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Exam MS-201: Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/ms-201

Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.

Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.

Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.

Latest updates Microsoft MS-201 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Case Study : Litware,Inc.
Case Study
Overview
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe.
PhysicalLocations
Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome.
Each branch office has its own compliance officer.
ExistingEnvironment
The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory
domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU)
in an
OU named Offices in Active Directory.
Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each
Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels,
RegionalAdmins_Munich,
RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as
DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office.
All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance.
Each office has the following servers and client computers:
One reverse proxy appliance
One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server
One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server
Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange
Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured.
Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main
office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is
configured
to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full
backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport
department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Litware plans to implement the following changes:
Implement calendar sharing to partner companies.
Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the
need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the
mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure
that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the
item
must be available.
TechnicalRequirements
Litware identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize administrative effort.
Use the principle of least privilege.
Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted
automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure
that
all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT
department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement.
Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items.
Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to
the Junk Email folder.
Problemstatements
The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow.
Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are
open.
You need to recommend a solution to retain the items in the public folders. The solution must support the planned
changes.
What should you recommend?
A. Create an Outlook rule that forwards all the items in each public folder to a compliance mailbox.
B. Place an In-Place Hold on all the mailboxes of the public folders.
C. Increase the frequency of the backups.
D. Modify the public folder permissions.
Correct Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/security-and-compliance/in-place-and-litigationholds#placingpublic-folders-on-hold

 

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment.
All user mailboxes are migrated to Exchange Online.
You need to migrate the public folders from the on-premises organizations to Exchange Online. Which three actions
should you perform in sequence before you create the migration batch? To answer, move the appropriate actions from
the
list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-201 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/Exchange/collaboration/public-folders/migrate-to-exchangeonline?view=exchserver-2019

 

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment that contains two Mailbox servers named
MBX1 and MBX2.
The company has the departments shown in the following table.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q3

From the on-premises organization, outbound email is sent directly to the internet by using DNS lookups.
You are informed that some sales department users send email messages that are identified as spam.
You need to automatically block the sales department users from repeatedly sending spam.
Solution: You modify the Send connector to use Exchange Online as a smart host.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow-best-practices/use-connectors-to-configure-mail-flow/set-up-connectors-to-route-mail

 

QUESTION 4
Overview
General Overview
Contoso, Ltd. is a national freight company in the United States. The company has 15,000 employees.
PhysicalLocations
Contoso has a main office in Houston and 10 branch offices that each contains 1,000 employees.
ExistingEnvironment
Active Directory and Microsoft Exchange Server Environments The network contains an Active Directory forest named
contoso.com. The forest contains one root domain named contoso.com and 10 child domains. All domain controllers
run
Windows Server 2019.
The forest has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
deployed.
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2019 and Microsoft Office 365.
There are 2,000 user mailboxes in Exchange Online.
Each office contains two domain controllers and two Mailbox servers. the main office also contains an Edge transport
server.
The organization contains 100 public folders. The folders contain 80 GB of content. All email messages sent to
contoso.com are delivered to Exchange Online. All messages sent to onpremises mailboxes are routed through the
Edge
Transport server. Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) is enabled and configured for the Office 365 tenant.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office connects directly to the Internet by using a local connection. The offices connect to each other by using a
WAN link.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Contoso plans to implement the following changes:
1.
or all new users in the on-premises organization, provide an email address that uses the value of the Last Name
attribute and the first two letters of the First Name attribute as a prefix.
2.
ecommission the public folders and replace the folders with a Microsoft 265 solution that maintains web access to the
content.
Technical Requirements
Contoso identifies the following technical requirements:
1.
All email messages sent from a SMTP domain named adatum.com must never be identified as spam.
2.
Any solution to replace the public folders must include the ability to collaborate with shared calendars.
Security Requirements
Contoso identifies the following security requirements:
1.
The principle of least privilege must be applied to all users and permissions.
2.
All email messages sent from an SMTP domain named com to contoso.com must be encrypted.
3.
All users must be protected from accessing unsecure websites when they click on URLs embedded in email messages.
4.
If a user attempts to send an email message to a distribution group that contains more than 15 members by using
Outlook, the user must receive a warning before sending the message.
Problemstatements Recently, a user named HelpdeskUser1 erroneously created several mailboxes. Helpdesk1user1 is
a member of the Recipient Management management role group. Users who have a mailbox in office 365 report that it
takes a long time for email messages containing attachments to be delivered.
Exhibitlead4pass ms-201 exam question q4

You need to recommend a solution for the public folders that supports the planned changes and meets the technical
requirements. What should you recommend?
A. Microsoft SharePoint site mailboxes
B. Office 365 groups
C. Resource mailboxes
D. Public folder replicas
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/collaboration/public-folders/migrate-to-office-365-groups?view=exchserver-2019

 

QUESTION 5
You deploy a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You need to ensure that users of all new mailboxes are prevented from editing their personal information.
What should you do?
A. From PowerShell, run the New-RoleGroup cmdlet and specify the -CustomRecipientWritesScope parameter.
B. From the Exchange admin center, create a new role assignment policy.
C. From the Exchange admin center, run a new role group and assign the role group to Domain users.
D. From PowerShell, run the New-RoleAssignmentPolicy cmdlet and specify the -isDefault parameter.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/role-based-access-control/new-roleassignmentpolicy?view=exchange-ps

 

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that has the mailboxes shown in the following table.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6

You have the distribution groups shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6-1

Email messages sent within the organization are shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statements is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6-3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6-4

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/policy-andcompliance/ediscovery/ediscovery?view=exchserver-2019

 

QUESTION 7
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains mailbox servers in four Active Directory sites.
The organization contains 35,000 user mailboxes. The network bandwidth between the sites is limited.
Users frequently travel between the sites.
You need to ensure the users download the offline address book (OAB) from a local server.
What should you do?
A. Create an arbitration mailbox in each site and configure shadow copies of the OAB.
B. Modify the OAB virtual directories on the Exchange servers in each site to use unique URLs.
C. Place the arbitration mailbox of the OAB in a database that replicates between the sites by using a database
availability groups (DAG).
D. Create a separate OAB and arbitration mailbox in each site.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/offline-address-books/offline-address-books?view=exchserver-2019

 

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment.
You are migrating public folder data to Exchange Online by using a migration batch of the PublicFolder type.
You need to identify the sync of each move request in the batch.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Get-PublicFolderMailboxMigrationRequests
B. Get-MoveRequest
C. Get-PublicFolderMoveRequest
D. Get-PublicFolderMigrationRequest
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/Exchange/collaboration/public-folders/migrate-to-exchange-online?view=exchserver-2019
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/move-and-migration/get-publicfoldermoverequest?view=exchange-ps

 

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription and configure Active Directory synchronization.
You use a smart host for all communication between the organization and the Internet. The smart host performs email
hygiene and alters message headers.
You plan to run the Hybrid Configuration wizard to create an Exchange hybrid deployment and change the MX record to
point to Exchange Online.
You need to decommission the smart host from the organization.
What should you do first?
A. Modify the InternalSmtpServer value by running the Set-TransportConfig cmdlet.
B. Modify the Send connector to use DNS delivery.
C. Modify the TLSReceiveDomainSecureList value by running the Set-TransportConfig cmdlet.
D. Create a Receive connector that allows anonymous authentication.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/mail-flow/set-transportconfig?view=exchange-ps

 

QUESTION 10
Case Study : Litware,Inc.
Case Study
Overview
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe.
PhysicalLocations
Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome.
Each branch office has its own compliance officer.
ExistingEnvironment
The network contains oneImplement a compliance solution to ensure that items deleted from public folders Active
Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory domain. Each office is configured as
an Active
Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU) in an OU named Offices in Active Directory.
Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each
Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels,
RegionalAdmins_Munich,
RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as
DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office.
All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance.
Each office has the following servers and client computers:
One reverse proxy appliance
One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server
One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server
Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange
Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured.
Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main
office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is
configured
to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full
backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport
department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Litware plans to implement the following changes:
Implement calendar sharing to partner companies.
Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the
need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the
mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure
that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the
item
must be available.
TechnicalRequirements
Litware identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize administrative effort.
Use the principle of least privilege.
Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted
automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure
that
all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT
department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement.
Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items.
Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to
the Junk Email folder.
Problemstatements
The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow.
Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are
open.
You need to implement a solution to support the planned changes for the helpdesk users.
What should you do?
A. Assign the Recipient Policies role to the helpdesk users and a default management scope
B. Assign the Mail Recipients role to the helpdesk users and use a default management scope
C. Assign the Mail Recipients role to the helpdesk users and create a custom management scope
D. Assign the Recipient Policies roles to the helpdesk users and create a custom management scope
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You plan to purchase a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription and create a hybrid deployment.
You are evaluating the security requirements for communication between the on-premises and Exchange Online.
You need to ensure that Exchange Online services can access the necessary on-premises virtual directories.
Which two on-premises virtual directories should be accessible to Exchange Online services? Each correct answer
presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Rpc
B. EWS
C. PowerShell
D. ecp
E. mapi
F. Autodiscover
Correct Answer: EF
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/configure-exchange-server-for-hybrid-modern-authentication

 

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment that contains two Mailbox servers named
MBX1 and MBX2.
The company has the departments shown in the following table.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q12

From the on-premises organization, outbound email is sent directly to the internet by using DNS lookups. You are
informed that some sales department users send email messages that are identified as spam. You need to
automatically block the sales department users from repeatedly sending spam.
Solution: You migrate all the mailboxes of the sales department to Exchange Online. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization and a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. From the Microsoft 365
admin center, you open Data migration as shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q13

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q13-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q13-2

References:
https://www.stellarinfo.com/blog/hybrid-migration-migrate-exchange-mailboxes-office-365/
https://www.kerneldatarecovery.com/blog/migrate-from-exchange-on-premises-to-exchangeonlinein-hybrid-environment/

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E05-001 Associate – Information Storage and Management – Exam Retirement” Exam E05-001. Here you can get the latest free EMC E05-001 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

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This certification validates the learner’s comprehensive understanding of various storage infrastructure components in traditional, virtualized, and software-defined data center environments. It tests the learner’s knowledge of storage-related technologies in an increasingly complex IT environment, which is fast changing with the adoption of third platform technologies (cloud, Big Data, social, and mobile technologies). It provides a strong understanding of storage technologies and prepares participants for advanced concepts, technologies, and processes. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.lead4pass.com/E05-001.html exam.

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Free EMC E05-001 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
What is an accurate statement about the application presentation technique of application virtualization?
A. Application executes remotely and its user interface is transmitted to the client
B. Application is downloaded in portions on the client for local execution
C. Application executes on the client without the use of a locally-installed agent
D. Application is converted into a standalone package that directly executes on the client
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which type of fabric topology does the exhibit represent?lead4pass e05-001 exam question q2

A. Partial mesh
B. Full mesh
C. Single core-edge
D. Dual core-edge
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Which fabric login type enables two N_Ports to exchange service parameters to establish a session?
A. PLOGI
B. PRLI
C. FLOGI
D. WWPN
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
What is an accurate statement about a virtual machine (VM) snapshot?
A. Captures the state and data of a running VM at a specific point-in-time
B. Provides the capability to delete the parent VM once the snapshot is created
C. Runs as an independent copy from the parent VM
D. Provides the capability to restore VM data to any point-in-time
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
What describes an advantage of the changed block tracking backup technique?
A. Increase backup device performance
B. Enable restoration to any point-in-time
C. Eliminate the need for data deduplication
D. Reduce the backup window
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
What is a benefit of link aggregation in a SAN?
A. Provides a higher throughput than a single interswitch link can provide
B. Distributes the network traffic across all virtual SANs, ensuring even virtual SAN utilization
C. Optimizes performance by consolidating all interswitch links into a single physical link
D. Provides the flexibility to deploy the same interswitch links for both FC and iSCSI traffic
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
What is an accurate statement about a fabric-provided MAC address (FPMA) used in an FCoE SAN?
A. FCoE switches provide MAC addresses to VN_Ports during node login
B. FC switches provide MAC addresses to VE_Ports dynamically during discovery
C. Compute systems provide MAC addresses to the VF_Ports on FCoE switches
D. Both VF_Ports and VE_Ports obtain MAC addresses from FC switches
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
What is signified by the “variety” characteristic of big data?
A. Data is generated in different formats by numerous sources
B. Meaning of the data changes constantly
C. Varying data quality affects its reliability and accuracy
D. Data change rate affects its timely analysis
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
Which process groups multiple physical drives and presents them to a compute system as a single logical volume?
A. Concatenation
B. Partitioning
C. Striping
D. Orchestration
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
What is an accurate statement about OAuth security control?
A. Allows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner
B. Provides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography
C. Enables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code
D. Enables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
What is an advantage of performing cumulative backups compared to incremental backups for the same data?
A. Facilitates faster restores
B. Facilitates faster backups
C. Reduces the storage space required for backups
D. Eliminates the need for full backups
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
Which type of login is performed between an N_Port and an F_Port in a Fibre Channel SAN environment?
A. FLOGI
B. PLOGI
C. PRLI
D. WWPN
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
What is an accurate statement about three-way NDMP backup in a NAS environment?
A. Backup data is sent directly from NAS to the backup device
B. Backup data is sent to the backup device through the application servers
C. A dedicated backup device is required for each NAS
D. All NAS systems should have the same operating environment
Correct Answer: A

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Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 Exam Practice Questions

Ccie 400-201 exam questions are still under discussion: https://www.reddit.com/r/ccie/

QUESTION 1
A client has an MPLS inter-AS implementation that is required to have QoS deployed between ASBRs based on IP
packet. At the same time, the client requires minimization of the routing configuration between ASBRs for better
scalability. Which MPLS inter-AS option can achieve this goal?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option AB
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
A NOC engineer is troubleshooting an issue on a customer\\’s server that is connected to a switch port in the data
center. The engineer has a packet analyzer that is connected to a test port in the NOC. A core network exists between
the NOC and the data center
Which two configuration steps should the NOC engineer apply for the port in the NOC and the customer\\’s switch port
in the data center? (Choose Two)
A. Configure ERSPAN between the NOC test port and customer\\’s switch port
B. Enable an MPLS pseusdowire that is destined to the NOC and used by the mirrored customer traffic to cross
network
C. Enable GRE encapsulation that is destined to the NOC and supply by the mirrored customer traffic to cross the
network
D. Enable an MPLS TE tunnel that is destined to the NOC and used by the mirrored customer traffic to cross the core
network
E. Configure RSPAN between the NOC test port and customer\\’s switch port
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 3
Process-level redundancy is implemented by a system manager process that creates the standby process. What two
functions are provided by the system-level process called Qnet Symlink Manager (QSM)? (Choose two.)
A. backing up the information for the broken connections
B. provides common information for connecting processes and services
C. detection of a failed connection
D. provides an abstract name for a process or service
E. distribution of symbolic link information
Correct Answer: DE
1.4. SP high end product
1.4.01. IOS-XR structure Process-Level Redundancy Process-level redundancy is implemented by a system manager
process creating the standby process. Because the active process created the standby process, the active process has
all the information that it needs to communicate with the standby process. The active process uses a checkpoint
database to share running state with the standby process. Symbolic links and abstract names are used to identify the
processes. Clients do not see the standby process until the active goes away. If a process fails and it has created a
standby process, a system-level process called QNet Symlink Manager (QSM) and a library called Event Connection
Manager (ECM) are used to re-establish links from the clients to the processes.
QSM provides:
Distribution of symbolic link information
Abstract name for a process or service
ECM provides:
Common information for connecting processes and services Detection of broken connections
Only processes considered essential by development engineers are designated to support process-level redundancy.
This is not a user-configurable option. Clients have to reconnect to the “new” active process (the “original” standby
process) when they detect that the active process has failed. Clients can connect to it using the symbolic links and
abstract names. The new active process creates a new standby process.
The general steps in process redundancy are:
The active process dies.
The standby process becomes the active process.
A new standby process starts.
The new active process begins sending updates to the new standby process. Clients begin using the new active
process through the symbolic links and abstract names.

 

QUESTION 4
In which modes does selective packet discard (SPD) operate? (Choose three.)
A. discard
B. random
C. normal
D. full
E. select
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 5
Which two components are shared across secure domain routers? (Choose two)
A. Fabric
B. CPU
C. Memory
D. Fans
E. Forwarding engine
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 6
Drag the MPLS label element on the left to the correct length on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 400-201 exam question q6

 

QUESTION 7
In which way does the DS-Lite IPv6 transitioning mechanism differ from IPv6 Dual-Stack?
A. DS-Lite is a combination of tunnel and translation technologies.
B. DS-Lite is a transition technology that gives full IPv6 connectivity for IPv6 capable hosts that are on the IPv4 Internet
but have no native connection to an IPv6 network.
C. DS-Lite is an automatic tunnel where the tunnel destination is determined by the IPv4 address extracted from the
IPv6 address that starts with the prefix 2002::/16.
D. DS-Lite is a stateless tunneling mechanism with a lightweight and secure manner without requiring upgrades to
existing IPv4 access network infrastructure.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
In a segment routing-enabled network, which two protocols perform label distribution? (Choose two)
A. IS-IS
B. LDP
C. BGP
D. OSPF
E. RSVP-TE
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about IEEE 802.1ah Provider Backbone Bridge are true? (Choose two.)
A. IEEE 802.1ah enables geographically separated LAN segments to be interconnected as a single bridged domain
over an MPLS network, knowing all the customer MAC addresses.
B. IEEE 802.1ah provides the same Ethernet Layer 2 network services as VLAN does, but with greater extensibility and
flexibility by overlay scheme over a Layer 3 network.
C. IEEE 802.1ah allows a fewer number of pseudowires in the IP/MPLS core to transport a large number of customer
services.
D. IEEE 802.1ah redefines the flooding and forwarding behavior to avoid loops by not flooding frames received from one
member to other members of the same group.
E. IEEE 802.1ah provides a means for interconnecting multiple provider bridged to build a large-scale, end-to-end,
Layer 2 provider bridged network.
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/asr9k-r6-4/lxvpn/configuration/guide/b-l2vpn-cg-asr9000-64x/b-l2vpn-cg-asr9000-64x_chapter_0111.pdf

 

QUESTION 10
Which two BGP mechanisms solve the BGP full-mesh paradigm? (Choose two.)
A. BGP link state
B. MPLS VPN
C. route reflectors
D. hierarchical VPLS
E. confederation
F. route policy filtering
G. community SOO
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 11
A service provider has a requirements to deploy a virtual router in its network to handle high-performance data plane
service up to 20Gbps. Which Cisco solution fulfills this requirement?
A. Cisco 7600
B. Cisco ASR 9000
C. Cisco NCS 6000
D. Cisco CSR 1000v
E. Cisco nexus 9000v
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which timing over packet solution provides only accurate frequency synchronization, but does not provide time/phase
synchronization?
A. Timing over IP connection and transfer of clock BOF
B. Precision time protocol
C. Network time protocol
D. Synchronous Ethernet
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question q13

Which attached circuit interface shown uses VC Type 4?
A. Gi8/0/1
B. AT1/0
C. Se5/0
D. ATM2/0
E. Gi4/0.1
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s discovery process? (Choose two.)
A. Establishing credibility with the customer
B. Working with the customer to develop a reference architecture
C. Referencing the PPDIOO model to effectively facilitate the discussion
D. Gathering information about the current state of the customer\\’s network environment
E. Mapping Cisco innovation to customer\\’s needs
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 2
What is the easiest way to enable SD-Access for all your remote site after you have your campus SD-Access fabric up
and running?
A. Treat all the sites as one fabric domain and use the traditional physical network as the underlay
B. Use a separate fabric domain for each site and use SD-WAN as the underlay
C. Use a separate fabric domain for each site and use the traditional physical network as the underlay
D. Treat all the sites as one fabric domain and use SD-WAN as the underlay
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which node enables Cisco ISE to share contextual information on a device with Cisco Stealth watch?
A. Monitoring and Troubleshooting
B. pXGrid Controller
C. Policy Administration Node
D. Inline Posture Node
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which are two Cisco recommendations that demonstrates SDA? (Choose two.)
A. Use the CLI to perform as much of the configuration as possible
B. Show lite customer how to integrate ISL into DMA Center at the end of the demo
C. Focus on business benefits
D. Keep the demo at a high level
E. Be sure you explain the major technologies such as VXLAN and LISP in depth
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 5
Which two Cisco ISE use cases typically involve the highest level of implementation complexity? (Choose two.)
A. Guest and wireless access
B. Software defined access
C. Device management
D. Asset visibility
E. Software defined segmentation
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 6
Which are two advantages of a “one switch at a tune\\’ approach to integrating SD-Access into an existing brownfield
environment? (Choose two.)
A. appropriate for campus and remote site environments
B. allows simplified testing prior to cutover
C. deal for protecting recent investments while upgrading legacy hardware
D. involves the least risk of all approaches
E. opens up many new design and deployment opportunities
F. allows simplified roll back
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 7
Which three ways are SD-Access and ACI Fabric similar? (Choose three.)
A. use of overlays
B. use of Virtual Network IDs
C. focus on user endpoints
D. use of group policy
E. use of Endpoint Groups
F. use of Scalable Group Tags
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 8
Which two statements are true regarding SD-WAN demonstrations? (Choose two.)
A. As a Cisco SD-WAN SF, you should you should spend your time learning about the technology rather than
contributing to demo innovation
B. Use demonstrations primarily for large opportunities and competitive situations
C. During a demo, you should demonstrate and discuss what the team considers important details
D. There is a big difference between demos that use a top down approach and demos that use a bottom up approach
E. During a demo you should consider the target audience and the desired outcome
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 9
Which are two Cisco ISE that benefits our customers ? (Choose two.)
A. provides network access controller
B. helps them stop and contain real time threats
C. enables them to set traffic priorities across the network
D. helps them accelerate application deployment and delivery
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 10
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s demo process? (Choose two.)
A. determining whether the customer would like to drive deeper during a follow up
B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you
C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration
D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case.
E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and
complexity
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 11
Which Cisco vEdge route offers 20 Gb of encrypted throughput?
A. Cisco vEdge 5000
B. Cisco vEdge 1000
C. Cisco vEdge 2000
D. Cisco vEdge 100
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT traversal?
A. vBond orchestrator
B. vManage
C. vSmart controller
D. vEdge
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which is a function of lite Proactive Insights feature of Cisco DNA Center Assurance\\’?
A. pointing out where the most serious issues are happening in the network
B. generating synthetic traffic to perform tests that raise awareness of potential network issues
C. enabling you to quickly view all of the contextual information related to the end application
D. enabling you to see the complete path of packets from the client to the end application
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?
A. MDS 9513
B. MDS 9509
C. MDS 9506
D. MDS 9250i
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum distance that the 40GBASE-LR4 Ethernet standard can span?
A. 550 m
B. 10 km
C. 40 km
D. 80 km
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q3

Which call-out accurately shows the currently running version of the Cisco UCS Manager management software?
A. A – UCS Manager running version 1.4(1m)
B. B – IO Module 1 running version 1.4(1m)
C. C – Interface Card 1 running version 1.4(1m)
D. D – Kernel running version 4.2(1)N(1.4m)
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q4

Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server?
A. A is a power button and power status LED; B is the identification button and LED; C is system status LED; D is a network link
activity LED.
B. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification
button and LED.
C. A is system status LED; B is network link activity LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification
button and LED.
D. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is an identification button and LED; D is power button and
power status LED.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Up to what speed can Category 5e UTP cable transmit data?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Up to what speed can Category 5 UTP cable transmit data?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which type of optics module is supported by a 6-port 40 GE Cisco Nexus 7000 M2 Series I/O module?
A. CPAK
B. QSFP+
C. SFP/SFP+
D. CFP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)
A. Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B. Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C. Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
D. Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 9
Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?
A. dual-mode
B. single-mode
C. straight-mode
D. multi-mode
E. subscriber-mode
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
When the Cisco UCS Manager is used to verify the B- or C-Series device, which two types of Overall Status are
acceptable and do not indicate a failure? (Choose two.)
A. Online
B. OK
C. Unassociated
D. Active
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 11
If the Overall Status for a Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server indicates a failure in the Cisco UCS Manager, such as
discovery-failed, which statement is true?
A. The server shuts down.
B. The server automatically reboots reboot in 3 minutes.
C. The endpoints on that server cannot be upgraded.
D. The server is online, but the administrator cannot assign a service profile to that blade.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q12

Where is the best place to see whether the system is ready for a Fabric Interconnect failover?
A. A – Overall Status operable
B. B – L1 Connection
C. C – Part Details
D. D – Access
E. E – High Availability Details
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 13
Which tool does a network administrator not need when installing hardware?
A. cable tester
B. wrench set
C. cable wraps
D. needle-nose pliers
E. PCMCIA memory
F. soldering iron with a grounded tip
Correct Answer: F

 

QUESTION 14
Which two Cisco Nexus switches provide the foundation of the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7718 switch
B. Cisco Nexus 9508 switch
C. Cisco Nexus 7710 switch
D. Cisco Nexus 93128TX switch
E. Cisco Nexus 6004 switch
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q15

Which item does F represent?
A. HDD 1
B. SFP Module
C. SuperCap Module
D. CPU 2
E. CMOS Battery
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 16
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?
A. Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B. Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C. Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D. Use the Cisco UCS Manager.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 17
Which three statements about powering down a Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Server to perform maintenance or
replacement are true? (Choose three.)
A. Standby power mode: Power is supplied only to the service processor and the cooling fans, and it is safe to power off
the server from this mode.
B. Power status LED. Green indicates that the server is in main power mode and can be safely powered off.
C. Graceful shutdown: Press and release the power button. The operating system performs a graceful shutdown, and
the server goes to standby mode, which is indicated by an amber power status LED.
D. Disconnect the power cords from the power supplies in your server to completely power off the server.
E. Only an emergency shutdown can be performed using the power button on the server front panel.
F. The Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Server has only one power mode.
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 18
Which three steps do you perform to troubleshoot when a rack server powers on with no video? (Choose three.)
A. Check that the front I/O dongle is properly seated.
B. Check the front I/O cable connection to the motherboard.
C. Check for memory subsystem failure.
D. Verify the power source for equipment.
E. Reseat the DIMMs, CPU, and PCI cards.
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q19

This image shows a CPU Pick-and-Place tool and a CPU Socket Protective Cap Removal tool.
Which types of Cisco UCS servers and Intel Xeon processors do these tools support?
A. Cisco UCS B22 Blade Server, C22 Rack Server, and C24 Rack Server with Intel Xeon E5- 2400 Series processors
B. Cisco UCS B22 Blade Server, C22 Rack Server, and C24 Rack Server with Intel Xeon E5- 2600 Series processors
C. Cisco UCS B200 M3 Blade Server, B420 M3 Blade Server, C220 Rack Server, C240 Rack Server, and C420 Rack
Sever with Intel Xeon E5-2400 Series processors
D. Cisco UCS B200 M3 Blade Server, B420 M3 Blade Server, C220 Rack Server, C240 Rack Server, and C420 Rack
Sever with Intel Xeon E5-2600 Series processors
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 20
Drag the password recovery procedures on a Cisco NX-OS switch from the left to the right and place them in order.
Select and Place:lead4pass 010-151 exam question q20

Select and Place:

lead4pass 010-151 exam question q20-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 010-151 exam question q20-2

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QUESTION 1
In the vi editor, how can commands such as moving the cursor or copying lines into the buffer be issued multiple times
or applied to multiple rows?
A. By using the command :repeat followed by the number and the command.
B. By specifying the number right in front of a command such as 4l or 2yj.
C. By selecting all affected lines using the shift and cursor keys before applying the command.
D. By issuing a command such as :set repetition=4 which repeats every subsequent command 4 times.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which command will display messages from the kernel that were output during the normal boot sequence?
Correct Answer: dmesg, /bin/dmesg


QUESTION 3
What information can the lspci command display about the system hardware? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Device IRQ settings
B. PCI bus speed
C. System battery type
D. Device vendor identification
E. Ethernet MAC address
Correct Answer: ABD


QUESTION 4
During a system boot cycle, what program is executed after the BIOS completes its tasks?
A. The bootloader
B. The inetd program
C. The init program
D. The kernel
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands can be used to search for the executable file foo when it has been placed in a
directory not included in $PATH?
A. apropos
B. which
C. find
D. query
E. whereis
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Which of the following sequences in the vi editor saves the opened document and exits the editor? (Choose TWO
correct answers.)
A. esc ZZ
B. ctrl :w!
C. esc zz
D. esc :wq!
E. ctrl XX
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 7
Instead of supplying an explicit device in /etc/fstab for mounting, what other options may be used to identify the intended
partition? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. FIND
B. ID
C. LABEL
D. NAME
E. UUID
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 8
Which of the following commands is used to change options and positional parameters for a running Bash?
A. history
B. set
C. bashconf
D. setsh
E. envsetup
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
What is the purpose of the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard?
A. It is a security model used to ensure files are organized according to their permissions and accessibility.
B. It provides unified tools to create, maintain and manage multiple filesystems in a common way.
C. It defines a common internal structure of inodes for all compliant filesystems.
D. It is a distribution neutral description of locations of files and directories.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands overwrites the bootloader located on /dev/sda without overwriting the partition table or
any data following it?
A. dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/sda bs=512
B. dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/sda bs=512 count=1
C. dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/sda bs=440 count=1
D. dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/sda bs=440
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
In the vi editor, which of the following commands will copy the current line into the vi buffer?
A. c
B. cc
C. 1c
D. yy
E. 1y
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
What of the following statements are true regarding /dev/ when using udev? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Entries for all possible devices get created on boot even if those devices are not connected.
B. Additional rules for udev can be created by adding them to /etc/udev/rules.d/.
C. When using udev, it is not possible to create block or character devices in /dev/ using mknod.
D. The /dev/ directory is a filesystem of type tmpfs and is mounted by udev during system startup.
E. The content of /dev/ is stored in /etc/udev/dev and is restored during system startup.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 13
Which of the following commands will print the last 10 lines of a text file to the standard output?
A. cat -n 10 filename
B. dump -n 10 filename
C. head -n 10 filename
D. tail -n 10 filename
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 14
After running the command umount /mnt, the following error message is displayed:
umount: /mnt: device is busy.
What is a common reason for this message?
A. The kernel has not finished flushing disk writes to the mounted device.
B. A user has a file open in the /mnt directory.
C. Another file system still contains a symlink to a file inside /mnt.
D. The files in /mnt have been scanned and added to the locate database.
E. The kernel thinks that a process is about to open a file in /mnt for reading.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 15
Which of the following commands changes the ownership of file.txt to the user dan and the group staff?
A. chown dan/staff file.txt
B. chown dan:staff file.txt
C. chown -u dan -g staff file.txt
D. chown dan -g staff file.txt
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 16
What is the default action of the split command on an input file?
A. It will break the file into new files of 1,024 byte pieces each.
B. It will break the file into new files of 1,000 line pieces each.
C. It will break the file into new files of 1,024 kilobyte pieces each.
D. It will break the file into new files that are no more than 5% of the size of the original file.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 17
When running the command
sed -e “s/a/b/” /tmp/file >/tmp/file
While /tmp/file contains data, why is /tmp/file empty afterwards?
A. The file order is incorrect. The destination file must be mentioned before the command to ensure redirection.
B. The command sed did not match anything in that file therefore the output is empty.
C. When the shell establishes the redirection it overwrites the target file before the redirected command starts and
opens it for reading.
D. Redirection for shell commands do not work using the > character. It only works using the | character instead.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 18
Which of the following kernel parameters instructs the kernel to suppress most boot messages?
A. silent
B. verbose=0
C. nomesg
D. quiet
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 19
Which umask value will result in the default access permissions of 600 (rw——-) for files and 700 (rwx——) for
directories? (Specify only the numerical umask value.)
Correct Answer: 0077, 077


QUESTION 20
Which of the following characters can be combined with a separator string in order to read from the current input source
until the separator string, which is on a separate line and without any trailing spaces, is reached?
A.

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Latest effective CompTIA Linux+ LX0-102 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
When generating new authentication keys with SSH for a user, where should the private key be kept?
A. On any trusted system from which the user will login.
B. On a CD-ROM or USB stick.
C. Printed and kept in a secure place.
D. Only on the computer where the key was created.
E. SSH does not use private keys.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
An administrator decides to use xinetd instead of inetd. Now, the administrator needs to transfer information from
/etc/inetd.conf to another file. What file must be created or edited? (Please specify the full path).
Correct Answer: /ETC/XINETD.CONF


QUESTION 3
Which of the following commands can be used to convert text files in one character encoding to another character
encoding?
A. cat
B. convert
C. dd
D. iconv
E. utf2utf
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
An administrator wants to temporarily prevent users from logging in. Please complete the following commanD. touch
/etc/______
Correct Answer: NOLOGIN


QUESTION 5
The _________ command is used to assign an IP address to a device. (Please specify a single command with or
without path information)
Correct Answer: /SBIN/IFCONFIG
/SBIN/IFCONFIG, /SBIN/IP, IFCONFIG, IP


QUESTION 6
The xinetd service will be used instead of inetd. In order to create a similar configuration as inetd, what main file must be
created or edited for xinetd? (Please specify the full path)
Correct Answer: /etc/xinetd.conf


QUESTION 7
Please specify the top directory containing the configuration files for the CUPS printing system. (Provide the full path to
the directory)
Correct Answer: /etc/cups
/etc/cups, /etc/cups/


QUESTION 8
An administrator suspects that a gateway machine on the network has failed but they are unsure which machine. Which
of the following commands will help locate the problem?
A. ps
B. netstat
C. nslookup
D. ifconfig
E. traceroute
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 9
The legacy program, provided by CUPS for sending files to the printer queues on the command line is:
A. lpd
B. lpp
C. lpq
D. lpr
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
An ISP has given an executive an IP block for their use. The block is 192.168.112.64/27. If the network administrator
uses the first usable IP for the router that is installed on the executive\\’s network, how many usable IPs are left?
(Please enter the number and not a word)
Correct Answer: 29


QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the purpose of the nsswitch.conf file?
A. It is used to configure where the C library looks for system information such as host name services and user
passwords.
B. It is used to configure network protocol port numbers such as for HTTP or SMTP.
C. It is used to configure LDAP authentication services for the local system.
D. It is used to configure which network services will be turned on during the next system reboot.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
On a system running the K Display Manager, when is the /etc/kde4/kdm/Xreset script automatically executed?
A. When KDM starts
B. When a user\\’s X session exists
C. When KDM crashes
D. When X is restarted
E. When X crashes
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which of the following benefits does an alias provide?
A. It provides faster lookups for commands.
B. It prevents having to type long commands
C. It hides from others the command that is being run.
D. It creates a local copy of a file from another directory.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 14
According to the FHS, where are user mailboxes kept? Assume that mail is not being delivered to somewhere in their
home directories.
A. /var/spool
B. /etc/mail
C. /var/mail
D. /usr/mail
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 15
Which protocol uses two (2) TCP/IP ports one of them being port 20 for data transfer? (Please do not enter duplicate
answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: FTP


QUESTION 16
Which of the following is NOT contained in the locale setting of the operating system?
A. Currency symbol
B. Language
C. Timezone
D. Thousands separator
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 17
A department decided to change the Gnome Display Manager\\’s greeting. Which of the following configuration files
should an administrator edit?
A. /etc/gnome/greeting
B. /opt/gnome/share/greeting
C. /etc/X11/gmd.conf
D. /etc/X11/gdm/Init/Default
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 18
With IPv6, how many bits have been used for the host identifier portion of an address? (Please enter the number and
not a word)
Correct Answer: 64


QUESTION 19
Which of the following commands is used on the command line to send messages to the syslog systems.
A. lastlog
B. klog
C. logger
D. slog
E. syslog
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 20
To slave the NTP daemon to an external source, an administrator needs to modify the ______ variable in the
/etc/ntp.conf file.
Correct Answer: SERVER


QUESTION 21
After configuring printing on a Linux server, the administrator sends a test file to one of the printers and it fails to print.
What command can be used to print the status of the printer\\’s queue? (Provide only the command, without any options
or parameters).
Correct Answer: /USR/BIN/LPQ
/USR/BIN/LPQ, LPQ


QUESTION 22
Which of the following configuration files does sudo read when determining if a user is permitted to run applications with
root privileges?
A. /etc/groups
B. /etc/passwd
C. /etc/sudoers
D. /etc/sudo.conf
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 23
Which of the following outputs will the below command sequence produce? echo \\’1 2 3 4 5 6\\’ | while read a b c; do
echo result: $c $b $a; done
A. result: 3 4 5 6 2 1
B. result: 1 2 3 4 5 6
C. result: 6 5 4
D. result: 6 5 4 3 2 1
E. result: 3 2 1
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 24
Correct Answer: /usr/bin/lsof
lsof, /usr/bin/lsof


QUESTION 25
Identify the statement that would create a default route using a gateway of 192.168.1.1.
A. netstat -add default gw 192.168.1.1
B. route add default gw 192.168.1.1
C. ip route default 192.168.1.1
D. route default gw 192.168.1.1
E. ifconfig default gw 192.168.1.1 eth0
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 26
The ________ command is used to add a group to the system. (Please enter only a single command and do not enter
duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /USR/SBIN/GROUPADD
/USR/SBIN/GROUPADD, GROUPADD


QUESTION 27
Which of the following is pool.ntp.org?
A. A deprecated feature for maintaining system time in the Linux kernel.
B. A website which provides binary and source packages for the OpenNTPD project.
C. A virtual cluster of various timeservers.
D. A community website used to discuss the localization of Linux.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 28
Which of the following describes the Linux ping packet or datagram?
A. IP packet with a packet type
B. ICMP packet with a message type
C. ICMP packet with a payload
D. UDP datagram with a protocol type
E. UDP datagram with a payload
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 29
An executive\\’s ISP has given an IP block for their use. The block is 192.168.112.64/29. If the network administrator
uses the first usable IP for the router that is installed on the executive\\’s network, how many usable IPs are left?
(Please enter the number and not a word)
Correct Answer: 5


QUESTION 30
Which of the following files, when using Sendmail or a similar MTA system, will allow a user to redirect all their mail to
another address and is configurable by the user themselves?
A. /etc/alias
B. /etc/mail/forwarders
C. ~/.alias
D. ~/.forward
Correct Answer: D

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Latest effective Cisco Account manager 700-651 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco product is a premised-based, cloud-managed telephone platform that targets the SMB market for partner
recurring revenue?
A. Cisco Hybrid Media Services
B. Cisco Business Edition 6000
C. Cisco Spark Flex Plan
D. Cisco Business Edition 4000
Correct Answer: D
Cisco launched a new premise-based, cloud-managed telephony platform targeting the SMB market. The new Cisco
Business Edition 4000 provides affordable telephony and voice mail for up to 200 devices, according to Trollope. https://
www.crn.com/slide-shows/networking/300082686/5-new-cisco-collaboration-plays-aimed-at-driving-sales-recurring-
revenue-for-partners.htm/pgno/0/1


QUESTION 2
Which option does BYOx refer to?
A. bring your own application
B. bring your own XML
C. bring your own device
D. bring your own experience
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which option do all aspects of the Unified Communications and Collaboration system rely on?
A. licensing that is purchased
B. administrator security rights
C. proper design and deployment of the system architecture
D. proper delegation of tasks during the sales cycle and deployment
Correct Answer: C
All aspects of the Unified Communications and Collaboration System, including call routing, call control, applications
and services, and operations and serviceability, rely heavily on proper design and deployment of the system
architecture.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab09/clb09/ovarchit.pdf


QUESTION 4
For which purpose was the Cisco Spark Flex Plan designed?
A. to simplify the transition to cloud-based collaboration solutions
B. to simplify the transition to hybrid-based collaboration solutions
C. to simplify the transition to all collaboration solutions
D. to simplify the transition to premises-based collaboration solutions
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which options are the Cisco user-based license models?
A. Cisco UWL and Cisco UCL
B. Cisco WUL and Cisco CUL
C. Cisco Flex Plans
D. Cisco User Integration and Adoption Plans
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
Which purpose of the Quick Pricing tool is true?
A. It obtains general design best practices.
B. It provides pricing guidance on the optimal solution.
C. It builds the BOM for you.
D. It provides detailed design options for Cisco Collaboration.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
For on-premises deployments, which option does Cisco recommend for a consistent one meeting experience and full
interoperability\\’?
A. Cisco Telepresence Server
B. Cisco Meeting Server
C. Cisco Expressway
D. Cisco Conductor
Correct Answer: B
Cisco Meeting Server provides a consistent one-meeting experience for every meeting attendee, as well as open
interoperability, all based on a highly scalable software architecture supporting business-quality meetings from mobile
through immersive via audio, video, and web. The software has two major elements: the server software and an
extension of the server in the form of an app/client that Knowledge Workers use to access and control their meetings.
Cisco Meeting Server supports standards-based video endpoints, including the Cisco portfolio of telepresence
endpoints as well as third-party solutions such as Skype for Business. It includes Personal Multiparty (PMP) and Shared
Multiparty (SMP) licenses, Multibrand license, and Recording port licenses
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/spark-flex-plan/datasheet-c78-740394.pdf


QUESTION 8
Which option lists the components of Cisco Spark?
A. messaging and meeting
B. messaging, meeting, and collaboration
C. messaging, meeting and calling
D. messaging, calling, and collaboration
Correct Answer: C
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en_us/about/doing_business/legal/service_descriptions/docs/Cisco-Spark-Offer-
Description.pdf
Cisco Spark Services is a subscription-based offer hosted in the Cisco cloud that provides Subscriber access to our end-
to-end suite of collaboration software (“Cisco Spark Services”). Cisco Spark Flex Plan is a flexible way to subscribe to
Cisco Spark across a variety of deployment models and buying models. Under the Cisco Spark Flex Plan you can
choose between Cisco-hosted cloud services and licensed software for on-premises or partner-hosted solutions, and
you can mix or flexibly migrate from one deployment or buying model to another under one subscription (“Cisco Spark
Flex Plan”). The three core Cisco Spark Services capabilities are messaging, meeting, and calling.


QUESTION 9
Which feature of SWSS eliminates the need to repurchase software licenses?
A. software updates
B. expert support
C. license portability
D. license updates
Correct Answer: C
When purchased with Cisco ONETM Software, SWSS provides support for license portability. During a hardware
refresh, this allows you to reassign license entitlements from one hardware platform to another and eliminates the need
to purchase new software licenses.
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en_us/services/portfolio/documents/support-service-qa.pdf


QUESTION 10
How is transactional revenue procured?
A. through a subscription-based model
B. through a one-time transaction
C. through a time-building model
D. through massive marketing campaigns
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which option do you need to apply a customer budget to products?
A. knowledge of who the decision makers are
B. clear understanding of the end goal
C. if the customer has any flexibility in their budget to buy additional products as needed
D. what licenses apply to each product
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
Which Cisco UCL plans support all Cisco user devices?
A. Basic and Enhanced
B. Enhanced and Enhanced Plus
C. Essential and Enhanced Plus
D. Essential and Basic
Correct Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmfeat/CUCM_BK_F3AC1C0F_00_cucm-f
eatures-services-guide-100/CUCM_BK_F3AC1C0F_00_cucm-features-services-
guide100_chapter_0100101.html#CUCM_RF_U75FBF1E_00


QUESTION 13
Which components of the on-premises collaboration solution offer IP firewall traversal for B2B and B2C calling?
A. Cisco Expressway Core and Expressway Edge
B. Cisco Telepresence Conductor
C. Cisco Telepresence Server
D. Cisco Unity Connection server
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 14
How is recurring revenue procured?
A. through a time-building model
B. through a one-time transaction
C. through a subscription-based model
D. through massive marketing campaigns
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 15
Which Cisco platform provides all of the applications and integrations that other vendors have built?
A. Hybrid Media Services
B. Cisco API and Bot Plan
C. Spark Depot Marketplace
D. Cisco Spark Flex Plan
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
What are the three key issues that customers with compliance standards issues are dealing with? (Choose three.)
A. Lack of access policies
B. Government controlled security
C. E-mail exposure
D. Device incompatibility
E. Malware attacks
F. Network visibility
Correct Answer: ADF


QUESTION 2
Whichare three small budget customer concerns? (Choose three.)
A. Budget is controlled by sales
B. Licenses are too cheap
C. Multiple devices are leaving a gap in security
D. Products are not packages together
E. Solutions are not prioritized to threats
F. Security budget has been decreasing
Correct Answer: ACF


QUESTION 3
Which are three attack vectors of thethreat-centric defense? (Choose three.)
A. SaaS apps
B. Cloud apps
C. E-mail
D. Voicemail
E. Mobile
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 4
Which three are key points from the Threat-Centric module? (Choose three)
A. The Cisco Security Portfolio provide security across the entire business environment
B. Cisco Security provides direct, simple, and balanced detection by driving customer outcomes
C. Customers are searching for security answers without interrupting productivity
D. Cisco Security is the#1 threat model
E. Cisco Security provides flexible, simple, and integrated advanced threat detection, through a multilayered approach
F. Aneffective security solution can help overcome ever-growing security challenges
Correct Answer: BDE


QUESTION 5
Which three options are a result of utilizing a fragmented security model? (Choose three.)
A. Cyber criminals have decreased access to applications
B. Multiple points of access that can be exploited by cyber criminals
C. Patchworked applications that continually increase in complexity
D. Decreased network accessibility through multiple applications
E. Individual components pieced together that are incompatible
F. Additional fragmentation reduces the risk from malicious files
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 6
Which are two key solutions and features of the Campus and Branch threat-centric solution? (Choose two.)
A. Behavioral Indication of Compromise
B. File Retrospection and Trajectory
C. Network Analytics
D. Enabled and protected investments
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 7
What three types of solutions are provided in the Cisco security portfolio? (Choose three)
A. Cloud Security
B. Policy and Access
C. E-mail Analytics
D. Advanced Threat
E. SaaS and Cloud Platform
F. Firewall Security
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 8
What NGIPS appliance would you use if your customer is at the enterprise level and requires modular architecture that
is scalable?
A. Cisco 4000 series ISR
B. FirePOWER 8000 series
C. ASA 7000 series
D. Cisco 800 series ISR
E. FirePOWER 2100 series
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which two attack vectors protected by Cyber Threat Defense and Network Analytics? (Choose two )
A. Web
B. E-mail
C. Campus and Branch
D. Voicemail
E. Cloud apps
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 10
What business outcomes are most customers driving to achieve in response to the current security threat landscape?
A. Increased scalability blocking only current threats:enabled business
B. Complete protection, visibility control and enabled business
C. Increased scalability visibility and control, blocking only current threats
D. Complete protection, increased fragmentation, enabled business
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
Which are three Cloud Security products? (Choose three)
A. Meraki
B. Investigate
C. NGFWv(Virtual)
D. Cisco Umbrella
E. Cloudlock
F. Web Security
Correct Answer: BDE


QUESTION 12
Which are two attack vectors protected by DNS-Layer security? (Choose two.)
A. Mobile
B. Webmail
C. Cloud technology
D. E-mail
E. Voicemail
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 13
Which are three key solutions and features of the Datacenter threat-centric solution? (Choose three.)
A. Global ThreatIntelligence
B. Data center defense policy enforcement
C. Constant threat protection at all levels
D. Enhanced visibility of data, user, and device behavior
E. Enabled scalability and capability across the business
F. File Reputation
Correct Answer: CDE


QUESTION 14
Which are two key points of the Partner Value Proposition module? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Partner Ecosystem provides partners with the right knowledge, resources, and tools to drive a
successfulsecurity practice.
B. The security market is growing and the increasing complexity in protecting customer environments is driving demand
for specialized partners.
C. The Cisco Security Solutions Portfolio drives customer business outcomes by providing threat-centric defense,
visibility and control, and flexible solutions
D. The collaboration between partners and the Ecosystem is pivotal in supporting customers to drive business
outcomes.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 15
Which is the issue you are dealing with,when a customer has a different user groups that needs distinct levels of access
to data?
A. Limited mobility
B. Growing business
C. Vulnerable cloud
D. Small budget
E. Compliance issue
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 16
How does Cisco TrustSec help secure sensitive data and regulating network access?
A. E-mail security
B. Provide customer choice
C. Traffic tagging
D. Leverage file reputation
E. Ensure compliance
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 17
What are two ways Cisco helps partners Go-To-Market? (Choose two.)
A. Logo and brand creation
B. An evolving threat mitigation software
C. Reduced cost of entry
D. A customerengagement platform
E. Training and specializations
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 18
Which are three key security vectors customers need to monitor to overcome security challenges? (Choose three.)
A. Data Center
B. Hackers Device
C. SaaS and Cloud Platform
D. Campus and Branch
E. Cloud Apps
F. Malware Protection
Correct Answer: ADF


QUESTION 19
Which are three key products andbenefits of the endpoints threat-centric solution? (Choose three )
A. AnyConnect
B. URL Sampling
C. URL Filtering
D. Enhanced access and usage control with ISE
E. CRD and Network Analytics
F. Increased flexibility across device environments with Cisco Umbrella
Correct Answer: ADF


QUESTION 20
What NGFW appliance would you use if your customer is a small business thatrequires multilayered protection and task
automation?
A. FirePOWER 3100 series
B. ASA 4100 series
C. ASA 5500-X with FirePOWER
D. Cisco 500 series ISR
E. Cisco 4000 series NGIPS
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Wireless
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Exam Code: 200-355
Total Questions: 504 Q&As

Useful Cisco CCNA Wireless 200-355 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
What is max power for an AP for all regulatory bodies?
A. 10
B. 8
C. 1
D. X
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
How Cisco spectrum analyzer analyse the scanned data?
A. Store scanned data during wifi scan and analyze later.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the deployment that requires least amount of hardware installed on the site?
A. Cloud
B. Converged
C. Centralized
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What command can be used on the WLC to show the logs (or something) for an AP with the name Cisco_AP?
A. show logging
B. show ap eventlog Cisco_AP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the command used to debug an AP that is not able to join the WLC?
A. debug capwap events enable (on the WLC)
B. debug capwap events enable (on the AP)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What are the channels you need to avoid not to have interference with DFS channels? (Choose 3)
A. 52
B. 136
C. 124
D. 161
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
What is required from the deployment when using voice or video applications? (Choose 3)
A. RSSI cell edge of -25
B. RSSI cell edge of -16
C. SNR of 25
D. Cell Overlap of 20%
E. RSSI -67
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 8
What are the sources of interference you will find when conducting a site survery before deployment? 200-355 dumps (Choose 3)
A. Bluetooth Headset
B. Microwave Ovens
C. Analog Wireless Camera
D. AdHoc Wireless Camera
E. AdHoc Hotspot
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
What are reqs for VoWLAN?
A. RSSI -67
B. SNR 25
C. 20% overlapping cells
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is SNR needed for 54 Mbps?
A. SNR 25
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is max level in Cisco WLC TPC for all regulatory domain?
A. 1
B. 8
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Engineer needs an LAP to support few WLANs with different DHCP servers for different SSIDs, how to fulfill this requirement?
A. configuring dynamic VLAN interfacesto SSIDs in AP group.
B. configure DHCP in AP settings advanced page
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which wireless survey you do considering the “infrastructure” in the building?
A. Passive
B. Active
C. Planning
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What are the minimum requirements to operate cisco 7925 wireless phone? (Choose 3)
A. RSSI -67
B. SNR 25
C. 20% cell overlapping
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
Which WLC menu you use the check the assigned power level of an AP?
A. Wireless
B. Management
C. Controller
D. Monitor.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
How much wireless cell overlapping is required for 5GHz voice and data roaming?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which CLI command you use in WLC to update the running IOS?
A. TFTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What is the maximum power level for AP in any regularity domain?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
How much SNR needed to reach 54Mbps in 802.11g network?
A. 25
B. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What three authentication methods are generally used in enterprise wireless networks? (Choose three.)
A. AES
B. CCKM
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
E. PEAP
F. WEP
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 21
Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is displayed on Cisco IOS routers?
A. show config
B. show run config
C. show run-config
D. show running config
E. show running-config
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 22
Which four parameters need to be configured for local EAP-FAST on the controller? (Choose four.)
A. Authority ID
B. Authority ID Information
C. Client Key
D. PAC
E. Server Key
F. TTL for PAC
G. Monitor Key
H. NTP Source
Correct Answer: ABEF

QUESTION 23
Which CLI command would you use on the Cisco WLC to display detailed information for a client associated with a lightweight access point?
A. debug dot11
B. show arp switch
C. show client detailed
D. show exclusionlist
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which statement applies to TKIP?
A. is part of the initial key exchange used to derive a pairwise temporal key
B. is used to encrypt a WEP authenticated session
C. is used to encrypt the data for WPA sessions
D. is used to secure the initial authentication credential exchange between client and authenticator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
What does the current European Telecommunications Standards Institute rule state is the 2.4-GHz maximum transmitter output power for point-to-point installations? 200-355 dumps
A. 16 dBm
B. 17 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 30 dBm
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to 750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN controllers.
B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which modulation technique allows you to achieve a data rate of 54Mb/s in the 2.4GHz-band?
A. Complimentary Code Keying
B. Differential Binary Phase Shift Keying
C. Differential Quadrature Phase Shift Keying
D. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero?
A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Clients are never excluded.
C. Client exclusion is disabled.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
An indoor 1240 AP is booting and has obtained an IP address using DHCP. The AP has confirmed prior controller IP addresses from a previously joined mobility group stored in NVRAM.
What is the next step the AP performs?
A. DHCP option 43.
B. DNS resolution of CISCO-LWAPP-CONTROLLER.localdomain.
C. Layer 2 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
D. Layer 3 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
E. Ping each Cisco WLC to verify its current status.
F. Select a Cisco WLC based on its position in the configured join selection sequence.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which AP to Wireless LAN Controller discovery process requires a previous association of the AP with a Cisco WLC?
A. AP priming
B. defining a master controller
C. DHCP Option 6
D. DHCP Option 43
Correct Answer: A

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