 802.11a access point is located in one of the corners of a square office with 100 meter walls, while the user’s office is on the opposite corner.
The user’s laptop is able to wirelessly pair with a printer located in the middle of the office and the user can print in ad hoc mode. Which of the following is the reason the user is unable to connect to the Internet?
A. 802.11a only supports ad hoc mode.
B. The laptop NIC is faulty.
C. RF signal is not received from the WAP.
D. The printer is not connected to the WAP.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A technician is installing a new operating system. The company policy requires that the file system used must support filepermissions and security. Which of the following should the technician use to BEST meet the company needs?
A. NTFS
B. CDFS
C. FAT32
D. UDF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are encrypted protocols? (Select TWO).
A. TELNET
B. SSH
C. POP3
D. FTP
E. HTTPS
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
Which of the following can be used to help recover a lost smartphone?
A. Remote support software
B. Locator application
C. NFC enabled device
D. GPS navigation software
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
An employee recently departed under bad terms, and the client is concerned for their SOHO network security. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Physically secure the access point
B. Change default password
C. Lower the transmission power
D. Assign static IP addresses
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A technician is tasked with resolving a display issue with a laptop. The technician has determined that the laptop’s display needs to be replaced. Which of the following is the NEXT step the technician should perform?
A. Identify the problem that caused the display to fail.
B. Establish a theory of the probable cause.
C. Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures.
D. Establish an action plan to resolve the problem.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An administrator, Ann, wants to be able to access a customer’s router interface from a remote location. Ann always has to have the customer print out the current router settings before she can remotely manage the router. 220-902 dumps Which of the following should Ann do to eliminate this extra step before connecting to the router remotely?
A. Change the default user name and password
B. Request a static IP from the ISP
C. Enable the remote management port
D. Enable port forwarding on the router
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A SOHO location is being remodeled and the users are concerned about unauthorized traffic on their network during the remodel. The WLAN needs to be able to allow various types of devices to securely connect 24 hours a day while requiring the least amount of overhead to manage. Which of the following security implementations would MOST likely be implemented?
A. Setting encryption
B. Resetting all user-names and passwords
C. Assign static IP addresses
D. Enable MAC filtering
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A user recently installed an application. Upon the next reboot, the system is displaying various errors relating to the system files and certain actions e.g. right-clicking no longer works. The user does not have time to reimage the computer, nor do they wish to remove and reinstall the application. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Open up the command prompt and type SFC /SCANNOW
B. Open Task Manager and stop all running SERVICES processes
C. Open up MSCONFIG and remove the application from the start-up tab
D. Open a command prompt and type REGSVR32 SYSMAIN.DLL ?U
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
A user on a domain PC needs to leave their desk immediately, but does not want to compromise displayed content. Which of the following should be done?
A. Screensaver password
B. Restart PC
C. Lock screen
D. Reset user password
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A user calls the corporate helpdesk stating that their battery is not charging. The operating system shows that there is a problem with the battery. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to determine what the issue is without erasing the user’s unsaved data?
A. Using a known-good computer of the same type, switch batteries between the two laptops.
B. Remove the A/C adapter while the system is running and observe if the screen dims.
C. Completely shut down the laptop, remove the A/C power source and restart the laptop.
D. Using a known-good computer of the same type, switch A/C adapters between the two laptops.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Joe, a client, wants to allow only specific portable devices to connect to his wireless network. Which of the following methods would BEST accomplish this?
A. Disabling SSID broadcast
B. MAC filtering
C. Lower radio power levels
D. Directional antennas
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
A server is configured to boot with a “mirrored” RAID configuration. Which of the following BEST describes this configuration?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which of the following methods of securing mobile devices will prevent data loss due to corruption?
A. Enforce pass code locks
B. Install location monitoring application
C. Perform remote wipe after failed login
D. Perform remote application back-up
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
A user’s computer consistently shuts down several minutes after booting. When the technician reboots the computer, a message stating “CPU fan failure” appears. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the computer shuts down?
A. Overheating
B. Power supply failure
C. Faulty CPU
D. High humidity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which of the following resources is MOST important for a network server running a virtual machine and guest operating systems?
A. Redundant power supplies
B. Memory speed
C. RAID type used
D. Multi-core CPU
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
A user calls the helpdesk to report that print jobs coming from a laser printer in the office are losing most of their toner due to being touched by hand smudge. The printer was recently serviced with a new fuser unit. Which of the following problems is MOST likely affecting the printer?
A. The fuser is not heating up to proper temperature levels necessary.
B. The pickup rollers are likely dirty and leaving paper dust on all printed pages.
C. The printer’s firmware was not updated with the installation of the new fuser.
D. The fuser was installed backwards and is not evenly heating printed pages.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A user states that they see a warning on their screen about an IP conflict. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A. A static IP address is assigned to the workstation
B. A bad router
C. A bad switch
D. The computer is getting an APIPA address
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
An administrator has advised against providing any information over the phone as a way to prevent against which of the following threats? 220-902 dumps
A. Session hijacking
B. Social engineering
C. Man-in-the-middle
D. Shoulder surfing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Following an authorized person through a door or other security check point without showing proper identification or defeating a security mechanism is known as which of the following?
A. Hacking
B. Emulating
C. Partitioning
D. Tailgating
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is the MAIN difference between a rootkit and a virus?
A. Rootkits encrypt the operating system while viruses encrypt documents
B. Rootkits execute as super user while viruses execute as regular users
C. Rootkits modify the BIOS while viruses cannot access the BIOS
D. Rootkits infiltrate the kernel while viruses infiltrate files
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which of the following provides Bob, a technician, with the GREATEST security?
A. Disabling SSID
B. WEP
C. Static IP
D. WPA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
A laptop’s number lock and scroll lock lights are blinking in a certain sequence and is not booting. Which of the following would a technician do FIRST in this situation?
A. Install a replacement memory module.
B. Consult the manufacturer website for diagnostic codes.
C. Attempt to boot into safe mode.
D. Install a replacement hard drive.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is the correct socket type for a Pentium 4 processor?
A. 478
B. 939
C. 1366
D. AM2+
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
A technician is using a test tool that is displaying the current voltage output of a power supply on the tool. Which of the following tools is the technician using?
A. Loopback plug
B. Cable tester
C. POST card
D. Multimeter
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: Security+
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
Exam Code: SY0-401
Total Questions: 1776 Q&As

New CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Ann, a security administrator, is strengthening the security controls of the company’s campus. Her goal is to prevent people from accessing open locations that are not supervised, such as around the receiving dock. She is also concerned that employees are using these entry points as a way of bypassing the security guard at the main entrance. Which of the following should Ann recommend that would BEST address her concerns?
A. Increase the lighting surrounding every building on campus
B. Build fences around campus with gate entrances
C. Install cameras to monitor the unsupervised areas
D. Construct bollards to prevent vehicle entry in non-supervised areas
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Mobile tablets are used by employees on the sales floor to access customer data. Ann a customer recently reported that another customer was able to access her personal information on the tablet after the employee left the area. Which of the following would BEST prevent these issues from reoccurring?
A. Screen Locks
B. Full-device encryption
C. Application control
D. Asset tracking
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A member of a digital forensics team, Joe arrives at a crime scene and is preparing to collect system data.
Before powering the system off, Joe knows that he must collect the most volatile date first. Which of the following is the correct order in which Joe should collect the data?
A. CPU cache, paging/swap files, RAM, remote logging data
B. RAM, CPU cache. Remote logging data, paging/swap files
C. Paging/swap files, CPU cache, RAM, remote logging data
D. CPU cache, RAM, paging/swap files, remote logging data
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A new employee has been hired to perform system administration duties across a large enterprise comprised of multiple separate security domains. Each remote location implements a separate security domain. The new employee has successfully responded to and fixed computer issues for the main office.
When the new employee tries to perform work on remote computers, the following messages appears.
You need permission to perform this action. Which of the following can be implemented to provide system administrators with the ability to perform administrative tasks on remote computers using their uniquely assigned account?
A. Implement transitive trust across security domains
B. Enable the trusted OS feature across all enterprise computers
C. Install and configure the appropriate CA certificate on all domain controllers
D. Verify that system administrators are in the domain administrator group in the main office
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
An administrator wants to provide onboard hardware based cryptographic processing and secure key storage for full-disk encryption. Which of the following should the administrator use to fulfil therequirements?
A. AES
B. TPM
C. FDE
D. PAM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Users in an organization are experiencing when attempting to access certain websites. The users report that when they type in a legitimate URL, different boxes appear on the screen, making it difficult to access the legitimate sites. Which of the following would best mitigate this issue?
A. Pop-up blockers
B. URL filtering
C. Antivirus
D. Anti-spam
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A security engineer is faced with competing requirements from the networking group and database administrators. The database administrators would like ten application servers on the same subnet for ease of administration, whereas the networking group would like to segment all applications from one another. SY0-401 dumps Which of the following should the security administrator do to rectify this issue?
A. Recommend performing a security assessment on each application, and only segment the applications with the most vulnerability
B. Recommend classifying each application into like security groups and segmenting the groups from one another
C. Recommend segmenting each application, as it is the most secure approach
D. Recommend that only applications with minimal security features should be segmented to protect them
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an attack designed to activate based on date?
A. Logic bomb
B. Backdoor
C. Trojan
D. Rootkit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A security administrator has concerns that employees are installing unapproved applications on their company provide smartphones. Which of the following would BEST mitigate this?
A. Implement remote wiping user acceptance policies
B. Disable removable storage capabilities
C. Implement an application whitelist
D. Disable the built-in web browsers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is a proprietary protocol commonly used for router authentication across an enterprise?
A. SAML
B. TACACS
C. LDAP
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
After a new RADIUS server is added to the network, an employee is unable to connect to the company’s WPA2-Enterprise WIFI network, which is configured to prompt for the employee’s network username and password. The employee reports receiving an error message after a brief connection attempt, but is never prompted for credentials. Which of the following issues could be causing the problem?
A. The employee’s account is locked out in the directory service
B. The new RADIUS server is overloading the wireless access point
C. The new RADIUS server’s certificate is not trusted by the employee’s PC
D. The employee’s account is disabled in the RADIUS server’s local database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A security analyst has been asked to perform a review of an organization’s software development lifecycle.
The analyst reports that the lifecycle does not contain a phase in which team members evaluate and provide critical feedback of another developer’s code. Which of the following assessment techniques is BEST described in the analyst’s report?
A. Architecture evaluation
B. Baseline reporting
C. Whitebox testing
D. Peer review
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
The helpdesk is receiving numerous reports that a newly installed biometric reader at the entrance of the data center has a high of false negatives. Which of the following is the consequence of this reported problem?
A. Unauthorized employees have access to sensitive systems
B. All employees will have access to sensitive systems
C. No employees will be able to access the datacenter
D. Authorized employees cannot access sensitive systems
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Joe, a security technician, is configuring two new firewalls through the web on each. Each time Joe connects, there is a warning message in the browser window about the certificate being untrusted. Which of the following will allow Joe to configure a certificate for the firewall so that firewall administrators are able to connect both firewalls without experiencing the warning message?
A. Apply a permanent override to the certificate warning in the browser
B. Apply a wildcard certificate obtained from the company’s certificate authority
C. Apply a self-signed certificate generated by each of the firewalls
D. Apply a single certificate obtained from a public certificate authority
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Joe a computer forensic technician responds to an active compromise of a database server. Joe first collects information in memory, then collects network traffic and finally conducts an image of the hard drive. Which of the following procedures did Joe follow?
A. Order of volatility
B. Chain of custody
C. Recovery procedure
D. Incident isolation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
A company has a BYOD policy that includes tablets and smart phones. In the case of a legal investigation, which of the following poses the greatest security issues? SY0-401 dumps
A. Recovering sensitive documents from a device if the owner is unable or unwilling to cooperate
B. Making a copy of all of the files on the device and hashing them after the owner has provided the PIN
C. Using GPS services to locate the device owner suspected in the investigation
D. Wiping the device from a remote location should it be identified as a risk in the investigation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
The IT department needs to prevent users from installing untested applications. Which of the following would provide the BEST solution?
A. Job rotation
B. Least privilege
C. Account lockout
D. Antivirus
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
An administrator uses a server with a trusted OS and is configuring an application to go into production tomorrow, In order to make a new application work properly, the administrator creates a new policy that labels the application and assigns it a security context within the trusted OS. Which of the following control methods is the administrator using by configuring this policy?
A. Time based access control
B. Mandatory access control
C. Role based access control
D. Rule based access control
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
A security administrator suspects that an employee in the IT department is utilizing a reverse proxy to bypass the company’s content filter and browse unapproved and non-work related sites while at work.
Which of the following tools could BEST be used to determine how the employee is connecting to the reverse proxy?
A. Port scanner
B. Vulnerability scanner
C. Honeypot
D. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Joe notices there are several user accounts on the local network generating spam with embedded malicious code. Which of the following technical control should Joe put in place to BEST reduce these incidents?
A. Account lockout
B. Group Based Privileges
C. Least privilege
D. Password complexity
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cyber Ops
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
Exam Code: 210-255
Total Questions: 80 Q&As

Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
210-255 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of log is this an example of?
A. syslog
B. NetFlow log
C. proxy log
D. IDS log
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which option creates a display filter on Wireshark on a host IP address or name?
A. ip.address == <address> or ip.network == <network>
B. [tcp|udp] ip.[src|dst] port <port>
C. ip.addr == <addr> or ip.name == <name>
D. ip.addr == <addr> or ip.host == <host>
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which data element must be protected with regards to PCI?
A. past health condition
B. geographic location
C. full name
D. recent payment amount
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which kind of evidence can be considered most reliable to arrive at an analytical assertion?
A. direct
B. corroborative
C. indirect
D. circumstantial
E. textual
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is an example of a managed security offering where incident response experts monitor and respond to security alerts in a security operations center (SOC)?
A. Cisco CloudLock
B. Cisco’s Active Threat Analytics (ATA)
C. Cisco Managed Firepower Service
D. Cisco Jasper
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two options can be used by a threat actor to determine the role of a server? (Choose two.)
A. PCAP
B. tracert
C. running processes
D. hard drive configuration
E. applications
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
210-255 dumps
Refer to the Exhibit. 210-255 dumps A customer reports that they cannot access your organization’s website. Which option is a possible reason that the customer cannot access the website?
A. The server at 10.33.1.5 is using up too much bandwidth causing a denial- of-service.
B. The server at 10.67.10.5 has a virus.
C. A vulnerability scanner has shown that 10.67.10.5 has been compromised.
D. Web traffic sent from 10.67.10.5 has been identified as malicious by Internet sensors.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which option is a misuse variety per VERIS enumerations?
A. snooping
B. hacking
C. theft
D. assault
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which Security Operations Center’s goal is to provide incident handling to a country?
A. Coordination Center
B. Internal CSIRT
C. National CSIRT
D. Analysis Center
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which CVSSv3 metric captures the level of access that is required for a successful attack?
A. attack vector
B. attack complexity
C. privileges required
D. user interaction
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which process is being utilized when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?
A. data normalization
B. data availability
C. data protection
D. data signature
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which source provides reports of vulnerabilities in software and hardware to a Security Operations Center?
A. Analysis Center
B. National CSIRT
C. Internal CSIRT
D. Physical Security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the correct descnption(s) of that evidence on the right.
Select and Place:
210-255 dumps
Correct Answer:
210-255 dumps
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the NetFlow v5 record from a security event on the right.
210-255 dumps
Select and Place:
210-255 dumps
Correct Answer:
210-255 dumps
QUESTION 15
From a security perspective, why is it important to employ a clock synchronization protocol on a network?
A. so that everyone knows the local time
B. to ensure employees adhere to work schedule
C. to construct an accurate timeline of events when responding to an incident
D. to guarantee that updates are pushed out according to schedule
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
210-255 dumps Which string matches the regular expression r(ege)+x?
A. rx
B. regeegex
C. r(ege)x
D. rege+x
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which two HTTP header fields relate to intrusion analysis? (Choose two).
A. user-agent
B. host
C. connection
D. language
E. handshake type
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
210-255 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this ping result?
A. The public IP address of cisco.com is 2001:420:1101:1::a.
B. The Cisco.com website is down.
C. The Cisco.com website is responding with an internal IP.
D. The public IP address of cisco.com is an IPv4 address.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
What information from HTTP logs can be used to find a threat actor?
A. referer
B. IP address
C. user-agent
D. URL
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which of the following are not components of the 5-tuple of a flow in NetFlow? (Select all that apply.)
A. Source IP address
B. Flow record ID
C. Gateway
D. Source port
E. Destination port
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 21
You have run a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see what the file does. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection.
Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed or required to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)
A. file size
B. domain names
C. dropped files
D. signatures
E. host IP addresses
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 22
What is accomplished in the identification phase of incident handling?
A. determining the responsible user
B. identifying source and destination IP addresses
C. defining the limits of your authority related to a security event
D. determining that a security event has occurred
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?
A. col[0-9]+our
B. colo?ur
C. colou?r
D. ]a-z]{7}
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
You see 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for various pages on one of your webservers. The user agent in the requests contain php code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new php file on the webserver. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?
A. delivery
B. reconnaissance
C. action on objectives
D. installation
E. exploitation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
During which phase of the forensic process are tools and techniques used to extract the relevant information from the collective data?
A. examination
B. reporting
C. collection
D. investigation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which goal of data normalization is true?
A. Reduce data redundancy.
B. Increase data redundancy.
C. Reduce data availability.
D. Increase data availability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
What mechanism does the Linux operating system provide to control access to files?
A. privileges required
B. user interaction
C. file permissions
D. access complexity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
In Microsoft Windows, as files are deleted the space they were allocated eventually is considered available for use by other files. 210-255 dumps This creates alternating used and unused areas of various sizes. What is this called?
A. network file storing
B. free space fragmentation
C. alternate data streaming
D. defragmentation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is one of the main goals of data normalization?
A. To save duplicate logs for redundancy
B. To purge redundant data while maintaining data integrity
C. To correlate IPS and IDS logs with DNS
D. To correlate IPS/IDS logs with firewall logs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A CMS plugin creates two files that are accessible from the Internet myplugin.html and exploitable.php. A newly discovered exploit takes advantage of an injection vulnerability in exploitable.php. To exploit the vulnerability, one must send an HTTP POST with specific variables to exploitable.php. You see traffic to your webserver that consists of only HTTP GET requests to myplugin.html. Which category best describes this activity?
A. weaponization
B. exploitation
C. installation
D. reconnaissance
Correct Answer: B

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210-250 dumps
Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cyber Ops
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Exam Code: 210-250
Total Questions: 80 Q&As

New Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-250 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (11-50)

QUESTION 11
Which information security property is supported by encryption?
A. sustainability
B. integrity
C. confidentiality
D. availability
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which term describes the act of a user, without authority or permission, obtaining rights on a system, beyond what were assigned?
A. authentication tunneling
B. administrative abuse
C. rights exploitation
D. privilege escalation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which definition of the IIS Log Parser tool is true?
A. a logging module for IIS that allows you to log to a database
B. a data source control to connect to your data source
C. a powerful, versatile tool that makes it possible to run SQL-like queries against log flies
D. a powerful versatile tool that verifies the integrity of the log files
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What are the advantages of a full-duplex transmission mode compared to half-duplex mode? (Select all that apply.)
A. Each station can transmit and receive at the same time.
B. It avoids collisions.
C. It makes use of backoff time.
D. It uses a collision avoidance algorithm to transmit.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Which term represents the chronological record of how evidence was collected- analyzed, preserved, and transferred?
A. chain of evidence
B. evidence chronology
C. chain of custody
D. record of safekeeping
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
210-250 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. During an analysis this list of email attachments is found. 210-250 dumps Which files contain the same content?
A. 1 and 4
B. 3 and 4
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
In which case should an employee return his laptop to the organization?
A. When moving to a different role
B. Upon termination of the employment
C. As described in the asset return policy
D. When the laptop is end of lease
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
A firewall requires deep packet inspection to evaluate which layer?
A. application
B. Internet
C. link
D. transport
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which event occurs when a signature-based IDS encounters network traffic that triggers an alert?
A. connection event
B. endpoint event
C. NetFlow event
D. intrusion event
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful in eavesdropping on a conversation between two IPS phones?
A. replay
B. man-in-the-middle
C. dictionary
D. known-plaintext
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which situation indicates application-level white listing?
A. Allow everything and deny specific executable files.
B. Allow specific executable files and deny specific executable files.
C. Writing current application attacks on a whiteboard daily.
D. Allow specific files and deny everything else.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which definition of an antivirus program is true?
A. program used to detect and remove unwanted malicious software from the system
B. program that provides real time analysis of security alerts generated by network hardware and application
C. program that scans a running application for vulnerabilities
D. rules that allow network traffic to go in and out
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is true about heuristic-based algorithms?
A. Heuristic-based algorithms may require fine tuning to adapt to network traffic and minimize the possibility of false positives.
B. Heuristic-based algorithms do not require fine tuning.
C. Heuristic-based algorithms support advanced malware protection.
D. Heuristic-based algorithms provide capabilities for the automation of IPS signature creation and tuning.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which security principle states that more than one person is required to perform a critical task?
A. due diligence
B. separation of duties
C. need to know
D. least privilege
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which tool is commonly used by threat actors on a webpage to take advantage of the software vulnerabilities of a system to spread malware? 210-250 dumps
A. exploit kit
B. root kit
C. vulnerability kit
D. script kiddie kit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
If a web server accepts input from the user and passes it to a bash shell, to which attack method is it vulnerable?
A. input validation
B. hash collision
C. command injection
D. integer overflow
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Based on which statement does the discretionary access control security model grant or restrict access ?
A. discretion of the system administrator
B. security policy defined by the owner of an object
C. security policy defined by the system administrator
D. role of a user within an organization
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which definition of the virtual address space for a Windows process is true?
A. actual physical location of an object in memory
B. set of virtual memory addresses that it can use
C. set of pages that are currently resident in physical memory
D. system-level memory protection feature that is built into the operating system
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which statement about digitally signing a document is true?
A. The document is hashed and then the document is encrypted with the private key.
B. The document is hashed and then the hash is encrypted with the private key.
C. The document is encrypted and then the document is hashed with the public key
D. The document is hashed and then the document is encrypted with the public key.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
You must create a vulnerability management framework. Which main purpose of this framework is true?
A. Conduct vulnerability scans on the network.
B. Manage a list of reported vulnerabilities.
C. Identify remove and mitigate system vulnerabilities.
D. Detect and remove vulnerabilities in source code.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which definition of a process in Windows is true?
A. running program
B. unit of execution that must be manually scheduled by the application
C. database that stores low-level settings for the OS and for certain applications
D. basic unit to which the operating system allocates processor time
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
According to the attribute-based access control (ABAC) model, what is the subject location considered?
A. Part of the environmental attributes
B. Part of the object attributes
C. Part of the access control attributes
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Which term represents a potential danger that could take advantage of a weakness in a system?
A. vulnerability
B. risk
C. threat
D. exploit
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
DRAG DROP
Drag the technology on the left to the data type the technology provides on the right.
Select and Place:
210-250 dumps
Correct Answer:
210-250 dumps
QUESTION 35
Which two services define cloud networks? (Choose two.)
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Security as a Service
D. Compute as a Service
E. Tenancy as a Service
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 36
You have implemented a Sourcefire IPS and configured it to block certain addresses utilizing Security Intelligence IP Address Reputation. 210-250 dumps A user calls and is not able to access a certain IP address. What action can you take to allow the user access to the IP address?
A. Create a whitelist and add the appropriate IP address to allow the traffic.
B. Create a custom blacklist to allow the traffic.
C. Create a user based access control rule to allow the traffic.
D. Create a network based access control rule to allow the traffic.
E. Create a rule to bypass inspection to allow the traffic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
What is a benefit of a web application firewall?
A. It blocks known vulnerabilities without patching applications.
B. It simplifies troubleshooting.
C. It accelerates web traffic.
D. It supports all networking protocols.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
A data breach has occurred and your company database has been copied. Which
security principle has been violated?
A. confidentiality
B. availability
C. access
D. control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
A proxy firewall protects against which type of attack?
A. cross-site scripting attack
B. worm traffic
C. port scanning
D. DDoS attacks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
What are purposes of the Internet Key Exchange in an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)
A. The Internet Key Exchange protocol establishes security associations
B. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides data confidentiality
C. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides replay detection
D. The Internet Key Exchange protocol is responsible for mutual authentication
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 41
Which two protocols are used for email (Choose two )
A. NTP
B. DNS
C. HTTP
D. IMAP
E. SMTP
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 42
At which OSI layer does a router typically operate?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Data link
D. Application
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 43
While viewing packet capture data, you notice that one IP is sending and receiving traffic for multiple devices by modifying the IP header, Which option is making this behavior possible?
A. TOR
B. NAT
C. encapsulation
D. tunneling
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 44
Which option is a purpose of port scanning?
A. Identify the Internet Protocol of the target system.
B. Determine if the network is up or down
C. Identify which ports and services are open on the target host.
D. Identify legitimate users of a system.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 45
An intrusion detection system begins receiving an abnormally high volume of scanning from numerous sources. Which evasion technique does this attempt indicate?
A. traffic fragmentation
B. resource exhaustion
C. timing attack
D. tunneling
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
Which two activities are examples of social engineering? (Choose two)
A. receiving call from the IT department asking you to verify your username/password to maintain the account
B. receiving an invite to your department’s weekly WebEx meeting
C. sending a verbal request to an administrator to change the password to the account of a user the administrator does know
D. receiving an email from MR requesting that you visit the secure HR website and update your contract information
E. receiving an unexpected email from an unknown person with an uncharacteristic attachment from someone in the same company
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 47
Cisco pxGrid has a unified framework with an open API designed in a hub-and-spoke architecture. 210-250 dumps pxGrid is used to enable the sharing of contextual-based information from which devices?
A. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco OpenDNS service
B. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco WSA
C. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco FMC
D. From a Cisco ISE session directory to other policy network systems, such as Cisco IOS devices and the Cisco ASA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 48
Which definition of a daemon on Linux is true?
A. error check right after the call to fork a process
B. new process created by duplicating the calling process
C. program that runs unobtrusively in the background
D. set of basic CPU instructions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 49
A user reports difficulties accessing certain external web pages, When examining traffic to and from the external domain in full packet captures, you notice many SYNs that have the same sequence number, source, and destination IP address, but have different payloads.
Which problem is a possible explanation of this situation?
A. insufficient network resources
B. failure of full packet capture solution
C. misconfiguration of web filter
D. TCP injection
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 50
Which definition describes the main purpose of a Security Information and Event Management solution ?
A. a database that collects and categorizes indicators of compromise to evaluate and search for potential security threats
B. a monitoring interface that manages firewall access control lists for duplicate firewall filtering
C. a relay server or device that collects then forwards event logs to another log collection device
D. a security product that collects, normalizes, and correlates event log data to provide holistic views of the security posture
Correct Answer: D

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300-209 dumps

Latest Cisco CCNP Security 300-209 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
An administrator wishes to limit the networks reachable over the Anyconnect VPN tunnels. Which configuration on the ASA will correctly limit the networks reachable to 209.165.201.0/27 and 209.165.202.128/27?
A. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnelpolicy tunnelspecified split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
B. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnelpolicy tunnelall split tunnel-network-list value splitlist
C. group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes split-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified split tunnelnetwork-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224
D. access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 ! crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnelnetwork-list splitlist
E. crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two RADIUS attributes are needed for a VRF-aware FlexVPN hub? (Choose two.)
A. ip:interface-config=ip unnumbered loobackn
B. ip:interface-config=ip vrf forwarding ivrf
C. ip:interface-config=ip src route
D. ip:interface-config=ip next hop
E. ip:interface-config=ip neighbor 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
What is the default storage location of user-level bookmarks in an IOS clientless SSL VPN?
A. disk0:/webvpn/{context name}/
B. disk1:/webvpn/{context name}/
C. flash:/webvpn/{context name}/
D. nvram:/webvpn/{context name}/
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three configurations are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose three.)
A. Only the IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IPsec configuration is copied automatically.
B. Only crypto map configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
C. The IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
D. The active and standby devices can run different versions of the Cisco IOS software but need to be the same type of device.
E. The active and standby devices must run the same version of the Cisco IOS software and should be the same type of device.
F. Only the IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IKE configuration is copied automatically.
G. The IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
Correct Answer: CEG

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
A new NOC engineer, while viewing a real-time log from an SSL VPN tunnel, has a question a line in the log.
The IP address 172.26.26.30 is attached to which interface in the network? 300-209 dumps
A. the Cisco ASA physical interface
B. the physical interface of the end user
C. the Cisco ASA SSL VPN tunnel interface
D. the SSL VPN tunnel interface of the end user
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which cryptographic algorithms are a part of the Cisco NGE suite?
A. HIPPA DES
B. AES-CBC-128
C. RC4-128
D. AES-GCM-256
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two qualify as Next Generation Encryption integrity algorithms? (Choose two.)
A. SHA-512
B. SHA-256
C. SHA-192
D. SHA-380
E. SHA-192
F. SHA-196
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which command specifies the path to the Host Scan package in an ASA AnyConnect VPN?
A. csd hostscan path image
B. csd hostscan image path
C. csd hostscan path
D. hostscan image path
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which transform set is contained in the IKEv2 default proposal?
A. aes-cbc-192, sha256, group 14
B. 3des, md5, group 7
C. 3des, sha1, group 1
D. aes-cbc-128, sha, group 5
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
The network administrator is adding a new spoke, but the tunnel is not passing traffic. What could cause this issue?
A. DMVPN is a point-to-point tunnel, so there can be only one spoke.
B. There is no EIGRP configuration, and therefore the second tunnel is not working.
C. The NHRP authentication is failing.
D. The transform set must be in transport mode, which is a requirement for DMVPN.
E. The NHRP network ID is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
An XYZ Corporation systems engineer, while making a sales call on the ABC Corporation headquarters, tried to access the XYZ sales demonstration folder to transfer a demonstration via FTP from an ABC conference room behind the firewall. The engineer could not reach XYZ through the remote-access VPN tunnel. From home the previous day, however, the engineer did connect to the XYZ sales demonstration folder and transferred the demonstration via IPsec over DSL.
To get the connection to work and transfer the demonstration, what should the engineer do?
A. Change the MTU size on the IPsec client to account for the change from DSL to cable transmission.
B. Enable the local LAN access option on the IPsec client.
C. Enable the IPsec over TCP option on the IPsec client.
D. Enable the clientless SSL VPN option on the PC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
300-209 dumps
300-209 dumps
300-209 dumps
When a tunnel is initiated by the headquarter ASA, which one of the following Diffie- Hellman groups is selected by the headquarter ASA during CREATE_CHILD_SA exchange?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 14
E. 19
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two troubleshooting steps should be taken when Cisco AnyConnect cannot establish an IKEv2 connection, while SSL works fine? 300-209 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the primary protocol on the client machine is set to IPsec.
B. Verify that AnyConnect is enabled on the correct interface.
C. Verify that the IKEv2 protocol is enabled on the group policy.
D. Verify that ASDM and AnyConnect are not using the same port.
E. Verify that SSL and IKEv2 certificates are not referencing the same trustpoint.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
When you troubleshoot Cisco AnyConnect, which step does Cisco recommend before you open a TAC case?
A. Show applet Lifecycle exceptions.
B. Disable cookies.
C. Enable the WebVPN cache.
D. Collect a DART bundle.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
A junior network engineer configured the corporate Cisco ASA appliance to accommodate a new temporary worker. For security reasons, the IT department wants to restrict the internal network access of the new temporary worker to the corporate server, with an IP address of 10.0.4.10. After the junior network engineer finished the configuration, an IT security specialist tested the account of the temporary worker. The tester was able to access the URLs of additional secure servers from the WebVPN user account of the temporary worker.
What did the junior network engineer configure incorrectly?
A. The ACL was configured incorrectly.
B. The ACL was applied incorrectly or was not applied.
C. Network browsing was not restricted on the temporary worker group policy.
D. Network browsing was not restricted on the temporary worker user policy.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which DAP endpoint attribute checks for the matching MAC address of a client machine?
A. device
B. process
C. antispyware
D. BIA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
In the Cisco ASDM interface, where do you enable the DTLS protocol setting?
A. Configuration andgt; Remote Access VPN andgt; Network (Client) Access andgt; Group Policies andgt; Add or Edit andgt; Add or Edit Internal Group Policy
B. Configuration andgt; Remote Access VPN andgt; Network (Client) Access andgt; AAA Setup andgt; Local Users andgt; Add or Edit
C. Device Management andgt; Users/AAA andgt; User Accounts andgt; Add or Edit andgt; Add or Edit User Account andgt; VPN Policy andgt; SSL VPN Client
D. Configuration andgt; Remote Access VPN andgt; Network (Client) Access andgt; Group Policies andgt; Add or Edit
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which command enables IOS SSL VPN Smart Tunnel support for PuTTY?
A. appl ssh putty.exe win
B. appl ssh putty.exe windows
C. appl ssh putty
D. appl ssh putty.exe
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
While troubleshooting a remote-access application, a new NOC engineer received the logging message that is shown in the exhibit. Which configuration is most likely to be mismatched?
A. IKE configuration
B. extended authentication configuration
C. IPsec configuration
D. digital certificate configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You have deployed new Cisco AnyConnect start before logon modules and set the configuration to download modules before logon, but all client connections continue to use the previous version of the module.
Which action must you take to correct the problem?
A. Configure start before logon in the client profile.
B. Configure a group policy to prompt the user to download the updated module.
C. Define the modules for download in the client profile.
D. Define the modules for download in the group policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
Which type of mismatch is causing the problem with the IPsec VPN tunnel?
A. PSK
B. Phase 1 policy
C. transform set
D. crypto access list
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which two are features of GETVPN but not DMVPN and FlexVPN? (Choose two.)
A. one IPsec SA for all encrypted traffic
B. no requirement for an overlay routing protocol
C. design for use over public or private WAN
D. sequence numbers that enable scalable replay checking
E. enabled use of ESP or AH
F. preservation of IP protocol in outer header
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 23
A spoke has two Internet connections for failover. How can you achieve optimum failover without affecting any other router in the DMVPN cloud? 300-209 dumps
A. Create another DMVPN cloud by configuring another tunnel interface that is sourced from the second ISP link.
B. Use another router at the spoke site, because two ISP connections on the same router for the same hub is not allowed.
C. Configure SLA tracking, and when the primary interface goes down, manually change the tunnel source of the tunnel interface.
D. Create another tunnel interface with same configuration except the tunnel source, and configure the if-state nhrp and backup interface commands on the primary tunnel interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
A NOC engineer is in the process of entering information into the Create New VPN Connection Entry fields.
Which statement correctly describes how to do this?
A. In the Connection Entry field, enter the name of the connection profile as it is specified on the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. In the Host field, enter the IP address of the remote client device.
C. In the Authentication tab, click the Group Authentication or Mutual Group Authentication radio button to enable symmetrical pre-shared key authentication.
D. In the Name field, enter the name of the connection profile as it is specified on the Cisco ASA appliance.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
Which two characteristics of the VPN implementation are evident? (Choose two.)
A. dual DMVPN cloud setup with dual hub
B. DMVPN Phase 3 implementation
C. single DMVPN cloud setup with dual hub
D. DMVPN Phase 1 implementation
E. quad DMVPN cloud with quadra hub
F. DMVPN Phase 2 implementation
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 26
Which two statements comparing ECC and RSA are true? (Choose two.)
A. ECC can have the same security as RSA but with a shorter key size.
B. ECC lags in performance when compared with RSA.
C. Key generation in ECC is slower and less CPU intensive.
D. ECC cannot have the same security as RSA, even with an increased key size.
E. Key generation in ECC is faster and less CPU intensive.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 27
An administrator desires that when work laptops are not connected to the corporate network, they should automatically initiate an AnyConnect VPN tunnel back to headquarters. Where does the administrator configure this?
A. Via the svc trusted-network command under the group-policy sub-configuration mode on the ASA
B. Under the andquot;Automatic VPN Policyandquot; section inside the Anyconnect Profile Editor within ASDM
C. Under the TNDPolicy XML section within the Local Preferences file on the client computer
D. Via the svc trusted-network command under the global webvpn sub-configuration mode on the ASA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which command simplifies the task of converting an SSL VPN to an IKEv2 VPN on a Cisco ASA appliance that has an invalid IKEv2 configuration?
A. migrate remote-access ssl overwrite
B. migrate remote-access ikev2
C. migrate l2l
D. migrate remote-access ssl
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which three types of web resources or protocols are enabled by default on the Cisco ASA Clientless SSL VPN portal? (Choose three.)
A. HTTP
B. VNC
C. CIFS
D. RDP
E. HTTPS
F. ICA (Citrix)
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 30
Which functionality is provided by L2TPv3 over FlexVPN? 300-209 dumps
A. the extension of a Layer 2 domain across the FlexVPN
B. the extension of a Layer 3 domain across the FlexVPN
C. secure communication between servers on the FlexVPN
D. a secure backdoor for remote access users through the FlexVPN
Correct Answer: A

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648-244 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two statements would lead you to use a mixed Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster with physical and virtual machines instead of a fully virtualized deployment? (Choose two.)
A. when migrating from a physical to a virtual deployment
B. when inter virtual machine traffic should be switched with Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. when using MOH audio live-stream devices
D. when you want to use direct-attached Fibre Channel SAN devices
E. when you need remote access to the BIOS setup
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 2
Why should you use the Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool in addition to your design solution that you did manually?
A. this is not necessary if the DocWiki guidelines for virtualized Cisco Unified Communications are followed
B. to distribute and place the virtual machines automatically in the optimized way
C. to calculate CPU and memory utilization
D. to select the optimized OVA template for the deployment
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When designing a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster, how many MOH Unicast streams are supported per server when streaming is colocated?
A. 48
B. 128
C. 250
D. 256
E. 500
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
When designing a virtualized Cisco Unity Connection deployment, which two statements are true? 648-244 dumps (Choose two.)
A. configure CPU affinity for Cisco Unity Connection
B. reserve an unused core per Cisco Unity Connection virtual machine
C. reserve an unused core per host server
D. iLBC codec selection reduces the number of ports by 75 percent
E. a Cisco Unity Connection cluster supports up to 40,000 users
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 5
How many coresident applications can be hosted on a Cisco UCS C200 M2 server when using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two vDisk options can be selected for the 20,000-user Cisco Unity Connection OVA template? (Choose two.)
A. 2 * 146 GB
B. 2 * 200 GB
C. 2 * 256 GB
D. 2 * 300 GB
E. 2 * 450 GB
F. 2 * 500 GB
Correct Answer: D,F

QUESTION 7
How many Cisco Unified Communications Manager users can be processed by a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server compared to a Cisco MCS 7845-I3 server?
A. single
B. double
C. triple
D. quadruple
E. quintuple
F. sextuple
G. octuple
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which application can be colocated on the same server as the virtualized Cisco Unified Communications applications?
A. DHCP server
B. DNS server
C. Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
D. VMware vCenter
E. Cisco SocialMiner
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
How many DIMM slots does the Intel Xeon 5600 processor architecture offer per socket?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12
E. 18
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
How many Cisco Media Communications Servers does a deployment require to reach a return on investment when deploying Cisco B-Series servers instead of Cisco Media Communications Servers in a newly installed data center?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
E. 20
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Which two make up the default username and password to access the Cisco Integrated Management Controller for the first time? 648-244 dumps (Choose two.)
A. admin
B. administrator
C. root
D. password
E. none (empty)
F. Cisco123
Correct Answer: A,D

QUESTION 12
What is the disk efficiency factor when using RAID 10?
A. 1/2
B. 1/n
C. 1/(n/2)
D. 1-1/n
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is not a general server status indicator?
A. Good
B. Fault
C. Severed Fault
D. Test in Progress
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which one is covered by a Tested Reference Configuration server?
A. configuration of SAN and NAS devices
B. configuration settings for BIOS
C. DAS and RAID options
D. patch recommendation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which two entries define a valid storage option for the Cisco UCS C210 M2 TRC 1 server? (Choose two.)
A. DAS (2 disks RAID 0) for VMware
B. DAS (2 disks RAID 1) for VMware
C. DAS (4 disks RAID 5) for VMware
D. DAS (8 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
E. DAS (10 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
Correct Answer: B,D

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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces.
Which option is the cause of the problem?
A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?
A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch.
Which type of misconfiguration is a cause? 300-115 dumps
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch isoverloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?
A. RADIUS server, localusername, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored?
A. stack master
B. TFTP server
C. flash memory
D. all stack members
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which portion of AAA looks at what a user has access to?
A. authorization
B. authentication
C. accounting
D. auditing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which option describes the reason for this message in a GLBP configuration?
A. Unavailable GLBP active forwarder
B. Incorrect GLBP IP address
C. HSRP configured on same interface as GLBP
D. Layer 2 loop
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What condition was match during etherchannel configuration.
A. Spanning tree port priority
B. Spanning tree cost
C. Interface DescriptionD. Trunk mode
E. Trunk allow vlan
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
What happens if you apply this command andquot;vlan dot1q tag nativeandquot;?
A. packet will be dropped
B. packet go to defautl vlan
C. packet go to native vlan
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distributionand core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. 300-115 dumps The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on
backup device has also failed. Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps
What is the priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on DSW2?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?
A. 0
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 100
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A Cisco Catalyst switch that is prone to reboots continues to rebuild the DHCP snooping database. What is the solution to avoid the snooping database from being rebuilt after everydevice reboot?
A. A DHCP snooping database agent should be configured.
B. Enable DHCP snooping for all VLANs that are associated with the switch.
C. Disable Option 82 for DHCP data insertion.
D. Use IP Source Guard to protect the DHCP binding table entries from being lost upon rebooting.
E. Apply ip dhcp snooping trust on all interfaces with dynamic addresses.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which statement about Layer 2 protocol participation of ports involved m a SPAN session is true?
A. Neither a SPAN source nor SPAN destination participates m any Layer 2 protocols.
B. A SPAN source does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
C. A SPAN destination does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
D. Both SPAN source and SPAN destination participate in any Layer 2 protocols
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Afterport security is deployed throughout an enterprise campus, the network team has been overwhelmed with port reset requests. They decide to configure the network to automate the process of re-enabling user ports.
Which command accomplishes this task?
A. switch(config)# errdisable recovery interval 180
B. switch(config)# errdisable recovery cause psecure-violation
C. switch(config)# switchport port-security protect
D. switch(config)# switchport port-security aging type inactivity
E. switch(config)# errdisablerecovery cause security-violation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which three functions does Dynamic ARP Inspection perform with invalid IP-to MAC address bindings? 300-115 dumps (Choose there.)
A. accepts
B. deletes
C. discards
D. bypasses
E. intercepts
F. logs
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 19
300-115 dumps
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about switch S1 is true?
A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.
B. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 physical port- channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
D. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 physical port- channel interface using an open standard protocol.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Whichfour LACP components are used to determine which hot-standby links become active after an interface failure within an EtherChannel bundle? (Choose four.)
A. LACP system priority
B. LACP port priority
C. interface MAC address
D. system ID
E. port number
F. hot-standby link identification number
G. interface bandwidth
Correct Answer: ABDE

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200-310 dumps
QUESTION 1
In the traditional hierarchical LAN design,Which two statement about the distribution layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. It typically is connected directly to the internet It provides users direct access to the network
B. It uses Layer 2 switching only
C. It aggregates data from the access layer
D. Policy is implemented at this layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the HSRP active moves to the right distribution, and the STP root remains on the left distribution?
A. The STP root becomes the gateway
B. The interdistribution link is used for transit
C. The HSRP standby becomes the gateway
D. The interaccess link is used for transit
E. Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Why would an engineer implement variable length subnet masks?
A. To make a subnet public
B. To prevent wasting IP addresses
C. To make a subnet its own VLAN
D. To expand an existing subnet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which command is correct for creating a virtual interface on Cisco wireless controller?
A. config create interface
B. tag interface
C. config interface address
D. untag interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two design decision can improve network resiliency? 200-310 dumps (you have to chose 2 answers)
A. Implement redundant link
B. Increase data plane bandwidth
C. Implement serial device connection
D. Reduce network size
E. Implement redundant topology
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
A network design engineer is seeking a dynamic routing protocol that supports fast convergence in a Cisco environment.
What protocol allows for this?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
DataQuirk is a web-based medical transcription company for exotic-animal veterinarians. The company recently added a third ISP for international business. They are organizing the enterprise network into a fully operational Enterprise Edge.
To which two modules will the three ISPs be directly related? (Choose two.)
A. PSTN
B. E-Commerce
C. WAN/MAN
D. Edge Distribution
E. Internet Connectivity
F. Remote Access VPN
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
What network virtualization technology can be leveraged within the data center to reduce the number of physical devices?
A. VLANs
B. VPLS
C. VDC
D. VSS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network should these services be provisioned?
A. Core
B. Aggregation
C. Layer 3 access
D. Distribution
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What three design requirements are key to design a Campus Core?
A. Low latency
B. Access control
C. Traffic filtering
D. High speed
E. Redundant links
F. QoS tagging
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 11
A network engineer is following the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model. 200-310 dumps To which network layer would a branch office connect to using a private VLAN?
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. SP Edge Premise
D. Remote Module
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An application uses broadcast traffic to send data to IPv4 hosts. How can the application communicate using IPv6?
A. Anycast
B. Unicast
C. Broadcast
D. Multicast
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which effect do thery have on the routing table?
A. Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is added
B. Only the route with the highest administrative distance is added
C. Both routes are added
D. Neither route is added, and a loop is formed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which two Cisco data center can participate in Cisco FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
When considering the three VoIP design models – single site, centralized multisite, and distributed multisite – which question would help to eliminate one of the options?
A. Will the witches be required to provide inline power?
B. Will users need to make offsite calls, beyond the enterprise?
C. Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response?
D. Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN?
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCIE
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam
Exam Code: 400-101
Total Questions: 828 Q&As
400-101 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about the max-age time in IS-IS are true? (Choose two.)
A. The IS-IS max-age time is 20 minutes by default.
B. The IS-IS max-age time is 60 minutes by default.
C. The IS-IS max-age time increments from zero to max-age.
D. The IS-IS max-age time decrements from max-age to zero.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs. You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to enable the routers to exchange routes?
A. Change the corresponding loopback address.
B. Change the router ID on R2.
C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship.
D. Clear the EIGRP process.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about OSPF route filtering are true? (Choose two)
A. It can be based on the source router ID.
B. It can be based on the external route tag.
C. It affects LSA flooding.
D. It can be based on the as-path.
E. It can be based on distance.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about IS-IS? 400-101 dumps (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS DIS election is nondeterministic.
B. IS-IS SPF calculation is performed in three phases.
C. IS-IS works over the data link layer, which does not provide for fragmentation and reassembly.
D. IS-IS can never be routed beyond the immediate next hop.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about PIM-DM are true? (Choose two.)
A. It forwards multicast packets on a source tree.
B. It requires an RP.
C. It forwards multicast packets on a shared distribution tree.
D. It floods multicast packets to neighbors that have requested the data.
E. It floods multicast packets throughout the network.
F. It forwards multicast packets to neighbors that have requested the data.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Which BGP feature allows R1 to instruct R2 which prefixes it is allowed to advertise to R1?
A. route refresh
B. Prefix-Based Outbound Route Filtering
C. distribute lists
D. prefix lists
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three capabilities are provided by MLD snooping? (Choose three.)
A. dynamic port learning
B. IPv6 multicast router discovery
C. user-configured ports age out automatically
D. a 5-minute aging timer
E. flooding control packets to the egress VLAN
F. a 60-second aging timer
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
Which option describes a limitation of Embedded Packet Capture?
A. It can capture data only on physical interfaces and subinterfaces.
B. It can store only packet data.
C. It can capture multicast packets only on ingress.
D. It can capture multicast packets only on egress.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about IGPs are true? 400-101 dumps (Choose Two)
A. RIPv2 and IS-IS calculate the metric of a link based on the bandwidth of a link.
B. OSPF and IS-IS are classless protocols.
C. OSPF and EIGRP have high resource usage.D. RiPv2 and EIGRP support VLSM.
E. RIPv2 and OSPF are distance vector protocols.
F. IS-IS and EIGRP are link-state protocols.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
In which type of EIGRP configuration is EIGRP IPv6 VRF-Lite available?
A. stub
B. named mode
C. classic mode
D. passive
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
According to RFC 4577, OSPF for BGP/MPLS IP VPNs, when must the down bit be set?
A. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 LSAs
B. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 5 LSAs
C. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 and Type 5 LSAs
D. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for all types of LSAs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about the BGP community attribute are true? (Choose two.)
A. Routers send the community attribute to all BGP neighbors automatically.
B. A router can change a received community attribute before advertising it to peers.
C. It is a well-known, discretionary BGP attribute.
D. It is an optional transitive BGP attribute.
E. A prefix can support only one community attribute.
Correct Answer: BD

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 310 Q&As
lead4pass 210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HTTP GET requests during normal operations? (Choose three).
A. when matching NAT entries are configured
B. when matching ACL entries are configured
C. when the firewall receives a SYN-ACK packet
D. when the firewall receives a SYN packet
E. when the firewall requires HTTP inspection
F. when the firewall requires strict HTTP inspection
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 3
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to the destination
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose three.)
A. BOOTP
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. MAB
E. HTTP
F. 802.1x
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 8
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A specific URL has been identified as containing malware. What action can you take to block users from accidentally visiting the URL and becoming infected with malware.
A. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to block to the router’s local URL list.
B. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter firewall and add the URLs you want to allow to the router’s local URL list.
C. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to allow to the firewall’s local URL list.
D. Create a blacklist that contains the URL you want to block and activate the blacklist on the perimeter router.
E. Create a whitelist that contains the URLs you want to allow and activate the whitelist on the perimeter router.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
How can the administrator enable permanent client installation in a Cisco AnyConnect VPN firewall configuration?
A. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
B. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed in the global configuration
C. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed under the group policy or username webvpn mode
D. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
Correct Answer: C

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