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QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain name of contoso.com.
The multi-factor authentication (MFA) service settings are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q1

In contoso.com, you create the users shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q1-1

What is the effect of the configuration? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q1-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q1-3

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. You create a label named CompanyConfidential in Microsoft Azure Information
Protection.
You add CompanyConfidential to global policy.
A user protects an email message by using CompanyConfidential and sends the label to several external recipients.
The external recipients report that they cannot open the email message.
You need to ensure that the external recipients can open protected email messages sent to them.
Solution: You create a new label in the global policy and instruct the user to resend the email message.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain name of contoso.com. Microsoft Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD) contains the users shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q3

Both devices have three apps named App1, App2, and App3 installed. You create an app protection policy named
ProtectionPolicy1 that has the following settings: Protected apps: App1 Exempt apps: App2 Windows Information
Protection mode: Block
You apply ProtectionPolicy1 to Group1 and Group3. You exclude Group2 from ProtectionPolicy1.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q3-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q3-2

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You create an Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) Safe attachments policy to quarantine malware.
You need to configure the retention duration for the attachments in quarantine.
Which type of threat management policy should you create from the SecurityandCompliance admin center?
A. ATP anti-phishing
B. DKIM
C. Anti-spam
D. Anti-malware
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You have the Microsoft conditions shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q5

You have the Azure Information Protection policies shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q5-1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q5-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q5-3

QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You have a site collection named SiteCollection1 that contains a site named Site2. Site2 contains a document library
named Customers.
Customers contain a document named Litware.docx. You need to remove Litware.docx permanently.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q6-1

QUESTION 7

Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain. The domain contains servers that run Windows Server
and have advanced auditing enabled.
The security logs of the servers are collected by using a third-party SIEM solution.
You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription and plan to deploy Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) by using
standalone sensors.
You need to ensure that you can detect when sensitive groups are modified and when malicious services are created.
What should you do?
A. Configure auditing in the Office 365 Security and Compliance center.
B. Turn off Delayed updates for the Azure ATP sensors.
C. Modify the Domain synchronizer candidate\\’s settings on the Azure ATP sensors.
D. Integrate SIEM and Azure ATP.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure-advanced-threat-protection/install-atp-step5

QUESTION 8
You need to configure threat detection for Active Directory. The solution must meet the security requirements.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place: lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q8-1

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You identify the following data loss prevention (DLP) requirements: Send notifications to users if they attempt to send
attachments that contain EU social security numbers Prevent any email messages that contain credit card numbers
from being sent outside your organization Block the external sharing of Microsoft OneDrive content that contains EU
passport numbers Send administrators email alerts if any rule matches occur.
What is the minimum number of DLP policies and rules you must create to meet the requirements? To answer, select
the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q8-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q8-3

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that is associated to a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant
named contoso.com.
You use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to federate on-premises Active Directory and the tenant. Azure
AD Connect has the following settings:
1.
Source Anchor: objectGUID
2.
Password Hash Synchronization: Disabled

3.
Password writeback: Disabled
4.
Directory extension attribute sync: Disabled
5.
Azure AD app and attribute filtering: Disabled
6.
Exchange hybrid deployment: Disabled
7.
User writeback: Disabled
You need to ensure that you can use leaked credentials detection in Azure AD Identity Protection.
Solution: You modify the Password Hash Synchronization settings.
Does that meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-ad-secure-steps

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You create a retention label named Label1 as shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q11

You publish Label1 to SharePoint sites.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q11-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q11-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/labels

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that contains the users shown in
the following table.lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q12

You create and enforce an Azure AD Identity Protection user risk policy that has the following settings:
1. Assignments: Include Group1, Exclude Group2
2. Conditions: Sign-in risk of Low and above
3. Access: Allow access, Require password change
You need to identify how the policy affects User1 and User2.
What occurs when User1 and User2 sign in from an unfamiliar location? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: 

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q12-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-500 exam questions q12-2

QUESTION 13
You need to implement Windows Defender ATP to meet the security requirements. What should you do?
A. Configure port mirroring
B. Create the ForceDefenderPassiveMode registry setting
C. Download and install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent
D. Run WindowsDefenderATPOnboardingScript.cmd
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What is the benefit of the application-aware firewall?
A. It blocks traffic by MAC address
B. It blocks traffic by MTU of the packet.
C. It blocks traffic by application.
D. It blocks encrypted traffic
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_data_zbf/configuration/xe-16-9/sec-data-zbf-xe-16-9-book/secdata-zbf-xe-16-9-book_chapter_0100100.html

 

QUESTION 2
When redistribution is configured between OMP and BGP at two Data Center sites that have Direct Connection interlink,
which step avoids learning the same routes on WAN Edge routers of the DCs from LAN?
A. Define different VRFs on both DCs
B. Set the same overlay AS on both DC WAN Edge routers
C. Set down-bit on Edge routers on DC1
D. Set OMP admin distance lower than BGP admin distance
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which on-the-box security feature k supported by the Cisco ISR 4451 SD-WAN device and not on vEdge?
A. Cloud Express service
B. Enterprise Firewall with Application Awareness
C. reverse proxy
D. IPsec/GRE cloud proxy
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Which logs verify when a device was upgraded?
A. Audit
B. Email
C. ACL
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which template configures the out-of-band management VPN?lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q5 lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q5-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
On which device Is a service FW address configured to Insert firewall service at the hub?
A. vEdge at the branch
B. vSmart at the hub
C. vEdge at the hub
D. vSmart at the branch
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/Software_Features/Release_18.4/07Policy_Applications/02Service_Chaining/Service_Chaining_Configuration_Examples

 

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco SD-WAN WAN Edge platform supports LTE and Wi-Fi?
A. vEdge2000
B. ASR1001
C. CSR 1000v
D. ISR 1101
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the vManage policy configuration procedures from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q8-1

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/vedge/policies-book/datapolicies.html

 

QUESTION 9
Which alarm setting is configured to monitor serious events that affect but do not shut down, the operation of a network
function?
A. Minor
B. Major
C. Medium
D. Critical
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/vManage_HowTos/Troubleshooting/Monitor_Alarms

 

QUESTION 10
A policy is created to influence routing in the network using a group of prefixes. What policy application will achieve this goal when applied to a site list?
A. Vpn-membership policy
B. Control-policy
C. cflowd-template
D. App-route policy
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
What are the two advantages of deploying cloud-based Cisco SD-WAN controllers? (Choose two.)
A. centralized control and data plane
B. distributed authentication policies
C. management of SLA
D. infrastructure as a service
E. centralized raid storage of data
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
Which value is verified in the certificates to confirm the identity of the physical WAN Edge device?
A. Serial Number
B. OTP
C. System-IP
D. Chassis-ID
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which command displays BFD session summary information per TLOC on vEdge routers?
A. show bfd history
B. show bfd summary
C. show BFD sessions
D. show BFD tloc-summary-list
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/command/sdwan-cr-book/sdwan-cr-book_chapter_0100.html

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the SNMP attributes in Cisco IOS devices from the left onto the correct SNMPv2c or SNMPV3 categories
on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco VPN technology can use the multipoint tunnel, resulting in a single GRE tunnel interface on the hub, to support
multiple connections from multiple spoke devices?
A. DMVPN
B. GETVPN
C. Cisco Easy VPN
D. FlexVPN
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which next hop is going to be used for 172.17.1.0/24?lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q3

A. 10.0.0.1
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 10.0.0.2
D. 192.168.3.2
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which label operations are performed by a label edge router?
A. SWAP and POP
B. SWAP and PUSH
C. PUSH and PHP
D. PUSH and POP
Correct Answer: D
A label edge router (LER, also known as edge LSR) is a router that operates at the edge of an MPLS network and acts
as the entry and exit points for the network. LERs push an MPLS label onto an incoming packet and pop it off an
outgoing
packet.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nxos/mpls/configuration/guide/mpls_cg/mp_mpls_overview.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the OSPF adjacency states from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q5-1 lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q5-2

Down This is the first OSPF neighbor state. It means that no information (hellos) has been received from this neighbor,
but hello packets can still be sent to the neighbor in this state. During the fully adjacent neighbor state, if a router
doesn\\’t receive a hello packet from a neighbor within the Router Dead Interval time (RouterDeadInterval =
4*HelloInterval by default) or if the manually configured neighbor is being removed from the configuration, then the
neighbor state changes from Full to Down.
Attempt This state is only valid for manually configured neighbors in an NBMA environment. In an Attempt state, the router
sends unicast hello packets every poll interval to the neighbor, from which hellos have not been received within the
dead interval. Init This state specifies that the router has received a hello packet from its neighbor, but the receiving
router\\’s ID was not included in the Hello packet. When a router receives a hello packet from a neighbor, it should list
the sender\\’s router ID in its hello packet as an acknowledgment that it received a valid hello packet.
2-Way This state designates that bi-directional communication has been established between two routers. Bi-directional
means that each router has seen the other\\’s hello packet. This state is attained when the router receiving the hello
packet sees its own Router ID within the received hello packet\\’s neighbor field. At this state, a router decides whether
to become adjacent to this neighbor. On broadcast media and non-broadcast multiaccess networks, a router becomes
full only with the designated router (DR) and the backup designated router (BDR); it stays in the 2-way state with all
other neighbors. On Point-to-point and Point-to-multipoint networks, a router becomes full with all connected routers. At
the end of this stage, the DR and BDR for broadcast and non-broadcast multiaccess networks are elected. For more
information on the DR election process, refer to DR Election. Note: Receiving a Database Descriptor (DBD) packet from
a neighbor in the init state will also cause a transition to a 2-way state.
Exstart Once the DR and BDR are elected, the actual process of exchanging link-state information can start between
the routers and their DR and BDR. (ie. Shared or NBMA networks). In this state, the routers and their DR and BDR
establish a master-slave relationship and choose the initial sequence number for adjacency formation. The router with
the higher router ID becomes the master and starts the exchange, and as such, is the only router that can increment the
sequence number. Note that one would logically conclude that the DR/BDR with the highest router ID will become the
master during this process of master-slave relation. Remember that the DR/BDR election might be purely by virtue of a
higher priority configured on the router instead of the highest router ID. Thus, it is possible that DR plays the role of a slave.
And also note that the master/slave election is on a per-neighbor basis.
Exchange In the exchange state, OSPF routers exchange database descriptor (DBD) packets. Database descriptors
contain link-state advertisement (LSA) headers only and describe the contents of the entire link-state database. Each
DBD packet has a sequence number that can be incremented only by the master which is explicitly acknowledged by the slave. Routers also send link-state request packets and link-state update packets (which contain the entire LSA) in this
state. The contents of the DBD received are compared to the information contained in the routers link-state database to
check if new or more current link-state information is available with the neighbor.
Loading In this state, the actual exchange of link-state information occurs. Based on the information provided by the
DBDs, routers send link-state request packets. The neighbor then provides the requested link-state information in link state update packets. During the adjacency, if a router receives an outdated or missing LSA, it requests that LSA by
sending a link-state request packet. All link-state update packets are acknowledged.
Full In this state, routers are fully adjacent to each other. All the router and network LSAs are exchanged and the
routers\\’ databases are fully synchronized. Full is the normal state for an OSPF router. If a router is stuck in another
state, it is an indication that there are problems in forming adjacencies. The only exception to this is the 2-way state,
which is normal in a broadcast network. Routers achieve the FULL state with their DR and BDR in NBMA/broadcast
media and FULL state with every neighbor in the remaining media such as point-to-point and point-to-multipoint. Note:
The DR and BDR that achieve a FULL state with every router on the segment will display FULL/BROTHER when you
enter the show IP OSPF neighbor command on either a DR or BDR. This simply means that the neighbor is not a DR or
BDR, but since the router on which the command was entered is either a DR or BDR, this shows the neighbor as
FULL/BROTHER.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html
+
Each router compares the DBD packets that were received from the other router: Exchange
+
Routers exchange information with other routers in the multiaccess network: Exstart
+
The neighboring router requests the other routers to send missing entries: Loading
+
The network has already elected a DR and a backup BDR: 2-way
+
The OSPF router ID of the receiving router was not contained in the hello message: Init
+
No hellos have been received from a neighbor router: Down
When OSPF adjacency is formed, a router goes through several state changes before it becomes fully adjacent with its
neighbor.
The states are Down -> Attempt (optional) -> Init -> 2-Way -> Exstart -> Exchange -> Loading -> Full. Short descriptions
about these states are listed below:
Down: no information (hellos) has been received from this neighbor. Attempt: only valid for manually configured
neighbors in an NBMA environment. In Attempt state, the router sends unicast hello packets every poll interval to the
neighbor,
from which hellos have not been received within the dead interval.
Init: specifies that the router has received a hello packet from its neighbor, but the receiving router\\’s ID was not
included in the hello packet
2-Way: indicates bi-directional communication has been established between two routers. Extract: Once the DR and
BDR is elected, the actual process of exchanging link-state information can start between the routers and their DR
and
BDR.
Exchange: OSPF routers exchange and compare database descriptor (DBD) packets Loading: In this state, the actual
exchange of link-state information occurs. Outdated or missing entries are also requested to be resent.
Full: routers are fully adjacent with each other
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080093f0e.shtml
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer executes the show ipv6 OSPF database command and is presented with the
output that is shown. Which flooding scope is referenced in the link-state type?lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q6

A. link-local
B. area
C. As (OSPF domain)
D. reserved
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. During troubleshooting, it was discovered that the device is not reachable using a secure web
browser. What is needed to fix the problem?
A. permit TCP port 443
B. permit UDP port 465
C. permit TCP port 465
D. permit TCP port 22
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. In which circumstance does the BGP neighbor remain in the idle condition?
A. if prefixes are not received from the BGP peer
B. if prefixes reach the maximum limit
C. if a prefix list is applied in the inbound direction
D. if prefixes exceed the maximum limit
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to block the route to 192.168.2.2 from the routing table by using the
configuration that is shown. The route is still present in the routing table as an OSPF route. Which action blocks the
route?lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q9

A. Use an extended access list instead of a standard access list.
B. Change sequence 10 in the route-map command from permit to deny.
C. Use a prefix-list instead of an access list in the route map.
D. Add this statement to the route map: route-map RM-OSPF-DL denies 20.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
While working with software images, an engineer observes that Cisco DNA Center cannot upload its software image
directly from the device. Why is the image not uploading?
A. The device must be resynced to Cisco DNA Center.
B. The software image for the device is in install mode.
C. The device has lost connectivity to Cisco DNA Center.
D. The software image for the device is in bundle mode
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-and/management/dna-center/1-2-10/user_guide/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_1_2_10/b_dnac_ug_1_2_10_chapter_0100.html

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q11

A company is evaluating multiple network management system tools. Trending graphs generated by SNMP data are
returned by the NMS and appear to have multiple gaps. While troubleshooting the issue, an engineer noticed the
relevant output.
What solves the gaps in the graphs?
A. Remove the exceed-rate command in the class map.
B. Remove the class-map NMS from being part of control plane policing.
C. Configure the CIR rate to a lower value that accommodates all the NMS tools
D. Separate the NMS class-map into multiple class maps based on the specific protocols with appropriate CoPP actions
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/copp_best_practices

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the following output:
Router#show ip nhrp detail
1.1.2/8 via 10.2.1.2, Tunnel1 created 00:00:12, expire 01:59:47 TypE. dynamic, Flags: authoritative unique nat
registered used NBMA address:
10.12.1.2
What does the authoritative flag mean in regards to the NHRP information?
A. It was obtained directly from the next-hop server.
B. Data packets are process switches for this mapping entry.
C. NHRP mapping is for networks that are local to this router.
D. The mapping entry was created in response to an NHRP registration request.
E. The NHRP mapping entry cannot be overwritten
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Drag and drop the operations from the left onto the locations where the operations are performed on the right. Drag
each definition on the left to the matching term on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q13

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q13-1

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QUESTION 1
Which tool is available to expand the size of Cisco Unified ICM databases?
A. Microsoft SQL Studio
B. DBExpand
C. database sizing utility
D. ICMDBA
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which batch script can be used to view VXML application states and port count for a Cisco Unified CVP VXML server?
A. getVersions.bat
B. status.bat
C. updateApp.bat
D. displayApp.bat
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
What must be enabled when configuring voice gateways to support SIP dialers?
A. 100rel
B. signaling forward unconditional
C. 200rel
D. signaling forward 100
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 500-450 exam questions q4

In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise 10.0 Outbound Option with SIP Dialer, you check the status of the Dialer
process from Diagnostic Framework Portico. What does the circled message “R” represent?
A. customer instance name
B. telephony port status
C. configured ports
D. ready ports
E. reserved ports
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which three objects are created by the Domain Manager tool in the Cisco Unified ICM? (Choose three.)
A. ICM Organizational Unit
B. ICM facility
C. ICM User Group policy
D. ICM Security policy
E. ICM instance
F. ICM agent users
Correct Answer: ABE

 

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum number of agents that can be configured within Cisco Packaged Contact Center Enterprise up to
release 10.5?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 2000
D. 6000
E. 76,000
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
When performing an upgrade to Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, which components do not need to be
upgraded together during the same maintenance window?
A. Cisco Unified ICM call router and logger
B. Cisco Unified ICM call router and administrative workstation
C. Cisco Unified ICM call router and peripheral gateway
D. administrative workstation and HDS-DDS
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which statement about administrative scripts in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution is true?
A. Administrative scripts can run more than one time per second.
B. Administrative scripts must be associated with a call type.
C. Administrative scripts can use a DB Lookup node.
D. Administrative scripts can use an ICM Gateway node.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable?
A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could
increment from 151191 to 151192.
B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could advance
from “Monday” to “Tuesday”.
C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example: at midnight it would
reset to zero.
D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call.
E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution with SIP Dialer, which option lists the correct order to set up the
components (assuming the agent peripheral gateway host already exists)?
A. configure media routing peripheral gateway, dialer; install media routing peripheral gateway, dialer
B. configure dialer, port map, media routing peripheral gateway; install dialer, media routing peripheral gateway
C. install dialer, media routing peripheral gateway; configure dialer, port map, media routing peripheral gateway
D. install media routing peripheral gateway, dialer; configure media routing peripheral gateway, dialer
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 500-450 exam questions q11

The Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal post-call survey is enabled on OAMP. Which option describes what the survey
Does the dialed number pattern represent?
A. dial-peer configured for survey DN
B. dialed number configured for UCCE scripts
C. route pattern configured for survey DN
D. dial-peer configured for survey DN and dialed number configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise scripts
E. dial-peer and route pattern configured for survey DN and dialed number configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center
Enterprise scripts
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
In the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution, which process is responsible for peer-to-peer synchronization?
A. ccagent
B. MDS
C. router
D. OPC
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
When configuring the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Courtesy Callback feature in the ingress and VXML gateway,
which configuration is needed to ensure that SIP is set up to forward SIP INFO messaging?
A. signaling sip forward unconditional
B. signaling forward conditional
C. signaling forward unconditional
D. signaling forward unconditional sip info
E. signaling forward conditional sip info
Correct Answer: C

 

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Studio scripts are allowed to be modified for the Courtesy Callback
feature?
A. BillingQueue, Callback Engine, CallbackEntry, CallbackQueue, CallbackWait
B. Billing, Callback Engine, CallbackEntry, CallbackQueue, CallbackWait
C. BillingQueue, Callback Engine, CallbackEntry, CallbackBilling, CallbackWait
D. BillingQueue, CallbackEntry, CallbackWait
E. BillingQueue, Callback Engine, CallbackEntry
F. Billing, CallbackEntry, CallbackWait
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement about using agent targeting rules in Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is true?
A. Agent device targets must be created for each phone that is used by an agent.
B. Agent labels must be created for each routing client that can route calls to an agent.
C. Agent extensions can be defined as a range, without having to build each device target.
D. Agent targeting rules are not allowed with translation routes.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
The JTAPI communications between the Cisco Unified Communication Manager cluster and Cisco Unified Contact
Center Enterprise includes three distinct types of messaging. Which two options are those messages? (Choose two.)
A. devise and call monitoring
B. SIP call control messages
C. service control
D. single sign-on messages
E. routing control (Cisco Unified CM cluster request instructions from Cisco Unified CCE)
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 4
A customer has a remote site with 100 agents, and the remote site only has SRST for E.911. 50% of the supervisors are
located at HQ where the data center is. The agents to supervisor ratio is 10%. The customer requires that supervisors
from any remote site can record and silent monitor active calls. With BW design consideration, how many minimum RTP
streams are needed between the data center and agent remote sites?
A. 300 RTP streams
B. 150 RTP streams
C. 110 RTP streams
D. 120 RTP streams
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, primary and secondary nodes can be installed on separate domains. Which two
requirements must be met for the pair to work properly? (Choose two.)
A. Each Cisco Finesse server should be able to perform a DNS lookup of the other server using a fully qualified domain
name.
B. Primary and secondary Cisco Finesse servers should only communicate with IP addresses.
C. All Cisco Finesse clients should be able to perform DNS lookups of the Cisco Finesse servers using the FQDN.
D. All Cisco Finesse clients should connect to the server with IP address.
E. All Cisco Finesse clients should be local to the Cisco Finesse servers.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 6
Which three statements about the high availability of the Cisco Unified Intelligent Contact Management central controller are
valid? (Choose three.)
A. If one ICM call router of a duplex pair of Cisco Unified ICM call routers fails, the surviving ICM call router recognizes
the failure when it receives no response to heartbeats over the private LAN.
B. During Cisco Unified ICM call router failover processing, calls in progress in Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal are
disconnected, but all new calls are processed successfully.
C. If ICM Logger Side A fails, the impact of call processing is limited to ICM call router side A.
D. If ICM Logger Side A fails, router side B cannot send historical info to ICM Logger side A and is limited to ICM Logger
side B.
E. There is no impact on call processing during a Cisco Unified ICM Logger failure.
F. If the private LAN fails, the peripheral gateways are used to help determine the active call router side of the duplex
pair.
G. If ICM Logger Side B fails, the ICM Router side B cannot send real-time and historical info to logger side A.
Correct Answer: AEF

 

QUESTION 7
Erlang calculations are used to size contact center resources. Which two resources are sized by using Erlang-B?
(Choose two.)
A. reporting ports
B. estimated wait times
C. PSTN gateway trunks
D. agents
E. IVR ports
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 8
When using micro-apps, which core components are required for calls that originate from Cisco Unified Communications
Manager to Cisco Unified CVP using Comprehensive mode?
A. CUCM: CTI Route Port, SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU, CUBE, VXML Gateway
B. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway
C. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway
D. CUCM: CTI Route Port and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about combining IP telephony and Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Extensions on the
same IP phone are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified CCE supports only one agent ACD line on the IP phone.
B. The ACD line on the IP phone may have voicemail or call forwarding defined.
C. In a typical call center, the ACD line is the first line on the phone to make it easier for the agent to forward inbound
ACD calls.
D. The agent state changes based on the activity of the ACD line.
E. If the agent picks up the phone to place a call, the agent is put into ready mode.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 10
Which three benefits does a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise centralized deployment with small agents branch
provide? (Choose three.)
A. It requires only a small data switch and router, IP phones, and agent desktops at remote sites for a few agents.
B. It requires only a limited system and network management skills at remote sites.
C. Small remote branches require PSTN and SIP trunks, in addition to the ones needed for local POTS lines for
emergency services (911) in the event of a WAN link loss.
D. PSTN trunks for incoming traffic connect to data centers for efficiency.
E. It does not use VoIP WAN bandwidth when an agent is answering the call.
F. Calls extend over the WAN only while calls are in the queue.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 11
Which two features does the Cisco Unified Border Element provide when Cisco Unified CCE and Cisco Unified Customer
Voice Portals are used? (Choose two.)
A. load-balancing outbound calls
B. secure communication using flow around mode
C. normalize SIP messages using SIP profiles
D. Silent Monitor inbound voice calls
E. record calls by forking the media
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
Which three WAN/MAN configurations are valid in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise clustering over the WAN
deployment model? (Choose three.)
A. A highly available visible network WAN/MAN/DWDM and a dedicated private network WAN.
B. A highly available MPLS WAN shared by the visible and private networks with a 2 second convergence time.
C. A highly available MPLS WAN shared by the visible and private networks where the private network is pinned to a
single path and the visible network aligned to an alternate path failing to the private network path as a redundant link with
QoS and bandwidth provisioning.
D. A highly available DWDM/CWDM network shared by the visible and private networks with a sub-500 ms convergence
time.
E. All traffic is converged on a single MPLS network by using appropriate QoS markings and settings to ensure latency
and bandwidth requirements.
F. A highly available DWDM/CWDM network shared by the visible and private networks with 1500 ms convergence
time.
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 500-440 exam questions q13

Which includes three inbound call flows with their respective average handle times. The deployment includes Cisco
Unified Contact Center Enterprise, Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal, Cisco Unified Communication Manager, and
Cisco Unified Border Element. The customer needs to record all agent conversations with callers. What is the minimum
average handle time needed to determine how many recording ports are required?
A. 290.0 seconds
B. 259.5 seconds
C. 146.9 seconds
D. 117.5 seconds
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You implement the Compliance Manager.
You need to retrieve status information for a control task.
Which two options can you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q1-1

References: https://content.cloudguides.com/guides/Compliance%20Manager

 

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You manage point-of-sale terminals that run Windows 7.
You must upgrade the terminals to Windows 10. Terminals must not be upgraded again for at least five years. You have
the following requirements:
1.
Perform consistent scheduling of upgrades and updates across all devices.
2.
Minimize costs.
You need to prepare for the upgrades.
What should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q2-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-overview#long-term-servicing-channel
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-overview#servicing-tools

 

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company.
You identify the following requirements:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q3

You need to assign Microsoft 365 licenses to users based on the requirements for each department.
Which type of licenses should you assign to users? To answer, drag the appropriate license types to the correct
departments. Each license type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q3-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q3-2

References: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compare-all-microsoft-365-plans
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/security/office-365-security/automated-investigation-response-office

 

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
An organization is moving to Microsoft Azure and Microsoft 365.
You need to classify the following components:
1.
website hosting
2.
a virtual machine that runs Linux
3.
document storage that uses OneDrive for Business
Match each component to its classification. To answer, drag the appropriate components from the column on the left to
its classifications on the right. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q4-1

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. The company plans to upgrade client operating systems to
Windows 10.
You need to explain the concepts of Windows as a Service (WaaS) to the management team.
Match each term to its definition. To answer, drag the appropriate terms from the column on the left to its definitions on
the right. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q5

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-deployment-rings-windows-10-updates

 

QUESTION 6
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
When you enable external access by using the Microsoft 365 admin portal, data is available to anonymous users.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect,
select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change needed.
B. the Everyone group is applied to all shares with full control
C. you must configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
D. users can send sharing invitations for specific content
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/external-sharing-overview

 

QUESTION 7

DRAG DROP
Your company uses Microsoft 365 with a business support plan.
You need to identify Service Level Agreements (SLAs) from Microsoft for the support plan.
What response can you expect for each event type? To answer, drag the appropriate responses to the correct event
types. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or
scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q7

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/servicedescriptions/office-365-platform-servicedescription/support

 

QUESTION 8
A company that has 50 employees plans to purchase a Microsoft 365 Business subscription.
Which two payment methods are available? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. (Choose two.)
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. PayPal

B. automatic bank transfer
C. Enterprise Agreement
D. credit card or debit card
Correct Answer: BD
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/subscriptions-and-billing/pay-for-yoursubscription?view=o365-worldwide

 

QUESTION 9
You need to identify which Microsoft platforms provide hybrid capabilities for migrating from an on-premises
deployment. Which two platforms provide hybrid capabilities for migration? Each correct answer provides a complete
solution. (Choose two.) NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Microsoft Skype for Business
B. Microsoft Yammer
C. Microsoft Exchange
D. Microsoft Teams
Correct Answer: AC
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/architecture-of-microsoft-hybrid-cloud-scenarios

 

QUESTION 10
You are the network administrator of a company.
The Microsoft 365 tenant contains sensitive information. Employees must verify their identities when they sign into
Microsoft 365 by providing information in addition to their Azure AD password.
You need to select the tools that employees can use to verify their identities.
Which two tools should you select? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Customer Lockbox for Office 365
B. Microsoft Security Center
C. Windows Hello for Business
D. Microsoft Authenticator
Correct Answer: CD
Two-step authentication can be implemented by using Windows Hello for Business or Microsoft Authenticator. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/hello-for-business/hello-manage-inorganization https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/4026727/microsoft-account-how-to-use-the-microsoftauthenticator-app

 

QUESTION 11
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company.
Your company wants to learn more about what happens if the availability terms of the Microsoft Office 365 services are
not met.
Where can you find this information?
A. Service Level agreement
B. Microsoft Services agreement
C. Microsoft Cloud agreement
D. Microsoft Products and Services agreement
E. Microsoft Enterprise agreement
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/servicedescriptions/office-365-platform-servicedescription/service-level-agreement

 

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You are a Microsoft 365 administrator.
You need to implement the appropriate features for each scenario.
What should you implement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 exam questions q12-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/clients-and-mobile-in-exchange-online/outlook-for-ios-andandroid/secure-outlook-for-ios-and-android https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/identityprotection/overview https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pimconfigure

 

QUESTION 13
You deploy Enterprise Mobility + Security E5 and assign Microsoft 365 licenses to all employees.
Employees must not be able to share documents or forward emails that contain sensitive information outside the
company.
You need to enforce the file-sharing restrictions. What should you do?
A. Use Microsoft Azure Information Protection to define a label. Associate the label with an Azure Rights Management template that prevents the sharing of files or emails that are marked with the label.
B. Create a Microsoft SharePoint Online content type named Sensitivity. Apply the content type to other content types in
Microsoft 365. Create a Microsoft Azure Rights Management template that prevents the sharing of any content where
the Sensitivity column value is set to Sensitive.
C. Use Microsoft Azure Information Rights Protection to define a label. Associate the label with an Active Directory
Rights Management template that prevents the sharing of files or emails that are marked with the label.
D. Create a label named Sensitive. Apply a Data Layer Protection policy that notifies users when their document
contains personally identifiable information (PII).
Correct Answer: A 

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Latest Updates CyberArk CAU302 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Access Control to passwords is implemented by ____.
A. Virtual Authorizations
B. Safe Authorizations
C. Master Policy
D. Platform Settings

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Which credentials does CyberArk use when managing a target account?
A. Those of the service account for the CyberArk Password Manager service
B. A Domain Administrator account created for this purpose
C. The credentials of the target account
D. An account assigned by the Master Policy

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

In the vault each password is encrypted with a unique encryption key.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Which file is used to open up a non-standard Firewall port to the Vault?
A. dbparm.ini
B. PARagent.ini
C. passparm.ini
D. Vault.ini

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

The Vault needs to send SNMP traps to your SNMP solution, which file is used to configure the IP address of the SNMP
server?
A. snmp.ini
B. dbparm.ini
C. ENEConf.ini
D. PARAgent.ini

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

The password upload utility must run from the CPM server.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

Which file is used to configure the ENE service?
A. ENE.ini
B. ENEConfig.ini
C. dbparm.ini
D. paragent.ini

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

Which of the following options is not set in the Master Policy?
A. Password Expiration Date
B. Dual Control
C. Password Complexity
D. Require Access Reason

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

The vault supports Subnet Based Access Control.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Multiple PSM Servers can be load balanced.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

Which utilities could you use to change debugging levels on the vault without having to restart the vault?
A. PAR Agent
B. PrivateArk Server Central Administration
C. Edit DBParmi.ini in a text editor.
D. Setup.exe

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

When on-boarding accounts using Accounts Feed, which of the following is true?
A. You must specify an existing Safe where the account will be stored when it is on-boarded to the Vault.
B. You can specify the name of a new safe that will be created where the account will be stored when it is on-boarded to
the Vault.
C. You can specify the name of a new Platform that will be created and associated with the account.
D. Any account that is on-boarded can be automatically reconciled regardless of the platform it is associated with.

Correct Answer: C

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Latest Updates Avaya 7392X Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
What provides built-in real-time and historical reporting capabilities for the call center, including reports for Splits/Skills,
Agents, Vector Directory Numbers (VDNs), and Trunk Groups?
A. Automatic Number Identification (ANI)
B. Basic Call Management System (BCMS)
C. VuStats
D. Service Level Maximizer (SLM)
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
A customer is waiting in the queue, listening to music, and waiting for the call to be routed to an agent.
Which mechanism controls what happens while the customer is waiting in the queue?
A. Agent Stations
B. Vectors
C. Skills
D. Hunt Groups
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
While configuring the Service Observing feature, which three forms should be configured and/or verified? (Choose
three.)
A. System Parameters Customer-Options
B. Class of Restriction
C. VuStats Display
D. Feature-Related System Parameters
E. Class of Service
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 4
Which type of virtual routing allows calls among call centers to achieve improved Automatic Call Distribution (ACD) load-balance by comparing sites?
A. Adjunct Routing
B. Network Call Redirection
C. Network Call Transfer
D. Look-Ahead Interflow
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
A. Entire
B. Personal
C. System
D. Group
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Which statement about concurrent agent user licenses is true?
A. A number of agents that can be registered in more than one Communication Manager simultaneously.
B. A number of agents that can be added to the system.
C. Only the specified number of licensed units can gain access to more than one skill at a time.
D. Only the specified number of licensed units can gain access to and register the agent with the Communication Manager
at any given time.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Agents/supervisors want to have the ability to log in/logout of splits/skills, change their work mode, and perform service
observing.
What is used to facilitate this ability?
A. Dial Access Plans
B. Feature Access Codes (FACs)
C. Skill Assignment
D. Business Advocate (BA)
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8examsdemo 7392x exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit.
You configured vectors in your New York and Denver locations to use Look Ahead Interflow. You want your New York
location to interflow to your Denver location if the Denver split has less than 10 calls in queue. After setting vectors in
the
exhibit you find that calls are interflowing to Denver.
What would cause calls to interflow with Denver?
A. Step 8 in Denver should be a busy command.
B. The route-to number command in step 6 in New York is allowing calls to Interflow to Denver.
C. The wait-time command in step 1 in Denver is considered a call acceptance command and calls to Interflow.
D. The wait-time command in step 3 in Denver is considered a call acceptance command and allowing calls to
Interflow.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Customers need to use the extension 5004 for announcements in a vector but the vector will not save.
To ensure that the resources are configured, what should be done first?
A. Configure an announcement using the extension 5003.
B. Configure a dial plan with a 4-digit extension that begins with 5.
C. Configure a dial plan with a 4-digit feature access code.
D. Record an announcement.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
For a Split Day report, how many days of historical data are shown in the Basic Call Management System (BCMS)?
A. 5
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 7
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 11
A customer is currently using the Communication Manager Automatic Call Distribution (ACD) feature and will be
enabling the Expert Agent Selection (EAS) feature.
With EAS enabled, which software mechanism is used for queuing?
A. Agent IDs
B. VDNs
C. Agent Stations
D. Skills
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Which vector object can replace the Time of Day (TOD) global Vector Variable?
A. Vector Routing Table
B. Business Schedule Table
C. Service Hours Table
D. Policy Routing Table
Correct Answer: C

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Latest Updates Atlassian ACP-600 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Your development team has just released its first version of a GPS tracker yesterday. The next product release is not
due for another 3 months. Which two JQL queries, when executed today, will list all features shipped in the 1.0 version?
(Choose two.)
A. project = GPS AND issuetype Feature AND fixVersion = released()
B. project = GPS AND type = Feature AND fixVersion in (1.0)
C. project = GPS AND issuetype = Feature AND fixVersion(s) IS NOT EMPTY
D. project = GPS AND type = Feature AND fixVersion in releasedVersions()
E. project = GPS AND type = Feature AND fixVersion(s) = “1.0”
F. project = GPS AND issuetype = Feature AND fixVersion in 1.0
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about configuring issue types in a project?
A. Standard and sub-task issue types must always have their own workflows.
B. Epics cannot have sub-tasks in a Jira Software project.
C. There are three levels of issue types in a Jira Software project; Epic, Story, Sub-task.
D. Sub-task issue types can have a different issue of security level than their parent.
E. An issue type scheme can have unlimited sub-task issue types.
F. You can disable the Create Sub-task operation on some standard-issue types.
Correct Answer: F
Reference: https://blog.testlodge.com/how-to-write-test-cases-in-jira/

 

QUESTION 3
A project uses the Simplified Workflow and a Scrum board.
You are the project administrator and the board administrator, but the Extended project administration is disabled.
Which two actions can you perform? (Choose two.)
A. add a status via the workflow editor
B. add a status via the Scrum board
C. set a workflow resolution via the Scrum board
D. set a workflow resolution via the workflow editor
E. add a transition via the workflow editor
F. add a condition via the Scrum board
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 4
Teresa is able to see the Start Progress transition but not the Approve transition on an issue. Her co-worker is able to
see both. Identify two possible causes why Teresa can NOT see the Approve transition. (Choose two.)
A. Teresa is not listed in the correct security level for the issue.
B. Teresa does not have the Transition Issues permission.
C. Teresa is not in the correct group or project role.
D. Teresa does not meet the condition on the Approve transition.
E. Teresa does not have the correct global permission.
F. Teresa does not have the correct application access.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 5
Which two can project administrators associate with project roles? (Choose two.)
A. Security levels
B. Application access
C. Global permissions
D. Groups
E. Individual users
F. Project permissions
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://confluence.atlassian.com/adminjiracloud/managing-project-roles-776636382.html

 

QUESTION 6
Nadav wants to know how accurate estimates were on issues associated with version 2.2. Which report should he use?
A. Time Since Issues Report
B. Resolution Time Report
C. User Workload Report
D. Version Workload Report
E. Time Tracking Report
F. Single Level Group By Report
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
A user approaches you with a problem.
She cannot see or edit the Priority system field on any of the screens of a Process Management project.
What explains the problem?
A. The field does not have the correct configuration context.
B. She is not listed in the priority scheme.
C. The field is hidden in the field configuration.
D. The field is not available for this project template.
E. She does not have the correct permission.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.oasis-open.org/committees/download.php/51095/jira-manual-config.pdf

 

QUESTION 8
In your last team meeting, Scott showed a QA dashboard he has put together. It contains valuable data so he decides to
Share it with the entire project.
When you try to pull up the dashboard for the first time it shows multiple errors instead of the data you expected.
The most common error is: The filter configured for this gadget could not be retrieved. Please verify it is still valid on the
issue navigator.
Scott confirms, that the dashboard seems fine when he looks at it. What is the most likely cause for this behavior?
A. The filters being used in the gadgets return issues that are hidden by a security level.
B. The filters being used in the gadgets have been deleted.
C. The filters being used in the gadgets contain corrupt JQL clauses.
D. The filters being used in the gadgets are private or not shared with you.
E. The filters being used in the gadgets contain field references that have been deleted.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
An extract of a permission scheme is shown below.examsdemo acp-600 exam questions q9

Jennifer Evans needs to be able to:
Manage project role membership Log time to issues What is the minimum number of project roles she needs?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
View the extract of a permission scheme shown below.examsdemo acp-600 exam questions q10

Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Users in the project role Administrators can update components and versions.
B. Users must be in either the Jira-software-users group or the User’s project role to delete issues.
C. All logged-in users can create issues.
D. Users must be in both in the Jira-software-users group and the Users project role to delete issues.
E. Users can edit issues only if they have a valid Jira Core license.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 11
A project has a single issue type named Task to manage Bugs and Feature Requests.
What requirement would result in the need to create an additional issue type to manage Bugs?
A. Different fields should be displayed when creating a Bug based on creator\\’s project role.
B. Different components should be selectable when creating Tasks versus Bugs.
C. Different fields are needed when creating, editing, or viewing Tasks versus Bugs.
D. Different workflow transitions need to be available when Developers move a Bug through the workflow.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
A project uses two issue types named Task and Sub-task which share the workflow shown below.examsdemo acp-600 exam questions q12

What is the maximum number of screens that can be used in the current project configuration?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 8
D. 5
E. 6
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://marketplace.atlassian.com/apps/1214484/issue-type-resolutions-forjira?hosting=serverandtab=overview

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Table of Contents:

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Internal Use -ConfidentialSpecialist-Implementation Engineer, SC SeriesVersion 1.0:https://education.dellemc.com/content/dam/dell-emc/documents/en-us/DES-1721_Specialist_Implementation_Engineer_SC_Series_Exam.pdf

This exam is a qualifying exam for the Specialist-ImplementationEngineer, SC Series track. This exam focuses on the knowledge and activities involved in installing, initializing, configuring and testing the hardware and software of the Dell EMC SC Series Storage products. Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in preparation for the exam.
Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further.

Latest updates EMC DES-1721 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What is a requirement for installing the Dell Storage Manager (DSM) Virtual Appliance?
A. Must be installed on a standalone ESXi Hypervisor
B. Must be installed on a vVols datastore
C. Must be installed on a standalone Hyper-V Hypervisor
D. Must be installed on a standard datastore
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You are about to perform the post-setup tasks with the Storage-Center wizard. What information is required before
proceeding?
A. Customer contact information for the Storage Center
B. Management IPv4 address for the Storage Center
C. Email address for the default administrator
D. NTP server IPv4 address for the Storage Center
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the purpose of the Dell Storage Manager (DSM) Server Agent?
A. Installed on Microsoft Windows servers to replicate data to cloud services
B. Installed on any server OS to easily present and manage mapped volumes
C. Installed on only Linux servers to easily present and manage mapped volumes
D. Installed on only Microsoft Windows servers to easily present and manage mapped volumes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which 64-bit server operating systems are compatible with the Dell Storage Manager (DSM) Client?
A. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6, Windows Server 2012 R2, and Windows Server 2008 R2
B. Windows Server 2008 R2, Windows Server 2012 R2, and Windows 2016
C. Windows Server 2008 R2, Red Hat Enterprise Linux 7, and Windows Server 2012 R2
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6, Windows Server 2016, and Windows Server 2008 R2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
When configuring an SC Series array, why should a 4 MB data page size be selected?
A. When systems have large files with infrequent snapshots
B. This is the default data page size
C. This is an invalid data page size and cannot be selected
D. When applications have high performance needs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You are implementing a front-end connection in Legacy Port Mode on an SC4020 in a SAN with two iSCSI switches.
What is the minimum number of port(s), per switch, that can be used by each controller?
A. One port on each Ethernet switch
B. Two ports on each Ethernet switch
C. Four ports on each Ethernet switch
D. Eight ports on each Ethernet switch
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
When installing an SC Series array, the customer indicated that they want the controller configured to provide the
maximum amount of storage space. You discover that the storage controller was shipped with twelve 900 GB drives and
twelve
1.8 TB drives of the same type.
Which redundancy level can be selected to provide the maximum amount of storage?
A. Put equal size drives in their own pagepool.Change the default redundancy level for the 1.8 TB drives.
B. Put all drives in the same tier.Keep the default redundancy level for both the 900 GB and 1.8 TB drives.
C. Put equal size drives in their own tier.Change the default redundancy level for the 900 GB drives.
D. Put equal size drives in their own pagepool.Keep the default redundancy level for both the 900 GB and 1.8 TB
drives.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
How many SC420 enclosures can be supported by the SC7020 controller?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 6
D. 12
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A customer has a dual controller system, two independent Fibre Channel switches, and six servers all multipathed. How
many zones should be present on each for the SAN to run properly in Virtual Port Mode?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
In an SC Series environment, which Fibre Channel zoning method is more flexible?
A. Port
B. Single Initiator/Multi-Target
C. Single Initiator/Single Target
D. WWN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A customer wants to add an iSCSI path to a Microsoft Windows Server 2012 R1. The server has an existing Fibre
Channel path to an SC7020 array for load balancing and high availability.
Which Windows MPIO policy should be configured to achieve the customer\\’s requirement?
A. Fail Over Only
B. Weighted Paths
C. Round Robin with Subset
D. Round Robin
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which SC Series licenses are applied at the factory?
A. SC4020 and SC7020
B. SC7020 and SCv2000
C. SC8000 and SC9000
D. SCv2000 and SC8000
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
How much memory does the Dell Storage Manager (DSM) Virtual Appliance require to manage seven SC Series
arrays?
A. 2 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 8 GB
D. 16 GB
Correct Answer: D

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