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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Cloud
Exam Name: Implementing and Troubleshooting the Cisco Cloud Infrastructure
Exam Code: 300-460
Total Questions: 107 Q&As

New Cisco CCNP Cloud 300-460 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is changing the boot order in a boot policy. Which option lists the steps that accomplish this task?
A. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Storage.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Manage Boot Order tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Order.
B. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Compute.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Boot Policies tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Devices Order.
C. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Storage.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Boot Policies tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Devices Order.
D. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Compute.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Manage Boot Order tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Order.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is configuring vHBA. Which four fields are needed to configure vHBA? (Choose four.)
A. vHBA Name
B. Adapter Policy
C. Template Type
D. Organizations
E. Description
F. Fabric ID
G. UCS Organization Name
H. UCS Account Name
Correct Answer: ACEF

QUESTION 3
Which three options does the Cisco UCS Manager boot policy determine? (Choose three.)
A. initiator port range
B. selection of the boot device
C. location from which the server boots
D. initiator and target ports
E. global boot device priority
F. order in which boot devices are invoked
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-460 dumps
Which three commands complete the configuration for this Cisco Nexus 1000V port profile that is assigned to a vmkernel used for L3 VSM control plane? (Choose three.)
A. service-policy type qos output vmk-control
B. vmware port-group
C. system vlan 119
D. capability 13control
E. swithchport mode trunk
F. mtu 9000
G. swithchport 12control
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
An administrator is installing a hypervisor and has provisioned a dedicated LAN connectivity, set the boot order, and is now rebooting the server to start installation. 300-460 dumps Which method is the administrator using to install the hypervisor?
A. host image mapping
B. KVM console
C. PXE installation
D. virtual boot
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An architect must choose a VXLAN architecture that utilizes hardware-based VXLAN adapters. Which type of architecture must be selected?
A. Layer 3
B. NSX
C. ACI
D. Layer 2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which three options describe the correct methods to install the Cisco Nexus 1000V VEM (VIB) software module on the VMware ESXi hypervisor? (Choose three.)
A. using the “Add Host to vSphere Distributed Switch” dialog on the vSphere Network tab when Update Manager is installed
B. esxcli software vib install –n/tmp/Cisco_bootbank_cisco-vem –v173-esx_5.2.1.3.1.4.0-3.2.1.vib
C. executing the Deploy-Nexus 1000V-VSEM.ps1 script
D. esxcli software vib install –v/tmp/Cisco_bootbank_cisco-vem –v173-esx_5.2.1.3.1.4.0-3.2.1.vib
E. using the Host Selection dialog box in Cisco Virtual Switch Update Manager
F. creating a baseline group in VMware Update Manager
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 8
An engineer must ensure that all VXLAN and VTEP processes are kept on purpose-built hardware to ensure that all overlay functions are as fast as possible. In which solution is all VXLAN and VTEP decision making moved to the hardware, versus potentially slower software control?
A. Layer 3
B. ACI
C. NSX
D. Layer 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which three statements about server pools are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco USC Director Displays only the managed servers in a server pool, but the size of the pool includes all servers.
B. Servers pools cannot be assigned to a Cisco USC Director group.
C. A given server can belong only to a specific server pool.
D. A server pool contains a set of servers that share the same attributes such as server type, amount of memory, local storage, type of CPU, or local drive configuration.
E. A server pool only includes servers from a specific chassis in the system.
F. If your system implements multitenansy through organizations, you can designate one ore more server pools to be used by a specific organization.
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 10
After implementing VXLAN VTEPs in a VMware NSX deployment, an engineer discovers that the VXLAN tunnel does not appear to function across the physical network. A pair of Cisco Nexus 5596UP Switches onnet the virtual network to the physical network. To permit the VXLAN tunnel to operate correctly, which action must the engineer take?
A. Upgrade Cisco Nexus to version 7.0 code.
B. Establish a dynamic routing protocol between the vSphere virtual router and the Cisco Nexus switches.
C. Remove storm control mechanisms that are blocking the establishment of the VXLAN tunnel.
D. Configure jumbo frame support on the Cisco Nexus switches.
E. Build a GRE tunnel to correctly encapsulate VXLAN between the networks.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is installing a Bare Metal Agent and is in the process of adding an NFS mount point. Which Administration menu option does the administrator choose to add an NFS mount point?
A. Compute Accounts
B. Storage Accounts
C. Physical Accounts
D. Bare Metal Accounts
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An engineer opens a KVM to a Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server and boots off a Windows Server ISO with a virtual mapped drive. The server is not attempting to boot from the ISO.
What must the engineer modify first?
A. boot policy to KVM CD
B. BIOS policy to CD
C. boot policy to CD
D. local disk policy to CD
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which four issues are often detected when validating workflows in Cisco UCS Director? (Choose four.)
A. Task Handler not found
B. missing administrator tasks or input tasks after import or upgrade
C. mapping mismatch
D. version incompatibilities
E. debugging logging information
F. missing optional values for tasks
G. missing task action value
H. missing mandatory values for tasks
Correct Answer: ABCH

QUESTION 14
A Cisco UCSM administrator has been tasked with deploying a new data center. Which two recommendations aid in the ability to associate a service with a server? 300-460 dumps (Choose two.)
A. The host control setting for a QoS policy applies to vNICs only. It has no effect on a vHBA.
B. You can assign only a QoS policy to a vHBA if the priority setting for that policy is set to fc, which represents the Fibre Channel system class.
C. The host control setting for a QoS policy applies to vHBAs only.
D. Power capping is supported for rack servers. If you include a power control policy in a service profile that is associated with a rack-mount server, the policy is implemented.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 15
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is attempting to resolve a workflow validation issue. Which option lists the steps that accomplish this task?
A. On the menu bar, choose Policies > Catalogs.
Click the Activities tab.
Choose the workflow that failed validation.
Click Validate Workflow.
In the Workflow Validation dialog box, double click the description under Resolution.
In the Validation Errors dialog box, view the summary for the issue detected and complete the wizard to resolve the validation error.
B. On the menu bar, choose Policies > Orchestration.
Click the Activities tab.
Choose the workflow that failed validation.
Click Validate Workflow.
In the Workflow Validation dialog box, double click the description under Resolution.
In the Validation Errors dialog box, view the summary for the issue detected and complete the wizard to resolve the validation error.
C. On the menu bar, choose Policies > Orchestration.
Click the Workflows tab.
Choose the workflow that failed validation.
Click Validate Workflow.
In the Workflow Validation dialog box, double click the description under Resolution.
In the Validation Errors dialog box, view the summary for the issue detected and complete the wizard to resolve the validation error.
D. On the menu bar, choose Policies > Catalogs.
Click the Workflows tab.
Choose the workflow that failed validation.
Click Validate Workflow.
In the Workflow Validation dialog box, double click the description under Resolution.
In the Validation Errors dialog box, view the summary for the issue detected and complete the wizard to resolve the validation error.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
An engineer must create Cisco UCS service profiles for a new B-Series ESXi deployment. Which two configuration steps must be performed to isolate live migration traffic within a single Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Install Cisco Nexus 1000V.
B. Enable fabric failover.
C. Create a single vNIC for the vSwitch.
D. Disable fabric failover.
E. Create one vNIC per fabric for the vSwitch.
F. Install VM-FEX.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 17
Which Cisco Nexus 1000V configuration implements VxLAN segment 5001 as unicast and segment 5002 as multicast?
A. bridge-domain bd-5001
segment id 5001
no segment distribution mac
!
Bridge-domain bd-5002
segment id 5002
group 239.1.1.2
B. segment mode multicast
bridge-domain bd-5001
segment id 5001
segment mode unicast-only
!
Bridge-domain bd-5002
segment id 5002
group 239.1.1.2
segment mode multicast
C. segment mode unicast-only
bridge-domain bd-5001
segment id 5001
!
Bridge-domain bd-5002
segment id 5002
group 239.1.1.2
no segment mode unicast-only
D. segment mode unicast-only
bridge-domain bd-5001
segment id 5001
!
Bridge-domain bd-5002
segment id 5002
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
A Cisco USCM administrator is creating a boot policy. Which option lists the steps needed to accomplish this task?
A. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab.
On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Policies.
Right-click Boot Policies and select Create Boot Policy.
B. In the Navigation pane, click the Equipment tab.
Expand Equipment > Rack-Mounts >Servers > Boot Policies.
Right-click Boot Orders and select Create Boot Policy.
C. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab.
On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Policies.
Click Boot Order and the Modify Boot Policy wizard displays.
Click Modify Boot Policy.
D. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab.
On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Policies.
Click Boot Security.
Click Modify Boot Policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is creating a VSAN. Which two types of VSANs are available? (Choose two.)
A. storage cloud
B. storage hybrid
C. SAN cloud
D. SAN
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 20
An engineer has designed a new Cisco UCS Director workflow to create a new Fibre Channel LUN and present it to ESXi hosts. After execution of the workflow, the LUN is not visible to the ESXi hosts. Which two actions must be taken to begin to troubleshoot the failed workflow? (Choose two.)
A. Look for information within vCenter Server under the Events tab for vCenter Server.
B. Look at the information that is produced in the rollback script that is associated with the failed workflow.
C. Look for information within vCenter Server under the Events tab for the applicable ESXi server.
D. Look for information within Cisco UCS Director under the Log tab of the Service Request Details window.
E. Look for information within Cisco UCS Director under the Input/Output tab of the Service Request Details window.
Correct Answer: AD

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Cisco Network Programmability Design and Implementation Specialist
Exam Name: Cisco Network Programmability Design and Implementation Specialist
Exam Code: 300-550
Total Questions: 70 Q&As

New Cisco Network Programmability Design and Implementation Specialist 300-550 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-28)

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-550 dumps
To make this code work properly, which tine of code should you insert at the blank line?
A. r = requests.get(url, headers=header, verify-False)
B. r = requesis.post(url, data:payload, headers:header, verify:False)
C. r = requests.post(url, data=payload, headers=header, verify=False)
D. r = requests(method=’POST’, url, data=payload, headers=header. verify=False)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You want to implement a new feature in a home-grown network automation tool. Because your development team uses the Agile development methodology, which documentation must you create for them, in order to put this feature on the roadmap?
A. ROI analysis
B. case study
C. user story
D. SCIPAB breakdown
E. enhancement request
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two parts are required for a RESTful API call? (Choose two.)
A. resource
B. parameter
C. method
D. query
E. fragment
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
300-550 dumps
Which action effectively secures the controller?
A. Enable HTTP to HTTPS redirect.
B. Require complex passwords.
C. Use NAT on the router before the controller.
D. Blacklist the public WAN.
E. Whitelist the Admins network and block all others.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-550 dumps
A network engineer created a Bash script to automate some network device tasks. What are two potential risks when a network operator runs this script as written? (Choose two.)
A. The script results in network devices losing connectivity.
B. The script executes too slowly.
C. The script configures unintended commands.
D. The script exposes users’ passwords.
E. The script passes configuration data in cleartext.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which tool streamlines the development of network applications?
A. Java Runtime Engine
B. software development kit
C. command-line interface
D. General Public License
E. package management system
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What are two node types in a YANG data model? 300-550 dumps (Choose two.)
A. grouping
B. leaf
C. container
D. module
E. instance
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Where is the node-ui.log stored on the Cisco APIC-EM appliance?
A. in the /var/Iog/grapevine/services/node-ui directory within the container that is running the node-ui instance
B. in the Cassandra database instance that is running within the container that is running the node-ui instance
C. in the /opt/CSCOapicem/logs/node-ui directory within the Cisco APIC-EM appliance root
D. in the /var/log/grapevine/services/node-ui directory within the Cisco APIC-EM appliance root
E. in the Cisco APIC-EM Cassandra database instance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statement is used to associate a submodule and a parent module in a YANG data model?
A. import
B. namespace
C. include
D. belongs-to
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You can use Visore to accomplish which task?
A. Monitor faults and events by using a subscription model.
B. Read object properties and information.
C. Update any properties of an object that are not read-only.
D. Update any properties of an object.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A web service returns a JSON object to your Python script. What is the most logical object in which to store the JSON response?
A. an integer
B. a dictionary
C. a tuple
D. a string
E. a list
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
300-550 dumps
Which Linux command provides output that is similar to the output in the exhibit?
A. cat /etc/hosts
B. tcpdump -a
C. ifconfig -av
D. netstat -an
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What is the main benefit of having an out-of-band management network for an infrastructure controller?
A. Data plane disruption is less likely.
B. It provides separation of the management and data planes.
C. Configuration of the controller is faster and simpler.
D. It is less expensive.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which field in Visore can you use to find a unique instance of a managed object?
A. IcOwn
B. dn
C. class name
D. classld
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which communication mechanism does NETCONF use?
A. SOAP over HTTPS
B. YAML over SSH
C. YAML over HTTPS
D. RPC over SSH
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Management protocols like NETCONF access network elements on well-known ports. Which design practice hardens a network device implementation? 300-550 dumps
A. Specify the source interface for SSH.
B. Limit access to port 830, well-known clients, and SSH VTY.
C. Enable CoPP.
D. Configure ip http secure-server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which two protocols are examples of southbound APIs? (Choose two.)
A. VXLAN-GPE
B. LLDP
C. NETCONF
D. IPFIX
E. SYSLOG
F. OpFlex
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 18
Which two northbound protocols are supported by the Cisco NSO Controller? (Choose two)
A. REST
B. SOAP
C. OpenFlow
D. NETCONF
E. PCEP
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Which statement about shading in ACI is true?
A. Sharding is the technology that is designed to prevent “split-brain” scenarios in ACI.
B. Sharding is the service that presents the API on a Cisco APIC.
C. Sharding is the mechanism for distributing the database and configuration changes on a Cisco APIC cluster.
D. Sharding is the distributed topology that is used in ACI (also referred to as spine-leaf).
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
After completing the OSC setup wizard, the configuration does not get applied. Which two log files should you check to determine the errors that occurred? (Choose two.)
A. /var/log/node_config_state.log
B. /var/log/platform_services.log
C. /var/log/ansible.log
D. /var/log/messages.log
E. /var/log/controller.log
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 21
YANG modeling supports which two comment styles? (Choose two.)
A. A block comment is enclosed within “<–” and “–>”.
B. A single-line comment starts with “#” and ends at the end of the line.
C. A single-line comment starts with “!” and ends at the end of the line.
D. A block comment is enclosed within “/*” and “*/”.
E. A single-line comment starts with “//” and ends at the end of the line.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
How is a service ticket used when constructing a Cisco APIC-EM API request?
A. to identify the service type
B. to identify a service on the controller
C. to determine the request type
D. as a security token
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which statement about NX-API REST is true?
A. Configuration and state information is stored in the MIT.
B. NX-API REST requires a commercial license to enable.
C. Partial commits are supported.
D. Fault objects may be queried, but event objects cannot be queried.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the protocol on the left to its purpose in ACI fabric discovery on the right.
Select and Place:
300-550 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-550 dumps
QUESTION 25
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the HTTP status code number on the left to the corresponding status code name on the right.
Select and Place:
300-550 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-550 dumps
QUESTION 26
DRAG DROP
300-550 dumps Drag and drop the tools on the left to their corresponding functions on the right.
Select and Place:
300-550 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-550 dumps
QUESTION 27
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the network automation protocol on the left to the transport protocol that it supports on the right. Some options are used more than once.
Select and Place:
300-550 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-550 dumps
QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the protocol on the loft to its correct description on the right.
Select and Place:
300-550 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-550 dumps
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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Wireless
Exam Name: Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
Exam Code: 300-365
Total Questions: 61 Q&As

New Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-365 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Refer to Exhibit.
300-365 dumps
What two items need to be supported on the VoWLAN phones in order to take full advantage of this WLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
A. APSD
B. 802.11a
C. 802.11e
D. WMM
E. 802.11r
F. SIFS
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
A network engineer for a college dormitory notices that student devices are filling up the SP-DB and are not allowing the shared wireless printers to be discovered.
Which feature can be used to reserve space in the SP-DB for the printers?
A. mDNS-AP
B. LSS
C. Priority MAC
D. sso
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Refer to Exhibit.
300-365 dumps
300-365 dumps
A wireless client is connecting to FlexAPI which is currently working standalone mode. The AAA authentication process is returning the following AVPs:
Tunnel-Private-Group-ld(81): 15 Tunnel-Medium-Type(65):IEEE-802(6) Tunnel-Type(64): VLAN(13) Which three behaviors will the client experience? (Choose three.)
A. While the AP is in standalone mode the client will be placed in VLAN 15.
B. While the AP is in standalone mode the client will be placed in VLAN 10.
C. When the AP transitions to connected mode the client will be de-authenticated.
D. While the AP is in standalone mode the client will be placed in VLAN 13.
E. When the AP is in connected mode the client will be placed in VLAN 13.
F. When the AP transitions to connected mode the client will remain associated.
G. When the AP is in connected mode the client will be placed in VLAN 15.
H. When the AP is in connected mode the client will be placed in VLAN 10.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 4
Which two options are limitations of using an AP as a workgroup bridge? (Choose two.)
A. Only factory-configured MAPs can support WGB mode.
B. MAPs that are configured in WGB mode do not answer S36 radio measurement requests.
C. A limited subset of Layer 2 security types are supported for wireless clients of a WGB.
D. There is a limit of 20 wired client devices.
E. Multiple VLANs are not supported for wireless clients.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
On which AP radio or radios is Cisco WGB association supported?
A. 2.4 GHz only
B. 2.4 or 5 GHz only
C. 2.4 5 or 4.9 GHz
D. 5 GHz only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A customer requires that an SSID is broadcasted to specific access points that use certain interfaces. Which feature can be used to achieve this goal?
A. mobility groups
B. flex-connect roups
C. interface groups
D. APgroups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
300-365 dumps Which of the following is not a Cisco RF fingerprinting key advantage over Location Tracking?
A. Uses existing LWAPP-enabled Cisco Unified Networking components.
B. Proprietary client hardware or software is required.
C. Better accuracy and precision.
D. Reduced calibration effort.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A customer has implemented several WLANs in an auditorium utilizing a newly dedicated WLC and is experiencing excessive channel utilization regardless of occupancy. Which action reduces channel utilization without removing SSIDs?
A. Disable MCS data rates 0 through 11.
B. Disable MCS data rates used by 40 MHz channels.
C. Disable data rates that use CCK.
D. Disable VHT data rates.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A corporation has a Cisco Unified Wireless Network that has been deployed for voice coverage. The wireless data rates have been tuned to mandatory rates of 18 Mbps and 36 Mbps. Some wireless clients have been experiencing drops streaming multicast video while moving throughout the building. What is the cause of the drop in video?
A. Clients are roaming at lower data rates and are not maintaining 36Mbps connectivity.
B. Clients are not roaming due to coverage. This is causing the multicast data to drop due to the client re-associating often.
C. Clients are connected at 18Mbps; however other clients are connecting at 12Mbps and are causing the multicast video to degrade.
D. Clients are maintaining a 12Mbps rate and cannot receive the stream at 18Mbps.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An engineer used an interface group under the SSID configuration but noticed that a test client is getting an IP assigned in a different VLAN from the DHCP server. Which two options override the interface group configuration on the SSID? (Choose two.)
A. static VLAN on client
B. ACL
C. APgroup
D. static IP on client
E. MAC filtering
F. RFgroup
G. AAA override
Correct Answer: CG

QUESTION 11
A WLAN engineer has been asked to upgrade the software on a MSE 3365 Appliance. The engineer cannot access the system using the root password and the Grub password as the details had never been documented. How should the engineer perform the password recovery?
A. Use a console cable.
B. Contact Cisco TAC and arrange an RMA of the MSE.
C. Boot the MSE using the software installation DVD.
D. The Password can be reset using Prime Infrastructure.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The customer has deployed C7960 phones with clients connected to them. What switch feature could be enabled to distinguish IP voice traffic from client data traffic?
A. VoiceVLAN
B. QoS routing
C. WME
D. WeightedQueuing
E. QBSS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which show command will show whether a WLAN is locally or centrally switched on a Cisco Wireless Lan Controller?
A. show ap config general Cisco_AP
B. show wlan wlan_id
C. show fexconnect summary
D. show fexconnect group detail
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A network engineer is experiencing issues enabling LAG on the WLC. Which four characteristics should be validated to ensure LAG configuration? (Choose four.)
A. All ports participate in the LAG by default when LAG is enabled on the controller
B. Dynamic interfaces and management are moved to port 1
C. Primary and secondary ports are needed for each interface.
D. Multiple untagged interfaces to the same port are not allowed.
E. EtherChannel must be configured for mode “on” on the switch.
F. Only one functional physical port is needed to continue to pass traffic.
G. Multiple LAGs are permitted on the controller.
H. The WLC does not need to be rebooted to enable the LAG configuration.
Correct Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 15
A network engineer is debugging issues with the mDNS gateway. 300-365 dumps Which type of reply should be seen in the Wireshark capture when querying for a mDNS servicein the Bonjour Cache?
A. unicast from Prime Infrastructure
B. unicast from controller
C. multicast from devices
D. multicast from controller
E. unicast from devices
F. multicast from Prime Infrastructure
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
A customer requires that the remote site be able to utilize local servers when the AP is in WAN-down (standalone mode). Which AP mode must be configured on the wireless controller?
A. SE-Connect
B. Monitor
C. Local
D. FlexConnect
E. Sniffer
F. Rogue Detector
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
What are two functions of the RAP in a mesh network? (Choose two.)
A. It provides a wired connection for the wireless mesh APs.
B. It adds capacity and resilience to a mesh area.
C. It creates a centralized management location for the mesh network.
D. It reduces the hop count to the wireless network that is connected to the edge.
E. It routes traffic from the wireless mesh to the wired network.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
What address do PIM routers listen to in order to automatically discover the best RP for each multicast group?
A. 224.0.0.13
B. 224.0.1.39
C. 224.0.0.14
D. 224.0.140
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
A wireless engineer wants to enable optimized roaming for their 5GHz wireless network with these settings: -72dBm RSSI value 25% coverage exception level percentage and a minimum of 50 packets received.
Which two commands achieve these settings? (Choose two.)
A. config advanced 802.11a coverage data fail-percentage 25
B. config advanced 802.11b optimized-roaming enable
C. config advanced 802.11b coverage data rssi-threshold -72
D. config advanced 802.11a optimized-roaming enable
E. config advanced 802.11a coverage data rssi-threshold -72
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 20
An engineer wants to configure WebEx to adjust the precedence and override the QoS profile on the WLAN. Which configuration is needed to complete this task?
A. Change the AVC application WebEx-app-sharing to mark
B. Create an ACL for WebEx.
C. Change the WLAN reserved bandwidth for WebEx.
D. Create an AVC profile for WebEx marked with a lower DSCP value
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which statement about when you configure FlexConnect APs and you want to set up Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming is true?
A. FlexConnect groups are required for Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming to work with FlexConnect access points.
B. APs that are in the same FlexConnect group but associated to different WLCs support Cisco Centralized Key Management.
C. Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming among FlexConnect and non-FlexConnect access points is supported.
D. The FlexConnect access point must be in standalone mode to support Cisco Centralized Key Management.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
A network engineer observes a spike in controller CPU overhead and overall network utilization after enabling multicast on a controller with 500 APs. What feature is necessary to correct the issue?
A. controller IGMP snooping
B. unicast AP Multicast Mode
C. broadcast forwarding
D. multicast AP Multicast Mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
When a Vocera badge performs a broadcast call in a properly configured VoWLAN using WLC v7.0 which two choices indicate how the QoS is marked? (Choose two.)
A. Upstream marked as Best Effort.
B. Upstream marked as ToS CS4.
C. Upstream marked as DSCP EF
D. Downstream marked as DSCP EF
E. Downstream marked as Best Effort.
F. Downstream marked as Silver.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 24
An engineer would like to capture NetFlowdata on PI. Which resource is required to allow this?
A. Cisco MSE as NetFlow exporter
B. Prime Infrastructure 1.0 or later
C. Cisco NAC as NetFlow exporter
D. Cisco ISE as NetFlow exporter
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
What is the best practice for setting the WLC v7.0 use of WLAN QoS settings to support SIP phones on a VoWLAN?
A. Configure SIP with static CAC only with SIP call snooping.
B. Configure SIP with static CAC only without SIP call snooping.
C. Configure SIP with load-based CAC only with SIP call snooping.
D. Configure SIP with load-based CAC only without SIP call snooping.
E. Configure SIP with load-based CAC and TSPEC only with SIP call snooping.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A downstream packet containing a DSCP value arrives at the WLC Ethernet interface from the wired source network. The WLC is configured for QoS WLAN 802.1p mapping. How does the WLC treat the CAPWAP QoS marking when leaving the controller interface for the respective AP and final wireless client destination?
A. No outer CAPWAP or inner QoS tagging is applied.
B. No outer CAPWAP QoS tag is applied but the original DSCP is maintained inside CAPWAP.
C. The outer CAPWAP CoS is marked and capped while the inner DSCP maintains the original marking.
D. The outer CAPWAP DHCP is marked and capped without any inner DSCP value.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
VoWLAN implementation plans for a current mix of existing Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7920G and 7921G to a final migration of Wireless IP Phones 7925G in a single WLAN. 300-365 dumps What would be the most appropriate WLC WLAN configuration to end with Wireless IP Phones 7925G?
A. 7920 Client CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = All; WMM = Disabled
B. 7920 AP CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = All; WMM = Allowed
C. 7920 Client CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = 802.11a only; WMM = Disabled
D. 7920 AP CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = 802.11a only; WMM = Allowed
E. 7920 Client CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = 802.11b/g only; WMM = Disabled
F. 7920 AP CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = 802.11b/g only; WMM = Allowed
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
You are deploying a combination of Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7921G and 7925G at your branch offices in a centralized call processing environment that requires high availability at branch locations. Which three components need to be verified before the wireless IP phones can be deployed? (Choose three.)
A. Sufficient SRST license support at each branch location
B. Support for local voice mail
C. Branch gateways support MoH
D. Properly configured QoS over the IP WAN links
E. Support for single number reach
F. Support for E.164 dialing
G. Sufficient IP phone licenses in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster
Correct Answer: ADG

QUESTION 29
You have a VoWLAN configured for platinum QoS WMM and CAC. IP phones for this VoWLAN include the Nokia and Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7920G (pre-v2.0 firmware) 7921G and 7925G. The Wireless IP Phones 7921G and 7925G work properly but the Nokia and the Wireless IP Phones 7920G associate with the WLAN but cannot place calls. What is the issue?
A. The lowest mandatory speed in the WLAN is too high and needs to be reduced.
B. The Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7920G and Nokia IP phones do not support TSPEC
C. EDCA needs to be enabled on the WLAN.
D. HCCA needs to be enabled on the WLAN.
E. The reserved roaming bandwidth setting is set too low.
F. The expedited bandwidth setting needs to be enabled.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
DRAG DROP
Drag the QoS values from the lef and drop them in the correct descending order of priority on the right.
Select and Place:
300-365 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-365 dumps
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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCIE
Exam Name: CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0)
Exam Code: 400-251
Total Questions: 385 Q&As

New Cisco CCIE 400-251 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Drag and drop the protocols on the left onto their descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the desktop-security terms from the left onto their right definitions on the right?
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Drag each OSPF security feature on the left to its description on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Drag each step in the configuration of a cisco ASA NSEL export to a NETFLOW collector on the left into the correct order of operations on the right?
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Drag each IPsec term on the left to the definition on the right?
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Drag each Management Frame Protection feature on the Left to the function it performs on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop step in the flow of packets on a DMVPN network using GDOI on the left into the correct sequence on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Drag each attack type on the left to the matching attack category on the right. 400-251 dumps
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
Drag each field in authentication header on the left into the order in which it appears in the header on the right?
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Drag each MACsec term on the left to the right matching statement on the right?
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Drag each IPv6 extension header on the left into the recommended order for more than one extension header In the same IPv6 packet on the right?
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Drag each step in the SCEP workflow on the left into the correct order of operations on the right?
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Drag each ESP header field on the left into corresponding field -length category on the right?
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP
Drag each IP transmission and fragmentation term on the left to the matching statement on the right?
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP
Drag and Drop each Cisco Intrusion Prevention System anomaly detection event action on the left onto the matching description on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 16
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop ESP header field on the left to the appropriate field length on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 17
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each RADIUS packet field on the left onto the matching description on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 18
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each step in the SCEP process on the left into the correct order of operations on the right.
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 19
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each syslog facility code on the left onto its description on the right. 400-251 dumps
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
QUESTION 20
Drag each component of an Adaptive Wireless IPS deployment on the left to the matching description on the right
Select and Place:
400-251 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-251 dumps
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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCIE Service Provider
Exam Name: CCIE Service Provider Written Exam Version 4.1
Exam Code: 400-201
Total Questions: 711 Q&As

New Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which option is the Cisco cloud management platform that is designed for enterprise and public sector IT organizations to help build private and hybrid clouds?
A. Cisco Cloud Orchestrator
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Intercloud Fabric
D. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
400-201 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. An MPLS VPN service was provisioned for customer ABC both sites must be communication to each other primarily over the wan link with no traffic over the wan circuits PE1 has the same configuration as PE2 which two commands can be configure on the PEs to accomplish the desired goal?(Choose two)
A. Under sub interface IP VRF SITEMAP SoO with the same SoO value.
B. no neighbor <CE-IP address> AS-override.
C. Neighbor<CE-IP address> route-map SoO in with the same SoO value.
D. Neighbor<CE-IP address> route-map SoO in with a different SoO value.
E. Neighbor<CE-IP address> route-map SoOout with the same SoO value.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
400-201 dumps
Refer to the exhibit Customer ABC is peering with two service providers for internet access. In order to prevent the AS 100 from becoming a transit AS between ISP_1 and ISP_2. Which BGP configuration must be applied to achieve this goal?
A. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
B. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
C. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
D. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
match as-path 1 match as-path 1
router bgp 100 router bgp 100
neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
E. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100 neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A network operation engineer has these requirement:
*prevent multicast transit when it is enforced by unicast stub routing.
*Reduce the overall processing of PIM control traffic. Especially when the number of stub links increases on the stub device.
*protect against multicast spoofing of PM designated router messages and PIM assert messages.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. explicit tracking of receivers.
B. multicast stub routing.
C. Source Specific Multicast.
D. PIM allow RP.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which option is the benefit of per-link LFA over per-prefix LFA?
A. It has a greater applicability
B. It provides greater protection coverage
C. It is simpler
D. It enables better bandwidth utilization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which standard provides insurance that the new hardware rollout plan meets certain environment design guidelines before deployment?
A. NAS
B. eTOM
C. NEBS
D. ITIL
E. COBIT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
ISP A provides L2VPN services to Company B through an MPLS network. Company B uses all available CoS values to classify and different traffic forwarding within all Company B sites. 400-201 dumps ISP A uses the following CoS values to differentiate service classes for the VPN customer traffic
*MPLS EXP 0 for Bronze service class
*MPLS EXP 1 for Silver service class
*MPLS EXP 2 for Gold service class
*Remaining MPLS EXP values for ISP A internal use
ISP A’s policy is to forward VPN customer traffic based only on their Bronze, silver and Gold service classes. Which QoS method must ISP A implement to achieve this?
A. Short-pipe Mode
B. Russian Doll Model
C. Pipe Mode
D. Uniform Mode
E. Maximum Allocation Model
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two options are characteristics of MoFRR? ( Choose two)
A. Uses additional PIM join toward source
B. Based on multicast forward error correction feature
C. Based on PIM Fast Route
D. Requires MPLS TE FRR enabled with link protection and node protection
E. Utilizes two equal-cost paths toward source
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
Which routing table is used by PEs and ASBRs to store all VPN routes that need to be exchanged in an Inter-AS L3VPN option B scenario?
A. IGP table
B. VRF routing table
C. Global routing table
D. BGP table
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
In the MC-LAG environment, which two statements about clustering HA are true?
A. Public connection is used to access the active node of cluster from the outside cluster
B. Private connection is used to connect the nodes of the cluster for private communication
C. Private connection is used to access the active node of cluster from the outside cluster
D. Public connection is used to connect the nodes of cluster for private communication
E. Public connection is used to monitor the health and status of each node in the HA cluster using the heartbeat system
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
400-201 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. After the BGP TCP negotiation between Router A and Router B, what will be the value of the keep alive timer and the hold-down timer, respectively?
A. 3 seconds and 9 seconds
B. 60 seconds and 180 seconds
C. 10 seconds and 9 seconds
D. no value, because BGP negotiation will not be successful
E. 10 seconds and 10 seconds
F. 10 seconds and 30 seconds
G. 3 seconds and 30 seconds
H. 3 seconds and 10 seconds
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which are two benefits of using segment routing over RSVP-TE for traffic engineering? (Choose two)
A. Segment routing traffic engineering tunnels always follow the low-latency path
B. ECMP-aware traffic engineering is natively supported by segment routing
C. Per-flow state is present only at the ingress node to the Segment routing-enabled network
D. Per-flow state is present at the ingress and egress node to the segment routing-enabled network
E. Per-flow state is maintained on all nodes of the segment routing-enabled network
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Which three PIM modes require RP? (Choose three)
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM with mLDP
D. PIM-SSM
E. PIM anycast
F. PIM-BIDIR
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 14
Which option is the benefit of per-link LFA over per-prefix LFA?
A. It has a greater applicability
B. It provides greater protection coverage
C. It is simpler
D. It enables better bandwidth utilization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
In which two ways does the BGP graceful restart capability preserve prefix information during a restart? (Choose two.)
A. The peer router sends an end -of RIB message to the restarting router
B. The peer router immediately removes the BGP routes that it learned from the restarting router from its BGP routing table
C. The restarting router waits to receive updates from the neighboring routers.
D. The restarting router does not remove any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries exTs.
E. The restarting router removes any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 16
What is the port number of an IPsec Encapsulating Security Payload packet? (ESP)
A. IP protocol 51
B. UDP port 50
C. Ip protocol 50
D. TCP Port 50
E. UDP port 51
F. TCP port 51
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that than connect them to each other. An engineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. the mpls ldp neighbor targeted command
B. the mpls ip command on a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel
C. the mpls ldp autoconfig command
D. the mpls ldp session protection command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
A network engineer has a requirement to configure IP flow exporting using standard protocols on a cisco IOS XE device. Which configuration achieves this goal?
A. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
export-protocol version 9
transport udp 90
B. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
source Loopback 0
transport udp 90
C. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
source Loopback 0
transport udp 90
version ipfix
D. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
export-protocol ipfix
transport udp 90
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
A customer has a requirements record voice calls for IPT connected on switch A using VLAN 200.Record traffic should be forwarded to the IPCC recording server, which is connected on switch B, voice recording is not working. Assuming that RSPAN source monitoring is properly set, which action fixes this problem?
A. On switch B, the monitor session 1 destination remote command must be applied
B. On switch B, the port connects to the recording server must have an IP address and be accessible via VLAN 200
C. On switch B, the port that connects to the reording server must be accessed on VLAN
D. On switch A and switch B, the remote-span command must be configured on the mirroring dedicated VLAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
A service provider engineering team must design a solution that supports end-to-end LSPS for multiple IGP domains within different AS numbers. 400-201 dumps According to RFC 3107, which solution achieves this goal?
A. LDP and BGP
B. BGP and Send-label
C. RSVP and IS-IS or OSPF
D. RSVP and BGP
E. mLDP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
A service provider is implementing an nV Edge system with the two ASR 9000 chassis has two RSPs. Which two cabling methods reflect the minimum configuration needed for full synchronization between the two Cisco ASR 9000 chassis? (Choose two)
A. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two RSPs between the two chassis via Layer 2 connections
B. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the EOBC 10 Gbps ports of the RSPs
C. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the ports of the line cards
D. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the 10 Gbps ports of the line cards
E. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 1 connections using the10 Gbps ports of the line cards
F. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two chassis via 100 Gbps bundle interfaces
G. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 1 connections using the EOBC 10 Gbps ports of the RSPs
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 22
A service provider offers four classes of service for MPLS VPN customer with the following IPP/EXP values
A. voice=5
ii. video=4
iii. priority-data =3
iv. best-effort data=0
The service provider also supports multicast VPN services in the priority data and best- effort classes.
Multicast VPN is implemented as a draft-rosen profile. On a P router, in the MPLS core, the ingress.
QoS policy-map must classify all incoming packets, so that different classes of traffic can be properly handled in fabric queues and egress queues. All types of packets in the core network must be covered’ Which ingress classification offers the optimal performance and provides the minimum number of actions that match the service provider QoS requirements?
B. class-map match-any VOICE
match mpls experiment topmost 5
class-map match-any VIDEO
match mpls experiment topmost 4
class-map match-any CONTROL
match mpls experiment topmost 6
class-map match-any PRIORITY
match mpls experimental topmost 3
!
policy-map INGRESS
class VOICE
set qos-group 5
class VIDEO
set qos-group 4
class CONTROL
set qos-group 6
class PRIORITY
set qos-group 3
class class-default
C. class-map match-any VOICE
match mpls experiment topmost 5
class-map match-any VIDEO
match mpls experiment topmost 4
class-map match-any CONTROL
match mpls experiment topmost 6 7
match ip precedence ipv4 internet network
class-map match-any PRIORITY
match mpls experimental topmost 3
match ip precedence ipv4 flash
!
policy-map INGRESS
class VOICE
set qos-group 5
class VIDEO
set qos-group 4
class CONTROL
set qos-group 6
class PRIORITY
set qos-group 3
class class-default
D. class-map match-any VOICE
match mpls experiment topmost 5
match ip precedence ipv4 critical
class-map match-any VIDEO
match mpls experiment topmost 4
match ip precedence ipv4 flash-override
class-map match-any PRIORITY
match mpls experimental topmost 3
match ip precedence ipv4 flash
!
policy-map INGRESS
class VOICE
set qos-group 5
class VIDEO
set qos-group 4
class PRIORITY
set qos-group 3
class class-default
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
An engineer deploys a new Cisco IOS XR router and connects a Gigbit Ethernet port to an existing Cisco Catalyst 3650 Series Switch. The engineer uses known good optics and fiber, but the link has not come up and it is stuck in the down/down state.
What is the root cause of this issue?
A. Cisco IOS XR devices must use copper connections to Catalyst 3650 Series Switches
B. UDLD must be enabled on the Catalyst 3650 Series switch
C. CDP is not enabled on the Cisco IOS XR device
D. Auto negation must be disabled on the Catalyst 3650 Series Switch
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
In a multihop BFD scenario, which two options create a multihop template and associate it with maps of destinations and associated timers? (Choose two)
A. Fallover BFD
B. BFD echo
C. BFD map
D. BFD template
E. BFD version 2
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 25
400-201 dumps
Refer to the exhibit PIM sparse mode is implemented in the network RPF succeeds under which condition?
A. The RPF check succeeds for the highest DR priority for the PIM router
B. The RPF check succeeds for both PIM neighbors, and traffic load-balances across both neighbors
C. The RPF check succeeds for the next hop whose router ID is the highest
D. The RPF check succeeds for the highest interface IP address for the PIM router
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
An engineer is connecting a new 10-Gbps Ethernet link. Which type of transceiver must the Engineer purchase that is the current industry standard?
A. GBIC
B. XFP
C. X2
D. SFP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
400-201 dumps
Refer to the exhibit what is the status of the L2 tunnel between PE1,PE2 and the layer 2 switches ?
A. The layer 2 tunnel is down due to the ACL is applied on the PE2 interface
B. The layer 2 tunnel is up and SW1 become the root bridge for VLAN 10
C. The layer 2 tunnel is down due to the MTU mismatch between SW1 and SW2
D. The layer 2 tunnel is up but no BPDUs are exchange unless an extra configuration is applied
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Service providers that implement MPLS Inter-AS Option B must ensure that the ASBRs between each provider learn all VPNv4 routers from both providers. How can this requirements be accomplished?
A. Ensure that each ASBR is configured for all VRFs from within its own provider backbone
B. Configure each ASBR to retain route targets for all VPNv-4 learned routes
C. Configure the VRFs form the connecting provider in order to learn route targets on each ASBR
D. Ensure that LDP is conjured between each ASBR for label exchange on all VRFs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
IPv6 multicast is enabled in a VPLS domain. An operations engineer must reduce the multicast flooding in this VPLS domain. Which feature constrains IPv6 traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 ports dynamically to forward IPv6 multicast traffic only to those ports that want to receive it?
A. IGMP snooping
B. MLD snooping
C. MLD querier
D. IGMP version 3
E. MLD version 2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
In the Dual Stack lite solution, what is the function of the B4 component?
A. It acts as an endpoint for the IPv6 in IPv4 encapsulation and forwarding
B. It decapsulates the tunneled IPV4 packets, translate the network address, and routes to the IPv4 network
C. It encapsulates the customer IPv4 packets using IPv6 tunnel and second to the AFTR
D. It reverses network address translated of the eipv4 packets coming from the internet and it sends the resultant IPv4 packets to AFTR
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCIE
Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam
Exam Code: 400-151
Total Questions: 491 Q&As

New Cisco CCIE 400-151 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Drag and drop the feature form the left onto the correct benefits on the right.
Select and Place:
400-151 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 2
Drag and drop the spanning-tree port from the left onto the correct description on the right
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 3
Drag and drop the objects of the ACI policy model from left onto the correct definition on right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 4
Drag and drop the feature from the left onto the left onto the correct description on the right
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 5
Drag and drop me concept of Cisco UCS Director orchestrator from the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:
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400-151 dumps
QUESTION 6
400-151 dumps Drag and drop terms at the Cisco Prime Service Catalog from the left onto the definition on the right.
Select and Place:
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400-151 dumps
QUESTION 7
Drag and drop the method from the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 8
An admin is updating an existing Cisco UCS environment to accommodate a new storage array that will be directly attached to the Cisco UCS.
Unmanaged servers external to the Cisco UCS fabric interconnects will also access the new array existing Cisco UCS service profiles will be used to access the new storage array.
Drag and drop the appropriate steps from left into the correct order on the right to migrate the Cisco UCS to support the new storage array.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 9
Drag and drop the correct port security configuration on the left to the correct action on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 10
Drag and drop the mode of operation on left onto the correct definition on right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 11
Drag and drop feature on the left onto the appropriate business benefits on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 12
Drag and drop the actions in the left column into the right column in the order in which you would perform those actions in a step-by-step in-service software upgrade process.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 13
Drag and drop two configurations that should fail without data loss from the left column into the 2 Devices Lost column on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 14
Drag and drop the correct description on the left onto the protocols and features on the right. Not all options will be used.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 15
Drag and drop sequence of the steps on left for ISSU software of dual supervisor switches to achieve a non-disruptive upgrade on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 16
Drag and drop the vPC feature on the left onto the correct description on the right. 400-151 dumps
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 17
Drag and drop the feature form the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 18
Drag and drop the enlisted four offers from the left onto the correct Cisco ONE Enterprise Cloud Suite on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 19
Drag and drop components of policy drive Layer 4 – Layer 7 services in an ACI environment from left onto the correct definitions on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 20
Drag and drop the term about BFD session parameters from the left onto the correct defination on the right?
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: A+
Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam
Exam Code: 220-902
Total Questions: 1280 Q&As

New CompTIA A+ 220-902 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
A user regularly calls and states that they have a computer with possibly corrupt system files and wants to know how to repair them. Which of the following utilities would resolve the problem?
A. ASR
B. FIXMBR
C. SFC
D. MSCONFIG
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Joe, a technician, recently built a new gaming PC for Ann, a customer, with two hard drives configured in RAID 0. Ann calls and states she was playing a game online and the computer shut off. Now the computer will not boot. Which of the following is a cost effective way to correct the issue?
A. Remove both drives from the RAID array
B. Reformat both drives and reload windows
C. Replace both of the drives and load windows
D. Replace one of the drives and rebuild the array
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A user is having difficulty installing a program in Windows Vista, as the computer appears to stall prior to the installation. Which of the following is the BEST choice of why this is occurring?
A. Aero Settings are not enabled.
B. Power Settings need to be enabled.
C. BitLocker is scanning for corrupt software.
D. UAC is waiting for user input.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A technician is trying to remove a resilient computer virus. The virus keeps coming back after rebooting the system because some program or service has locked some of the virus’ files and is preventing the AV from cleaning the system.
Which of the following is the BEST approach to try and remove the virus while minimizing negative impact to the system?
A. Use REGSRV32 to deregister the virus DLLs.
B. Run the antivirus after rebooting in safe mode.
C. Use the repair disk and follow the prompts.
D. Use the recovery console to disable all windows services.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A SOHO has had several issues with various unauthorized devices consuming the network’s bandwidth. There are only four network devices that are authorized to access the Internet as well as the local LAN’s resources. 220-902 dumps Which of the following security implementations would MOST likely help disable network access to the unauthorized devices?
A. Using complex passwords
B. Disabling the use of static IP addresses
C. Disabling ports
D. MAC filtering
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A technician is troubleshooting a reported wireless connectivity problem with a user’s laptop. The 802.11a access point is located in one of the corners of a square office with 100 meter walls, while the user’s office is on the opposite corner.
The user’s laptop is able to wirelessly pair with a printer located in the middle of the office and the user can print in ad hoc mode. Which of the following is the reason the user is unable to connect to the Internet?
A. 802.11a only supports ad hoc mode.
B. The laptop NIC is faulty.
C. RF signal is not received from the WAP.
D. The printer is not connected to the WAP.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A technician is installing a new operating system. The company policy requires that the file system used must support filepermissions and security. Which of the following should the technician use to BEST meet the company needs?
A. NTFS
B. CDFS
C. FAT32
D. UDF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are encrypted protocols? (Select TWO).
A. TELNET
B. SSH
C. POP3
D. FTP
E. HTTPS
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
Which of the following can be used to help recover a lost smartphone?
A. Remote support software
B. Locator application
C. NFC enabled device
D. GPS navigation software
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
An employee recently departed under bad terms, and the client is concerned for their SOHO network security. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Physically secure the access point
B. Change default password
C. Lower the transmission power
D. Assign static IP addresses
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A technician is tasked with resolving a display issue with a laptop. The technician has determined that the laptop’s display needs to be replaced. Which of the following is the NEXT step the technician should perform?
A. Identify the problem that caused the display to fail.
B. Establish a theory of the probable cause.
C. Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures.
D. Establish an action plan to resolve the problem.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An administrator, Ann, wants to be able to access a customer’s router interface from a remote location. Ann always has to have the customer print out the current router settings before she can remotely manage the router. 220-902 dumps Which of the following should Ann do to eliminate this extra step before connecting to the router remotely?
A. Change the default user name and password
B. Request a static IP from the ISP
C. Enable the remote management port
D. Enable port forwarding on the router
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A SOHO location is being remodeled and the users are concerned about unauthorized traffic on their network during the remodel. The WLAN needs to be able to allow various types of devices to securely connect 24 hours a day while requiring the least amount of overhead to manage. Which of the following security implementations would MOST likely be implemented?
A. Setting encryption
B. Resetting all user-names and passwords
C. Assign static IP addresses
D. Enable MAC filtering
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A user recently installed an application. Upon the next reboot, the system is displaying various errors relating to the system files and certain actions e.g. right-clicking no longer works. The user does not have time to reimage the computer, nor do they wish to remove and reinstall the application. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Open up the command prompt and type SFC /SCANNOW
B. Open Task Manager and stop all running SERVICES processes
C. Open up MSCONFIG and remove the application from the start-up tab
D. Open a command prompt and type REGSVR32 SYSMAIN.DLL ?U
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
A user on a domain PC needs to leave their desk immediately, but does not want to compromise displayed content. Which of the following should be done?
A. Screensaver password
B. Restart PC
C. Lock screen
D. Reset user password
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A user calls the corporate helpdesk stating that their battery is not charging. The operating system shows that there is a problem with the battery. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to determine what the issue is without erasing the user’s unsaved data?
A. Using a known-good computer of the same type, switch batteries between the two laptops.
B. Remove the A/C adapter while the system is running and observe if the screen dims.
C. Completely shut down the laptop, remove the A/C power source and restart the laptop.
D. Using a known-good computer of the same type, switch A/C adapters between the two laptops.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Joe, a client, wants to allow only specific portable devices to connect to his wireless network. Which of the following methods would BEST accomplish this?
A. Disabling SSID broadcast
B. MAC filtering
C. Lower radio power levels
D. Directional antennas
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
A server is configured to boot with a “mirrored” RAID configuration. Which of the following BEST describes this configuration?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which of the following methods of securing mobile devices will prevent data loss due to corruption?
A. Enforce pass code locks
B. Install location monitoring application
C. Perform remote wipe after failed login
D. Perform remote application back-up
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
A user’s computer consistently shuts down several minutes after booting. When the technician reboots the computer, a message stating “CPU fan failure” appears. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the computer shuts down?
A. Overheating
B. Power supply failure
C. Faulty CPU
D. High humidity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which of the following resources is MOST important for a network server running a virtual machine and guest operating systems?
A. Redundant power supplies
B. Memory speed
C. RAID type used
D. Multi-core CPU
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
A user calls the helpdesk to report that print jobs coming from a laser printer in the office are losing most of their toner due to being touched by hand smudge. The printer was recently serviced with a new fuser unit. Which of the following problems is MOST likely affecting the printer?
A. The fuser is not heating up to proper temperature levels necessary.
B. The pickup rollers are likely dirty and leaving paper dust on all printed pages.
C. The printer’s firmware was not updated with the installation of the new fuser.
D. The fuser was installed backwards and is not evenly heating printed pages.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A user states that they see a warning on their screen about an IP conflict. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A. A static IP address is assigned to the workstation
B. A bad router
C. A bad switch
D. The computer is getting an APIPA address
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
An administrator has advised against providing any information over the phone as a way to prevent against which of the following threats? 220-902 dumps
A. Session hijacking
B. Social engineering
C. Man-in-the-middle
D. Shoulder surfing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Following an authorized person through a door or other security check point without showing proper identification or defeating a security mechanism is known as which of the following?
A. Hacking
B. Emulating
C. Partitioning
D. Tailgating
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is the MAIN difference between a rootkit and a virus?
A. Rootkits encrypt the operating system while viruses encrypt documents
B. Rootkits execute as super user while viruses execute as regular users
C. Rootkits modify the BIOS while viruses cannot access the BIOS
D. Rootkits infiltrate the kernel while viruses infiltrate files
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which of the following provides Bob, a technician, with the GREATEST security?
A. Disabling SSID
B. WEP
C. Static IP
D. WPA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
A laptop’s number lock and scroll lock lights are blinking in a certain sequence and is not booting. Which of the following would a technician do FIRST in this situation?
A. Install a replacement memory module.
B. Consult the manufacturer website for diagnostic codes.
C. Attempt to boot into safe mode.
D. Install a replacement hard drive.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is the correct socket type for a Pentium 4 processor?
A. 478
B. 939
C. 1366
D. AM2+
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
A technician is using a test tool that is displaying the current voltage output of a power supply on the tool. Which of the following tools is the technician using?
A. Loopback plug
B. Cable tester
C. POST card
D. Multimeter
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: Security+
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
Exam Code: SY0-401
Total Questions: 1776 Q&As

New CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Ann, a security administrator, is strengthening the security controls of the company’s campus. Her goal is to prevent people from accessing open locations that are not supervised, such as around the receiving dock. She is also concerned that employees are using these entry points as a way of bypassing the security guard at the main entrance. Which of the following should Ann recommend that would BEST address her concerns?
A. Increase the lighting surrounding every building on campus
B. Build fences around campus with gate entrances
C. Install cameras to monitor the unsupervised areas
D. Construct bollards to prevent vehicle entry in non-supervised areas
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Mobile tablets are used by employees on the sales floor to access customer data. Ann a customer recently reported that another customer was able to access her personal information on the tablet after the employee left the area. Which of the following would BEST prevent these issues from reoccurring?
A. Screen Locks
B. Full-device encryption
C. Application control
D. Asset tracking
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A member of a digital forensics team, Joe arrives at a crime scene and is preparing to collect system data.
Before powering the system off, Joe knows that he must collect the most volatile date first. Which of the following is the correct order in which Joe should collect the data?
A. CPU cache, paging/swap files, RAM, remote logging data
B. RAM, CPU cache. Remote logging data, paging/swap files
C. Paging/swap files, CPU cache, RAM, remote logging data
D. CPU cache, RAM, paging/swap files, remote logging data
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A new employee has been hired to perform system administration duties across a large enterprise comprised of multiple separate security domains. Each remote location implements a separate security domain. The new employee has successfully responded to and fixed computer issues for the main office.
When the new employee tries to perform work on remote computers, the following messages appears.
You need permission to perform this action. Which of the following can be implemented to provide system administrators with the ability to perform administrative tasks on remote computers using their uniquely assigned account?
A. Implement transitive trust across security domains
B. Enable the trusted OS feature across all enterprise computers
C. Install and configure the appropriate CA certificate on all domain controllers
D. Verify that system administrators are in the domain administrator group in the main office
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
An administrator wants to provide onboard hardware based cryptographic processing and secure key storage for full-disk encryption. Which of the following should the administrator use to fulfil therequirements?
A. AES
B. TPM
C. FDE
D. PAM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Users in an organization are experiencing when attempting to access certain websites. The users report that when they type in a legitimate URL, different boxes appear on the screen, making it difficult to access the legitimate sites. Which of the following would best mitigate this issue?
A. Pop-up blockers
B. URL filtering
C. Antivirus
D. Anti-spam
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A security engineer is faced with competing requirements from the networking group and database administrators. The database administrators would like ten application servers on the same subnet for ease of administration, whereas the networking group would like to segment all applications from one another. SY0-401 dumps Which of the following should the security administrator do to rectify this issue?
A. Recommend performing a security assessment on each application, and only segment the applications with the most vulnerability
B. Recommend classifying each application into like security groups and segmenting the groups from one another
C. Recommend segmenting each application, as it is the most secure approach
D. Recommend that only applications with minimal security features should be segmented to protect them
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an attack designed to activate based on date?
A. Logic bomb
B. Backdoor
C. Trojan
D. Rootkit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A security administrator has concerns that employees are installing unapproved applications on their company provide smartphones. Which of the following would BEST mitigate this?
A. Implement remote wiping user acceptance policies
B. Disable removable storage capabilities
C. Implement an application whitelist
D. Disable the built-in web browsers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is a proprietary protocol commonly used for router authentication across an enterprise?
A. SAML
B. TACACS
C. LDAP
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
After a new RADIUS server is added to the network, an employee is unable to connect to the company’s WPA2-Enterprise WIFI network, which is configured to prompt for the employee’s network username and password. The employee reports receiving an error message after a brief connection attempt, but is never prompted for credentials. Which of the following issues could be causing the problem?
A. The employee’s account is locked out in the directory service
B. The new RADIUS server is overloading the wireless access point
C. The new RADIUS server’s certificate is not trusted by the employee’s PC
D. The employee’s account is disabled in the RADIUS server’s local database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A security analyst has been asked to perform a review of an organization’s software development lifecycle.
The analyst reports that the lifecycle does not contain a phase in which team members evaluate and provide critical feedback of another developer’s code. Which of the following assessment techniques is BEST described in the analyst’s report?
A. Architecture evaluation
B. Baseline reporting
C. Whitebox testing
D. Peer review
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
The helpdesk is receiving numerous reports that a newly installed biometric reader at the entrance of the data center has a high of false negatives. Which of the following is the consequence of this reported problem?
A. Unauthorized employees have access to sensitive systems
B. All employees will have access to sensitive systems
C. No employees will be able to access the datacenter
D. Authorized employees cannot access sensitive systems
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Joe, a security technician, is configuring two new firewalls through the web on each. Each time Joe connects, there is a warning message in the browser window about the certificate being untrusted. Which of the following will allow Joe to configure a certificate for the firewall so that firewall administrators are able to connect both firewalls without experiencing the warning message?
A. Apply a permanent override to the certificate warning in the browser
B. Apply a wildcard certificate obtained from the company’s certificate authority
C. Apply a self-signed certificate generated by each of the firewalls
D. Apply a single certificate obtained from a public certificate authority
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Joe a computer forensic technician responds to an active compromise of a database server. Joe first collects information in memory, then collects network traffic and finally conducts an image of the hard drive. Which of the following procedures did Joe follow?
A. Order of volatility
B. Chain of custody
C. Recovery procedure
D. Incident isolation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
A company has a BYOD policy that includes tablets and smart phones. In the case of a legal investigation, which of the following poses the greatest security issues? SY0-401 dumps
A. Recovering sensitive documents from a device if the owner is unable or unwilling to cooperate
B. Making a copy of all of the files on the device and hashing them after the owner has provided the PIN
C. Using GPS services to locate the device owner suspected in the investigation
D. Wiping the device from a remote location should it be identified as a risk in the investigation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
The IT department needs to prevent users from installing untested applications. Which of the following would provide the BEST solution?
A. Job rotation
B. Least privilege
C. Account lockout
D. Antivirus
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
An administrator uses a server with a trusted OS and is configuring an application to go into production tomorrow, In order to make a new application work properly, the administrator creates a new policy that labels the application and assigns it a security context within the trusted OS. Which of the following control methods is the administrator using by configuring this policy?
A. Time based access control
B. Mandatory access control
C. Role based access control
D. Rule based access control
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
A security administrator suspects that an employee in the IT department is utilizing a reverse proxy to bypass the company’s content filter and browse unapproved and non-work related sites while at work.
Which of the following tools could BEST be used to determine how the employee is connecting to the reverse proxy?
A. Port scanner
B. Vulnerability scanner
C. Honeypot
D. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Joe notices there are several user accounts on the local network generating spam with embedded malicious code. Which of the following technical control should Joe put in place to BEST reduce these incidents?
A. Account lockout
B. Group Based Privileges
C. Least privilege
D. Password complexity
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cyber Ops
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
Exam Code: 210-255
Total Questions: 80 Q&As

Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
210-255 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of log is this an example of?
A. syslog
B. NetFlow log
C. proxy log
D. IDS log
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which option creates a display filter on Wireshark on a host IP address or name?
A. ip.address == <address> or ip.network == <network>
B. [tcp|udp] ip.[src|dst] port <port>
C. ip.addr == <addr> or ip.name == <name>
D. ip.addr == <addr> or ip.host == <host>
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which data element must be protected with regards to PCI?
A. past health condition
B. geographic location
C. full name
D. recent payment amount
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which kind of evidence can be considered most reliable to arrive at an analytical assertion?
A. direct
B. corroborative
C. indirect
D. circumstantial
E. textual
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is an example of a managed security offering where incident response experts monitor and respond to security alerts in a security operations center (SOC)?
A. Cisco CloudLock
B. Cisco’s Active Threat Analytics (ATA)
C. Cisco Managed Firepower Service
D. Cisco Jasper
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two options can be used by a threat actor to determine the role of a server? (Choose two.)
A. PCAP
B. tracert
C. running processes
D. hard drive configuration
E. applications
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
210-255 dumps
Refer to the Exhibit. 210-255 dumps A customer reports that they cannot access your organization’s website. Which option is a possible reason that the customer cannot access the website?
A. The server at 10.33.1.5 is using up too much bandwidth causing a denial- of-service.
B. The server at 10.67.10.5 has a virus.
C. A vulnerability scanner has shown that 10.67.10.5 has been compromised.
D. Web traffic sent from 10.67.10.5 has been identified as malicious by Internet sensors.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which option is a misuse variety per VERIS enumerations?
A. snooping
B. hacking
C. theft
D. assault
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which Security Operations Center’s goal is to provide incident handling to a country?
A. Coordination Center
B. Internal CSIRT
C. National CSIRT
D. Analysis Center
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which CVSSv3 metric captures the level of access that is required for a successful attack?
A. attack vector
B. attack complexity
C. privileges required
D. user interaction
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which process is being utilized when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?
A. data normalization
B. data availability
C. data protection
D. data signature
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which source provides reports of vulnerabilities in software and hardware to a Security Operations Center?
A. Analysis Center
B. National CSIRT
C. Internal CSIRT
D. Physical Security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the correct descnption(s) of that evidence on the right.
Select and Place:
210-255 dumps
Correct Answer:
210-255 dumps
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the NetFlow v5 record from a security event on the right.
210-255 dumps
Select and Place:
210-255 dumps
Correct Answer:
210-255 dumps
QUESTION 15
From a security perspective, why is it important to employ a clock synchronization protocol on a network?
A. so that everyone knows the local time
B. to ensure employees adhere to work schedule
C. to construct an accurate timeline of events when responding to an incident
D. to guarantee that updates are pushed out according to schedule
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
210-255 dumps Which string matches the regular expression r(ege)+x?
A. rx
B. regeegex
C. r(ege)x
D. rege+x
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which two HTTP header fields relate to intrusion analysis? (Choose two).
A. user-agent
B. host
C. connection
D. language
E. handshake type
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
210-255 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this ping result?
A. The public IP address of cisco.com is 2001:420:1101:1::a.
B. The Cisco.com website is down.
C. The Cisco.com website is responding with an internal IP.
D. The public IP address of cisco.com is an IPv4 address.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
What information from HTTP logs can be used to find a threat actor?
A. referer
B. IP address
C. user-agent
D. URL
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which of the following are not components of the 5-tuple of a flow in NetFlow? (Select all that apply.)
A. Source IP address
B. Flow record ID
C. Gateway
D. Source port
E. Destination port
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 21
You have run a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see what the file does. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection.
Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed or required to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)
A. file size
B. domain names
C. dropped files
D. signatures
E. host IP addresses
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 22
What is accomplished in the identification phase of incident handling?
A. determining the responsible user
B. identifying source and destination IP addresses
C. defining the limits of your authority related to a security event
D. determining that a security event has occurred
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?
A. col[0-9]+our
B. colo?ur
C. colou?r
D. ]a-z]{7}
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
You see 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for various pages on one of your webservers. The user agent in the requests contain php code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new php file on the webserver. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?
A. delivery
B. reconnaissance
C. action on objectives
D. installation
E. exploitation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
During which phase of the forensic process are tools and techniques used to extract the relevant information from the collective data?
A. examination
B. reporting
C. collection
D. investigation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which goal of data normalization is true?
A. Reduce data redundancy.
B. Increase data redundancy.
C. Reduce data availability.
D. Increase data availability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
What mechanism does the Linux operating system provide to control access to files?
A. privileges required
B. user interaction
C. file permissions
D. access complexity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
In Microsoft Windows, as files are deleted the space they were allocated eventually is considered available for use by other files. 210-255 dumps This creates alternating used and unused areas of various sizes. What is this called?
A. network file storing
B. free space fragmentation
C. alternate data streaming
D. defragmentation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is one of the main goals of data normalization?
A. To save duplicate logs for redundancy
B. To purge redundant data while maintaining data integrity
C. To correlate IPS and IDS logs with DNS
D. To correlate IPS/IDS logs with firewall logs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A CMS plugin creates two files that are accessible from the Internet myplugin.html and exploitable.php. A newly discovered exploit takes advantage of an injection vulnerability in exploitable.php. To exploit the vulnerability, one must send an HTTP POST with specific variables to exploitable.php. You see traffic to your webserver that consists of only HTTP GET requests to myplugin.html. Which category best describes this activity?
A. weaponization
B. exploitation
C. installation
D. reconnaissance
Correct Answer: B

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210-250 dumps
Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cyber Ops
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Exam Code: 210-250
Total Questions: 80 Q&As

New Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-250 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (11-50)

QUESTION 11
Which information security property is supported by encryption?
A. sustainability
B. integrity
C. confidentiality
D. availability
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which term describes the act of a user, without authority or permission, obtaining rights on a system, beyond what were assigned?
A. authentication tunneling
B. administrative abuse
C. rights exploitation
D. privilege escalation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which definition of the IIS Log Parser tool is true?
A. a logging module for IIS that allows you to log to a database
B. a data source control to connect to your data source
C. a powerful, versatile tool that makes it possible to run SQL-like queries against log flies
D. a powerful versatile tool that verifies the integrity of the log files
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What are the advantages of a full-duplex transmission mode compared to half-duplex mode? (Select all that apply.)
A. Each station can transmit and receive at the same time.
B. It avoids collisions.
C. It makes use of backoff time.
D. It uses a collision avoidance algorithm to transmit.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Which term represents the chronological record of how evidence was collected- analyzed, preserved, and transferred?
A. chain of evidence
B. evidence chronology
C. chain of custody
D. record of safekeeping
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
210-250 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. During an analysis this list of email attachments is found. 210-250 dumps Which files contain the same content?
A. 1 and 4
B. 3 and 4
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
In which case should an employee return his laptop to the organization?
A. When moving to a different role
B. Upon termination of the employment
C. As described in the asset return policy
D. When the laptop is end of lease
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
A firewall requires deep packet inspection to evaluate which layer?
A. application
B. Internet
C. link
D. transport
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which event occurs when a signature-based IDS encounters network traffic that triggers an alert?
A. connection event
B. endpoint event
C. NetFlow event
D. intrusion event
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful in eavesdropping on a conversation between two IPS phones?
A. replay
B. man-in-the-middle
C. dictionary
D. known-plaintext
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which situation indicates application-level white listing?
A. Allow everything and deny specific executable files.
B. Allow specific executable files and deny specific executable files.
C. Writing current application attacks on a whiteboard daily.
D. Allow specific files and deny everything else.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which definition of an antivirus program is true?
A. program used to detect and remove unwanted malicious software from the system
B. program that provides real time analysis of security alerts generated by network hardware and application
C. program that scans a running application for vulnerabilities
D. rules that allow network traffic to go in and out
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is true about heuristic-based algorithms?
A. Heuristic-based algorithms may require fine tuning to adapt to network traffic and minimize the possibility of false positives.
B. Heuristic-based algorithms do not require fine tuning.
C. Heuristic-based algorithms support advanced malware protection.
D. Heuristic-based algorithms provide capabilities for the automation of IPS signature creation and tuning.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which security principle states that more than one person is required to perform a critical task?
A. due diligence
B. separation of duties
C. need to know
D. least privilege
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which tool is commonly used by threat actors on a webpage to take advantage of the software vulnerabilities of a system to spread malware? 210-250 dumps
A. exploit kit
B. root kit
C. vulnerability kit
D. script kiddie kit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
If a web server accepts input from the user and passes it to a bash shell, to which attack method is it vulnerable?
A. input validation
B. hash collision
C. command injection
D. integer overflow
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Based on which statement does the discretionary access control security model grant or restrict access ?
A. discretion of the system administrator
B. security policy defined by the owner of an object
C. security policy defined by the system administrator
D. role of a user within an organization
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which definition of the virtual address space for a Windows process is true?
A. actual physical location of an object in memory
B. set of virtual memory addresses that it can use
C. set of pages that are currently resident in physical memory
D. system-level memory protection feature that is built into the operating system
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which statement about digitally signing a document is true?
A. The document is hashed and then the document is encrypted with the private key.
B. The document is hashed and then the hash is encrypted with the private key.
C. The document is encrypted and then the document is hashed with the public key
D. The document is hashed and then the document is encrypted with the public key.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
You must create a vulnerability management framework. Which main purpose of this framework is true?
A. Conduct vulnerability scans on the network.
B. Manage a list of reported vulnerabilities.
C. Identify remove and mitigate system vulnerabilities.
D. Detect and remove vulnerabilities in source code.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which definition of a process in Windows is true?
A. running program
B. unit of execution that must be manually scheduled by the application
C. database that stores low-level settings for the OS and for certain applications
D. basic unit to which the operating system allocates processor time
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
According to the attribute-based access control (ABAC) model, what is the subject location considered?
A. Part of the environmental attributes
B. Part of the object attributes
C. Part of the access control attributes
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Which term represents a potential danger that could take advantage of a weakness in a system?
A. vulnerability
B. risk
C. threat
D. exploit
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
DRAG DROP
Drag the technology on the left to the data type the technology provides on the right.
Select and Place:
210-250 dumps
Correct Answer:
210-250 dumps
QUESTION 35
Which two services define cloud networks? (Choose two.)
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Security as a Service
D. Compute as a Service
E. Tenancy as a Service
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 36
You have implemented a Sourcefire IPS and configured it to block certain addresses utilizing Security Intelligence IP Address Reputation. 210-250 dumps A user calls and is not able to access a certain IP address. What action can you take to allow the user access to the IP address?
A. Create a whitelist and add the appropriate IP address to allow the traffic.
B. Create a custom blacklist to allow the traffic.
C. Create a user based access control rule to allow the traffic.
D. Create a network based access control rule to allow the traffic.
E. Create a rule to bypass inspection to allow the traffic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
What is a benefit of a web application firewall?
A. It blocks known vulnerabilities without patching applications.
B. It simplifies troubleshooting.
C. It accelerates web traffic.
D. It supports all networking protocols.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
A data breach has occurred and your company database has been copied. Which
security principle has been violated?
A. confidentiality
B. availability
C. access
D. control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
A proxy firewall protects against which type of attack?
A. cross-site scripting attack
B. worm traffic
C. port scanning
D. DDoS attacks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
What are purposes of the Internet Key Exchange in an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)
A. The Internet Key Exchange protocol establishes security associations
B. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides data confidentiality
C. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides replay detection
D. The Internet Key Exchange protocol is responsible for mutual authentication
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 41
Which two protocols are used for email (Choose two )
A. NTP
B. DNS
C. HTTP
D. IMAP
E. SMTP
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 42
At which OSI layer does a router typically operate?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Data link
D. Application
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 43
While viewing packet capture data, you notice that one IP is sending and receiving traffic for multiple devices by modifying the IP header, Which option is making this behavior possible?
A. TOR
B. NAT
C. encapsulation
D. tunneling
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 44
Which option is a purpose of port scanning?
A. Identify the Internet Protocol of the target system.
B. Determine if the network is up or down
C. Identify which ports and services are open on the target host.
D. Identify legitimate users of a system.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 45
An intrusion detection system begins receiving an abnormally high volume of scanning from numerous sources. Which evasion technique does this attempt indicate?
A. traffic fragmentation
B. resource exhaustion
C. timing attack
D. tunneling
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
Which two activities are examples of social engineering? (Choose two)
A. receiving call from the IT department asking you to verify your username/password to maintain the account
B. receiving an invite to your department’s weekly WebEx meeting
C. sending a verbal request to an administrator to change the password to the account of a user the administrator does know
D. receiving an email from MR requesting that you visit the secure HR website and update your contract information
E. receiving an unexpected email from an unknown person with an uncharacteristic attachment from someone in the same company
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 47
Cisco pxGrid has a unified framework with an open API designed in a hub-and-spoke architecture. 210-250 dumps pxGrid is used to enable the sharing of contextual-based information from which devices?
A. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco OpenDNS service
B. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco WSA
C. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco FMC
D. From a Cisco ISE session directory to other policy network systems, such as Cisco IOS devices and the Cisco ASA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 48
Which definition of a daemon on Linux is true?
A. error check right after the call to fork a process
B. new process created by duplicating the calling process
C. program that runs unobtrusively in the background
D. set of basic CPU instructions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 49
A user reports difficulties accessing certain external web pages, When examining traffic to and from the external domain in full packet captures, you notice many SYNs that have the same sequence number, source, and destination IP address, but have different payloads.
Which problem is a possible explanation of this situation?
A. insufficient network resources
B. failure of full packet capture solution
C. misconfiguration of web filter
D. TCP injection
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 50
Which definition describes the main purpose of a Security Information and Event Management solution ?
A. a database that collects and categorizes indicators of compromise to evaluate and search for potential security threats
B. a monitoring interface that manages firewall access control lists for duplicate firewall filtering
C. a relay server or device that collects then forwards event logs to another log collection device
D. a security product that collects, normalizes, and correlates event log data to provide holistic views of the security posture
Correct Answer: D

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