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[Updated June 2022] Lead4Pass AZ-900 dumps | Provide free practice questions

June 12, 2022May 5, 2023 exam

Lead4Pass AZ-900 dumps provide candidates with up-to-date and valid exam materials! And with PDF and VCE two learning formats, they both contain the latest exam questions and answers, you can choose arbitrarily!
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Type	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code
Free	13	Microsoft Azure Fundamentals	AZ-900

QUESTION 1:

HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No
Resource groups are logical containers for Azure resources. You do not pay for resource groups.

Box 2: No
Data ingress over a VPN is data ‘coming in’ to Azure over the VPN. You are not charged data transfer costs for data ingress.

Box 3: Yes
Data egress over a VPN is data ‘going out’ of Azure over the VPN. You are charged for data egress.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/manage-resource-groups-portal
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/bandwidth/

QUESTION 2:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/management/lock-resources

QUESTION 3:

Note: The question is included in a number of questions that depicts the identical set-up. However, every question has a distinctive result. Establish if the solution satisfies the requirements.

You are planning a strategy to deploy numerous web servers and database servers to Azure.
This strategy should allow for connection types between the web servers and database servers to be controlled.

Solution: You include network security groups (NSGs) in your strategy.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 5:

DRAG DROP

Your company intends to subscribe to an Azure support plan.
The support plan must allow for new support requests to be opened.

Which of the following are support plans that will allow this? Answer by dragging the correct option from the list to the answer area.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/support/plans/

QUESTION 6:

You have 1,000 virtual machines hosted on the Hyper-V hosts in a data center. You plan to migrate all the virtual machines to an Azure pay-as-you-go subscription. You need to identify which expenditure model to use for the planned Azure solution.

Which expenditure model should you identify?

A. operational

B. elastic

C. capital

D. scalable

Correct Answer: A

One of the major changes that you will face when you move from the on-premises cloud to the public cloud is the switch from capital expenditure (buying hardware) to operating expenditure (paying for service as you use it).

This switch also requires more careful management of your costs. The benefit of the cloud is that you can fundamentally and positively affect the cost of a service you use by merely shutting down or resizing it when it\’s not needed.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/cloud-adoption/appendix/azure-scaffold

QUESTION 7:

You need to be notified when Microsoft plans to perform maintenance that can affect the resources deployed to an Azure subscription.

What should you use?

A. Azure Monitor

B. Azure Service Health

C. Azure Advisor

D. Microsoft Trust Center

Correct Answer: B

Azure Service Health provides a personalized view of the health of the Azure services and regions you\’re using. This is the best place to look for service-impacting communications about outages, planned maintenance activities, and other health advisories because the authenticated Service Health experience knows which services and resources you currently use.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-health/overview

QUESTION 8:

Which service provides network traffic filtering across multiple Azure subscriptions and virtual networks?

A. Azure Firewall

B. an application security group

C. Azure DDoS protection

D. a network security group (NSG)

Correct Answer: A

You can restrict traffic to multiple virtual networks in multiple subscriptions with a single Azure firewall.

Azure Firewall is a managed, cloud-based network security service that protects your Azure Virtual Network resources.

It\’s a fully stateful firewall as a service with built-in high availability and unrestricted cloud scalability.
You can centrally create, enforce, and log application and network connectivity policies across subscriptions and virtual networks. Azure Firewall uses a static public IP address for your virtual network resources allowing outside firewalls to identify traffic originating from your virtual network.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/firewall/overview

QUESTION 9:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No
Not all Azure regions support availability zones.

Box 2: No
Availability zones can be used with many Azure services, not just VMs.

Box 3: No

Availability Zones are unique physical locations within a single Azure region.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/availability-zones/az-region#azure-regions-with-availability-zones

QUESTION 10:

Your company has data centers in Los Angeles and New York. The company has a Microsoft Azure subscription. You are configuring the two data centers as geo-clustered sites for site resiliency.

You need to recommend an Azure storage redundancy option. You have the following data storage requirements:

1.
Data must be stored on multiple nodes.

2.
Data must be stored on nodes in separate geographic locations.

3.
Data can be read from the secondary location as well as from the primary location Which of the following Azure stored redundancy options should you recommend?

A. Geo-redundant storage

B. Read-only geo-redundant storage

C. Zone-redundant storage

D. Locally redundant storage

Correct Answer: B

RA-GRS allows you to have higher read availability for your storage account by providing “read-only” access to the data replicated to the secondary location. Once you enable this feature, the secondary location may be used to achieve higher availability in the event the data is not available in the primary region. This is an “opt-in” feature that requires the storage account to be geo-replicated.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy-grs#read-access-geo- redundant-storage

QUESTION 11:

HOTSPOT

To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Azure Resource Manager templates provide a common platform for deploying objects to a cloud infrastructure and for implementing consistency across the Azure environment.

Azure policies are used to define rules for what can be deployed and how it should be deployed. Whilst this can help in ensuring consistency, Azure policies do not provide a common platform for deploying objects to a cloud infrastructure.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview

QUESTION 12:

HOTSPOT

To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 13:

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

…

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HPE6-A81 Exam Dumps [2022] Aruba Certified ClearPass Expert Written Exam Materials

June 6, 2022June 6, 2022 exam

The HPE6-A81 exam dumps maps to the Aruba Certified ClearPass Specialist written exam objectives:
Design, configure and troubleshoot various ClearPass products commonly used in large-scale customer deployments. This includes ClearPass Policy Manager, Guest, Analytics, Onboarding, Onguard, Status, Clustering, Redundancy, and External Server Integration.

Aruba Certified ClearPass Expert Written Exam, one of the top IT certifications in 2022. Using Lead4Pass HPE6-A81 Exam Dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/hpe6-a81.html, the page contains
PDF and VCE’s most popular study tools to help you successfully pass the Aruba Certified ClearPass Expert Written Exam.

Aruba Certified ClearPass Expert Written Exam Materials have been verified by subject matter experts to be authentic and effective, and the HPE6-A81 Dumps exam questions meet the requirements of the real core exam questions and are passed the Aruba Certified ClearPass Expert Written Exam the best material.

Details of the HPE6-A81 exam you need to know:

Vendor: HP
Exam Code: HPE6-A81
Exam Name: Aruba Certified ClearPass Expert Written Exam
Certification: Aruba Certified ClearPass Professional (ACCP)
Number of questions: 60
Types of questions: multiple responses, single response
Exam duration: 2 hours
Passing score: 65%
Languages: English
Exam Type: Proctored

Next, get a portion of the hpe6-a81 exam dumps for free:

QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit:

You have configured Onboard and cannot get it working The customer has sent you the above screenshots.

How would you resolve the issue?

A. Re-provision the client by running the QuickConnect application as Administrator

B. Install a public signed server authentication certificate on the ClearPass server for EAP

C. Reconnect the client and select the correct certificate when prompted

D. Copy the [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] authentication method and set the correct OCSP URL

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

You are integrating a Postgres SQL server with the ClearPass Policy Manager.

What steps will you follow to complete the integration process? (Select three)

A. Click on the default filter name with pre-defined filter queries and check the box to enable as role.

B. Specify a new filter with filter queries to fetch authentication and authorization attributes.

C. Attribute Name under filter configuration must match one of the columns being requested from the database table.

D. Create a new Endpoint context server and add the SQL server IP, credentials, and database name.

E. Alias Name under filter configuration must match one of the columns being requested from the database table.

F. Create a new authentication source and add the SQL server IP, credentials, and database name.

Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 3:

A customer has completed all the required configurations in the Windows server in order for Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) to sign Onboard device TLS certificates.

The Onboard portal and the Onboard services are also configured.

Testing shows that the Client certificates ate still signed by the Onboard Certificate Authority and not ADCS.

How can you help the customer with the situation?

A. Educate the customer that, when integrating with Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) the Onboard CA will the same authority used for signing me final TLS certificate of the device.

B. Configure the identity certificate signer as Active Directory Certificate Services and enter the ADCS URL
http://ADCSVVeoEnrollmentServemostname/certsrv in the OnBoard Provisioning settings.

C. Enable access to EST servers from the Certificate Authority to make ClearPass Onboard to use of the Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) web enrollment to sign the device TLS certificates.

D. Enable access to SCEP servers from the Certificate Authority to make ClearPass Onboard to use of the Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) web enrollment to sign the device TLS certificates.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

How does the RadSec improve the RADIUS message exchange? (Select two.)

A. It can be used on an unsecured network or the Internet.

B. It builds a TTLS tunnel between the NAD and ClearPass.

C. Only the NAD needs to trust the ClearPass Certificate.

D. It encrypts the entire RADIUS message.

E. It uses UDP to exchange the radius packets.

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5:

A customer has deployed an OnGuard Solution to all the corporate devices using a group policy rule to push the OnGuard Agents.

The network administrator is complaining that some of the agents are communicating to the ClearPass server that is located in a DMZ, outside the firewall The network administrator wants all of the agents System Health Validation traffic to stay inside the Management subnets.

What can the ClearPass administrator do to move the traffic only to the ClearPass Management Ports?

A. Edit the agent.conf file being deployed to the clients to use the ClearPass Management Port for SHV updates.

B. Select the correct OnGuard Agent installer, and use the one configured for Management Port for the clients.

C. Configure a Policy Manager Zone mapping so the OnGuard agent will use the Management Port IP.

D. Filter TCP port 6658 on the firewall, forcing the OnGuard agent to use the ClearPass Management port.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

A customer is complaining that some of the devices, in their manufacturing network, are not getting profiled while other loT devices from the same subnet have been correctly profiled.

The network switches have been configured for DHCP IP helpers and IF-MAP has been configured on the Aruba Controllers.

What can the customer do to discover those devices as well? (Select two.)

A. Update the Fingerprints Dictionary to the latest in case new devices have been added.

B. Open a TAC case to help you troubleshoot the DHCP device profile functionality.

C. Add the ClearPass Server IP as an IP helper-address on the default gateway as well.

D. Allow time for IF-MAP service on the controller to discover the new devices as well.

E. Manually create a new device fingerprint for the devices that are not being profiled.

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7:

You have recently implemented a serf-registration portal in ClearPass Guest to be used on a Guest SSID broadcast from an Aruba controller. Your customer has started complaining that the users are not able to reliably access the internet after clicking the login button on the receipt page.

They tell you that the users will click the login button multiple times and alter about a minute they gain access.

What could be causing this issue?

A. The self-registration page is configured with a 1-minute login delay.

B. The guest client is delayed getting an IP address from the DHCP server.

C. The guest users are assigned a firewall user role that has a rate limit.

D. The enforcement profile on ClearPass is set up with an lETF:session delay.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

You have configured a Guest SSID with Captive-portal Web Authentication and MAC authentication The MAC caching expiry time set to 12 hours and the Guest Account expiration time is set to 8 hours.

What will happen if the guest were to disconnect from the SSID and re-connect 9 hours later?

A. The client will tail the MAC authentication and be denied access to the Guest SSID.

B. The client will successfully pass the mac authentication until the mac caching time expires.

C. The client will successfully pass the MAC authentication but still be redirected to captive portal page.

D. The client will fail the MAC authentication and will be redirected to the Captive-portal login page.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9:

Refer to the exhibit:

When creating a new report, there is an option to send report Notifications by Email.

Where is the email server configured?

A. In the ClearPass Policy Manager Endpoint Context servers under Administration.

B. In the Insight Reports Interface under Administration on the sidebar menu.

C. In the insight report on the next screen of the report definition.

D. In the ClearPass Policy Manager Messaging setup under Administration.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

Refer to the exhibit:

A customer has configured onboard in a cluster with two nodes All devices were onboarded in the network through node1 but those clients tail to authenticate through node2 with the error shown.

What steps would you suggest to make provisioning and authentication work across the entire cluster? (Select three.)

A. Have all of the BYOD clients re-run the Onboard process

B. Configure the Onboard Root CA to trust the Policy Manager EAP certificate root.

C. Have all of the BYOD clients disconnect and reconnect to me network

D. Make sure that the EAP certificates on both nodes are issued by one common root Certificate Authority (CA).

E. Make sure that the HTTPS certificate on both nodes is issued as a Code Signing certificate

F. Configure the Network Settings in Onboard to trust the Policy Manager EAP certificate

Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 11:

A Customer has these requirements:
*
2.000 loT endpoints that use MAC authentication
*
6,000 endpoints using a mix of username/password and certificate (Corporate/BYOD) based authentication
*
1,000 guest endpoints at peak usage that use guest self-registration
*
1500 BYOD devices estimated as 3 devices per User (500 users)
*
2,500 endpoints that have OnGuard installed and connect on a daily basis

What licenses should be installed to meet customer requirements?

A. 11,500 Access, 500 Onboard, 2,500 Onguard

B. 13.000 Access, 1.500 Onboard, 2,500 Onguard

C. 11,500 Access, 1,500 Onboard, 2.500 Onguard

D. 9,000 Access, 500 Onboard. 2.500 Onguard

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12:

What type of EAP certificate are you able to use on ClearPass? (Select two.)

A. Self signed, when all the clients are Onboarded with the same Root CA as the Self signed certificate.

B. Private signed, when the clients are onboarded or are part of the organization domain.

C. Private signed, when some clients are onboarded and some are not part of the organization.

D. Public signed, when not all of the clients are part of the organization domain.

E. Self signed, when all the clients are part of the organization domain.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13:

A customer is looking to implement a Web-Based Health Check solution with the following requirements:

for the HR user\’s client devices, check if a USB stick is mounted.
for the RandD user\’s client devices, check if the hard disk is fully encrypted.
The Web-Based Health Check service has been configured but the customer it is not sure how to design
the Profile Policy.
How can be accomplished this customer request?

A. create two Posture Policies and customize the OnGuard Agent (Persistent or Dissolvable) to select the correct SHV checks

B. create one Posture Policy and define Rules Conditions that will apply different Tokens for each SHV check condition

C. create two Posture Policies and use the Restrict by Roles option to filter for HR and RandD user roles and apply the correct SHV checks

D. create one Posture Policy to check the HR users client devices and use the NAP Agent to check RandD users client devices

Correct Answer: A

……

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HPE6-A78 Dumps updated | Aruba Certified Network Security Associate Exam Materials

June 1, 2022June 1, 2022 exam

HPE6-A78 Dumps have been updated to be truly valid material for passing the Aruba Certified Network Security Associate Exam, and have been validated in the exam room to 100% help you pass the exam.
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HPE6-A78 Exam Summary:

Vendor: HP
Exam Code: HPE6-A78
Exam Name: Aruba Certified Network Security Associate
Certification: Aruba-ACNSA
Exam Duration: 1 hour 30 minutes
Passing score: 63%
Exam length: 60 questions
Language: Japanese, English, Latin American Spanish
HPE6-A78 dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/hpe6-a78.html
HPE6-A78 Dumps Questions: 60 Q&A
Official Information: https://certification-learning.hpe.com/TR/datacard/Exam/HPE6-A78

Read the following HPE6-A78 free exam questions and answers:

QUESTION 1:

You need to deploy an Aruba instant AP where users can physically reach It. What are two recommended options for enhancing security for management access to the AP? (Select two )

A. Disable Its console ports
B. Place a Tamper Evident Label (TELS) over its console port
C. Disable the Web Ul.
D. Configure WPA3-Enterpnse security on the AP
E. install a CA-signed certificate

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2:

You have an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC). for which you are already using Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to authenticate access to the Web Ul with usernames and passwords You now want to enable managers to use certificates to log in to the Web Ul CPPM will continue to act as the external server to check the names in managers\’ certificates and tell the MC the managers\’ correct rote in addition to enabling certificate authentication.

What is a step that you should complete on the MC?

A. Verify that the MC has the correct certificates, and add RadSec to the RADIUS server configuration for CPPM

B. install all of the managers\’ certificates on the MC as OCSP Responder certificates

C. Verify that the MC trusts CPPM\’s HTTPS certificate by uploading a trusted CA certificate Also, configure a CPPM username and password on the MC

D. Create a local admin account mat uses certificates in the account, specify the correct trusted CA certificate and external authentication

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

A company has Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Aruba Campus APs. and ArubaOS-CX switches. The company plans to use ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to classify endpoints by type The ClearPass admins tell you that they want to run Network scans as part of the solution.

What should you do to configure the infrastructure to support the scans?

A. Create a TA profile on the ArubaOS-Switches with the root CA certificate for ClearPass\’s HTTPS certificate

B. Create device fingerprinting profiles on the ArubaOS-Switches that include SNMP. and apply the profiles to edge ports

C. Create remote mirrors on the ArubaOS-Swrtches that collect traffic on edge ports, and mirror it to CPPM\’s IP address.

D. Create SNMPv3 users on ArubaOS-CX switches, and make sure that the credentials match those configured on CPPM

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4:

What role does the Aruba ClearPass Device Insight Analyzer play in the Device Insight architecture?

A. It resides in the cloud and manages licensing and configuration for Collectors
B. It resides on-prem and provides the span port to which traffic is mirrored for deep analytics.
C. It resides on-prem and is responsible for running active SNMP and Nmap scans
D. It resides In the cloud and applies machine learning and supervised crowdsourcing to metadata sent by Collectors

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5:

What correctly describes the Pairwise Master Key (PMK) in the specified wireless security protocol?

A. In WPA3-Enterprise, the PMK is unique per session and derived using Simultaneous Authentication of Equals.

B. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is unique per session and derived using Simultaneous Authentication of Equals.

C. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is derived directly from the passphrase and is the same tor every session.

D. In WPA3-Personal, the PMK is the same for each session and is communicated to clients that authenticate

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6:

Your Aruba Mobility Master-based solution has detected a rogue AP Among other information the ArubaOS Detected Radios page lists this Information for the AP SSID = PubllcWiFI
BSSID = a8M27 12 34:56 Match method = Exact match Match type = Eth-GW-wired-Mac-Table
The security team asks you to explain why this AP is classified as a rogue. What should you explain?

A. The AP Is connected to your LAN because It is transmitting wireless traffic with your network\’s default gateway\’s MAC address as a source MAC Because it does not belong to the company, it is a rogue

B. The ap has a BSSID mat matches authorized client MAC addresses. This indicates that the AP is spoofing the MAC address to gam unauthorized access to your company\’s wireless services, so It is a rogue

C. The AP has been detected as launching a DoS attack against your company\’s default gateway. This qualities it as a rogue which needs to be contained with wireless association frames immediately

D. The AP is spoofing a routers MAC address as its BSSID. This indicates mat, even though WIP cannot determine whether the AP is connected to your LAN. it is a rogue.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7:

Which attack is an example of social engineering?

A. An email Is used to impersonate a Dank and trick users into entering their bank login information on a fake website page.

B. A hacker eavesdrops on insecure communications, such as the Remote Desktop Program (RDP). and discovers login credentials.

C. A user visits a website and downloads a file that contains a worm, which sell-replicates throughout the network.

D. An attack exploits an operating system vulnerability and locks out users until they pay the ransom.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

What are the roles of 802.1X authenticators and authentication servers?

A. The authenticator stores the user account database, while the server stores access policies.
B. The authenticator supports only EAP, while the authentication server supports only RADIUS.
C. The authenticator is a RADIUS client and the authentication server is a RADIUS server.
D. The authenticator makes access decisions and the server communicates them to the supplicant.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9:

What is a Key feature of my ArubaOS firewall?

A. The firewall is stateful which means that n can track client sessions and automatically allow return traffic for permitted sessions

B. The firewall Includes application layer gateways (ALGs). which it uses to filter Web traffic based on the reputation of the destination website.

C. The firewall examines all traffic at Layer 2 through Layer 4 and uses source IP addresses as the primary way to determine how to control traffic.

D. The firewall is designed to fitter traffic primarily based on wireless 802.11 headers, making it ideal for mobility environments

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

What is a vulnerability of an unauthenticated Dime-Heliman exchange?

A. A hacker can replace the public values exchanged by the legitimate peers and launch an MITM attack.

B. A brute force attack can relatively quickly derive Diffie-Hellman private values if they are able to obtain public values

C. Diffie-Hellman with elliptic curve values is no longer considered secure in modem networks, based on NIST recommendations.

D. Participants must agree on a passphrase in advance, which can limit the usefulness of Diffie- Hell man in practical contexts.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

What is the benefit of deploying Aruba ClearPass Device insight?

A. Highly accurate endpoint classification for environments with many devices types, including Internet of Things (loT)

B. visibility into devices\’ 802.1X supplicant settings and automated certificate deployment

C. Agent-based analysts of devices\’ security settings and health status, with the ability to implement quarantining

D. Simpler troubleshooting of ClearPass solutions across an environment with multiple ClearPass Policy Managers

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

You need to ensure that only management stations in subnet 192.168.1.0/24 can access the ArubaOS-
Switches\’ CLI. Web Ul. and REST interfaces The company also wants to let managers use these stations to access other parts of the network.
What should you do?

A. Establish a Control Plane Policing class that selects traffic from 192.168 1.0/24.
B. Specify 192.168.1.0.255.255.255.0 as authorized IP manager address
C. Configure the switch to listen for these protocols on OOBM only.
D. Specify vlan 100 as the management vlan for the switches.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

How should admins deal with vulnerabilities that they find in their systems?

A. They should apply fixes, such as patches, to close the vulnerability before a hacker exploits it.
B. They should add the vulnerability to their Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE).
C. They should classify the vulnerability as malware. a DoS attack or a phishing attack.
D. They should notify the security team as soon as possible that the network has already been breached.

Correct Answer: A

……

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HPE2-W07 dumps [2022] Selling Aruba Products and Solutions exam material

May 30, 2022May 30, 2022 exam

HPE2-W07 dumps are the latest version for 2022 and are the real material for preparing for the Selling Aruba Products and Solutions exam

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HPE2-W07 Exam Summary:

HPE2-W07 is the Selling Aruba Products and Solutions exam code, Belongs to one of HPE Sales Certified. See more HPE2-W07 exam details:

Vendor: HP
Exam Code: HPE2-W07
Exam Name: Selling Aruba Products and Solutions
Certification: HPE Sales Certified
Duration: 1 hour 30 minutes
Languages: Korean, Japanese, English
Exam length: 60 questions
Passing score: 62%

Read the following HPE2-W07 free dumps, then select Lead4Pass HPE2-W07 dumps:

QUESTION 1:

You need to qualify a customer for an Aruba wireless solution.
What is one question that you should ask to start qualifying the customer?

A. What types of applications and workloads are experiencing issues?
B. Are you ready to drop your wired network and go all wireless?
C. How much budget do you have allocated for IoT and other initiatives?
D. How much in-house expertise do you have in 802.11ac and 802.1ax solutions?

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

A retailer has large stores that have Inconsistent 5G coverage, which leads to complaints from customers. The retailer wants a simple way to give customers the 5G experience. Which Aruba feature should you emphasize to address these goals?

A. Dynamic Segmentation
B. Air Pass
C. Smart Rate
D. Zero Touch Provisioning

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

What is one key advantage of Aruba wireless solutions as compared to Cisco Meraki solutions?

A. Aruba offers cloud subscription-based licensing for all APs while Cisco Meraki requires a significant CAPEX expenditure.

B. Aruba offers beamforming in APs to improve wireless coverage while Cisco Meraki APS does not support any such feature.

C. Aruba offers integration with an extensive ecosystem while Cisco Meraki offers little third-party integration.

D. Aruba offers one simple choice for management while Cisco Meraki has a confusing array of management options.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

You want to determine if a customer is a good prospect for an Aruba Meridian and beacon solution. What is one topic that you should discuss?

A. how much time do IT staff members spend performing basic troubleshooting and whether does this interferes with their ability to innovate

B. how IT prioritizes unified management and integrating wired and wireless access

C. how concerned the customer is about ensuring that only authorized employees can access the wireless network

D. how the company is seeking to improve customer satisfaction scores and the role of mobile apps in their strategy.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5:

What is one key competitive advantage of Aruba AirWave over Cisco Prime?

A. Aruba AirWave is cloud-based, while Cisco Prime only offers on-premises management.
B. Aruba AirWave integrates network access control, while Cisco Prime does not.
C. Cisco Prime-only supports Cisco, while Aruba AirWave offers multi-vendor support.
D. Cisco Prime only offers single-server deployments, while Aruba offers larger deployments.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

Which Aruba solution uses Bluetooth Low Energy to precisely track the location of mobile users through their mobile devices?

A. Aruba Asset Tags
B. Aruba APs in Air Monitor (AM) mode
C. Aruba Beacons
D. Aruba APs in Spectrum Monitor (SM) mode

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7:

Your customer emphasizes the need to simplify network operations.
What is one reason for recommending Aruba 5400R zl2 switches for the customer\’s campus network?

A. Virtual Switching Framework (VSF) allows customers to combine 5400R switches into a single virtual switch which simplifies management tasks and provides more resilient connectivity.

B. Traditional stacking enables network administrators to manage up to 10 5400R switches from a single GUI.

C. Backplane stacking enables multiple 5400R switches to function as a single logical switch, using dedicated modules and stacking cables to integrate the switches.

D. Virtual Switching Extension (VSX) provides redundancy for management modules on the 5400R switches, with seamless failover.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

What is one characteristic of HPE and Aruba Edge-to-Cloud Solutions?

A. They provide RESTful APIs to make them open to easy integration with other applications.

B. They use a proprietary approach to technology to ensure that customers deploy HPE and Aruba from end to end.

C. They are designed for zero-touch management in which IT admins do not need to customize any features.

D. They offer a better ROI when purchased through capital expenditures than when consumed as a service.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

A customer is interested in Aruba ESP. but has policies that prevent using public cloud services. Which solution should you recommend for managing the ESP solution?

A. Aruba AirWave
B. Aruba Meridian
C. Aruba Instant On the app
D. Aruba Central on-premises (COP)

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

You are proposing Aruba Wi-Fi 6 APs as part of an Aruba ESP solution. The customer says, \’Many vendors offer VA-Fi What makes Aruba different?” How can you explain that Aruba Air Slice distinguishes Aruba\’s Wi-Fi 6 solutions?

A. Air Slice disconnects non-Wi-Fi 6 clients from the network to prevent thorn slowing down the entire network.

B. Air Slice uses signature-based scanning to doted compromised wireless devices and places them in quarantine

C. Air Slice provides rate- and application-based quality of service (QoS) that improves users\’ experience on the network.

D. Air Slice enhances security for all wireless clients, particularly loT ones, by implementing micro-segmentation.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11:

A customer wants to get branch networks up and running more quickly. Which Aruba features or solutions should you emphasize?

A. Installer app and Zero Touch Provisioning (ZTP)
B. Smart Rate and Air Slice
C. Aruba Fabric Composer (AFC) and Virtual Switching Framework (VSF)
D. Al Assist and Al Search

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

Where do analysts predict the majority of data will be generated by 2022?

A. The public cloud
B. On-prem data centers
C. Co-located data centers
D. The edge

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

You are meeting with a large hotel that needs a network upgrade. What is one benefit of Aruba solutions that you should emphasize to address a common concern of such customers?

A. better access control over IoT deployments using either Aruba AirWave or Aruba Central

B. simple management experience and end-to-end visibility for troubleshooting with Aruba IntroSpect

C. a higher quality guest wireless experience with features such as ClientMatch, AirGroup, and Cape Networks

D. better security that helps the hotel comply with regulations, based on Aruba Cape Networks sensors

Correct Answer: C

……

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HPE2-T37 dumps update | Using HPE OneView Exam Materials

May 23, 2022May 23, 2022 exam

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Using HPE OneView Exam Details:

I will share exam-specific information that all candidates using HPE OneView should know.

HPE2-T37 is the latest exam for HPE Product Certified – OneView [2022] certification. For specific information, see:

Vendor: HP
Exam Code: HPE2-T37
Exam Name: Using HPE OneView
Certification: HPE Product Certified – OneView [2022]
Exam duration: 1 hour
Exam length: 40 questions
Passing score: 70%
Delivery languages: Japanese, English, Korean
types of questions: Matching, Multiple choice (multiple responses), Multiple choice (single response), Drag-and-drop, Point and click

Read the HPE2-T37 Free Dumps, Prepare for the Complete Using HPE OneView Exam Materials

QUESTION 1:

Your customer has an environment with five HPE Synergy Composers and 15 HPE OneView appliances managing servers that run VMware. The customer is having a hard time managing their servers.

What can the customer do to simplify the management of this complex environment?

A. deploy HPE OneView for VMware vCenter Server
B. deploy HPE OneView Global Dashboard
C. use an Ansible playbook
D. integrate all HPE OneView appliances and HPE Composers with Active Directory

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

Your customer plans to use HPE OneView to manage a small environment based on HPE ProLiant servers that include G7 and Gen10 systems.

What should you explain to this customer?

A. HPE ProLiant G7 and Gen10 cannot be managed using the same appliance
B. HPE Management Agent must be installed for HPE ProLiant Gen10 servers
C. Not all of the features will be available for HPE ProLiant G7 systems
D. HPE ProLiant Gen10 servers do not need an HPE OneView license

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3:

You try to add a new connection within a server profile, but an operation fails when you try to commit the changes.

What is a possible reason?

A. You tried to add an additional connection above the limit
B. The server is powered on
C. The server does not have an HPE OneView license applied
D. The server is powered off

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4:

HOTSPOT
Click the option that will prevent the appliance from sending any email notifications or forwarding any SNMP traps that are related to the server hardware.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docId=a00059445en_usanddocLocale=en_US

QUESTION 5:

You have created volumes using array management tools and imported the volumes to HPE OneView.

Which statement about these volumes is true?

A. Imported volumes are treated as private volumes and can be only used as boot volumes
B. Volumes imported to HPE OneView are managed just like a volume created using HPE OneView
C. Volumes imported to HPE OneView cannot be removed using the HPE OneView interface
D. A snapshot for imported volumes can be created only by using array management tools

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

You originally configured boot mode for HPE ProLiant Gen10 server to Legacy BIOS\\' in an HPE OneView server profile and deployed an operating system. A few weeks later, you change the boot mode to theUEFI optimized\’ to leverage some features provided by this model.

What must you do next?

A. reset an iLO management processor to activate the new boot mode for the server
B. reinstall an operating system, as UEFI is using a different drive format than Legacy BIOS
C. reset BIOS settings to the defaults so UEFI settings can be applied
D. reset BIOS settings to the defaults through the server profile after changing the boot mode

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7:

You want to update the firmware for only two HPE Synergy Virtual Connect SE 32Gb FC Modules of a large environment. From which level must this procedure be initiated?

A. Logical Enclosure
B. Logical Interconnect
C. Server Profile
D. Logical Interconnect Group

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8:

Which statement regarding HPE OneView backup restore is true?

A. During backup restore, users with Administrator privileges can still log in to HPE OneView
B. An HPE OneView backup can be used to restore individual components like server profile
C. Users with Backup Administrator privileges can restore an HPE OneView backup
D. Only users with Infrastructure Administrator privileges can restore an HPE OneView backup

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about server connections is true?

A. LACP on downlinks is configured for Ethernet connection
B. All connections within the server profile are using physical IDs
C. Ethernet connection is configured to boot from PXE
D. Storage array is connected directly to an HPE Synergy frame

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10:

You are creating a Logical Interconnect Group for a three-frame HPE Synergy solution with HPE Virtual Connect SE100Gb F32 Modules for Synergy.

In which scenario should you set redundancy for master modules to be highly available?

A. When storm control or loop protection will be enabled for Virtual Connect modules
B. When each of the frames has two Virtual Connect modules installed
C. When each Virtual Connect module is installed in a different frame
D. When each Virtual Connect module is installed in a different fabric

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11:

Which locations are supported for HPE OneView remote scheduled backup? (Choose two.)

A. SCP
B. HTTPS
C. SFTP
D. HTTP
E. FTP

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12:

How will setting the Purpose field within the network definition of a server profile impact the network traffic?

A. network purpose can give higher priority to a specific type of traffic
B. network purpose will impact the traffic only if Virtual Connect modules are used
C. network purpose will define QoS within Logical Interconnect
D. network purpose does not affect the behavior of the network

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the storage pools shown is true?

A. Volumes created on the first storage pool cannot use data reduction technologies
B. Both storage pools are in a managed state and can be used for volume provisioning
C. HPE OneView can be used to configure volume replication between these pools
D. Both storage pools have a license applied that enables management of these pools

Correct Answer: A

……

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HPE0-S58 Dumps | Complete the Actual Implementing HPE Composable Infrastructure Solutions exam

May 18, 2022May 18, 2022 exam

Practical-Implementation-of-HPE-Composable-Infrastructure-Solutions-exam

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QUESTION 1:

A customer has a five-frame Synergy deployment with redundant Composers. An integrator needs to install Image Streamer. What must the integrator consider before taking the planned action?

A. Image Streamer requires the use of the MGMT port from both of the FLMs in the frame where the Image Streamer appliance is installed

B. The frame where the Image Streamer is being installed must not contain an Interconnect Module

C. The location of the Image Streamer must be manually modified through the Composer

D. A connection to the management network must be established to an FLM in the same frame that houses the Image Streamer

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2:

A customer needs to evaluate Image Streamer as Proof-of-Concept (PoC) in a test and development tab environment.
At a minimum, what does a Synergy integrator need in order to support this requirement?

A. a three-frame environment with redundant composer and Image Streamer appliances
B. a single frame with single composer and Image Streamer appliances
C. a two-frame environment with a single composer and Image Streamer appliances
D. a single frame with redundant Image Streamer appliances

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

A customer is considering implementing a DRS cluster, but they would like to know how DRS can help to achieve performance goals.
How should an integrator respond?

A. When powering on a virtual machine, a DRS cluster can automatically place it on the optimal host.

B. Selected virtual machines will be assigned a higher priority when the number of physical resources will drop below a specific level.

C. A DRS cluster will migrate a virtual machine to a different host when available network bandwidth will drop below a specific level.

D. If more than 50 virtual machines will be running on a single host, the DRS cluster will configure CPU affinity to proportional resource allocation.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4:

A customer wants to implement HPE Global Dashboard for their environment based on HPE Synergy and HPE SimpliVity nodes. What must an integrator be aware of when deploying HPE Global Dashboard for this customer?

A. HPE Global Dashboard agent must be installed on HPE SimpliVity nodes
B. The Single Sign-On feature is not supported for HPE SimpliVity nodes
C. HPE SimpliVity nodes must be licensed within HPE Global Dashboard
D. Only HPE SimpliVity 380 is supported because of the OmniStack hardware card

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

An integrator is validating an HPE Synergy solution design for a customer that has the following requirements: 20 half-height compute modules 2x 20Gb connectivity to each compute module single fabric domain for LAN and SAN connectivity single management network for managing the solution no single point of failure The compute modules boot from a 3PAR array connected to the Synergy Interconnect modules through a pair of Brocade Fibre Channel switches.
Which components must be part of the solution? (Choose two.)

A. four HPE Synergy FC SE 40Gb F8 modules
B. two HPE Synergy Composes
C. two Frame Link Modules in each HPE Synergy 12000 Frame
D. two HPE Synergy Image Streamers
E. redundant Frame Link Module Front Panel

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6:

An integrator is performing an initial Synergy setup.
How should the integrator initiate the hardware discovery?

A. Connect a Serial cable to the front panel, and open a session to the console
B. Plug in the SUVi cable for the blade server, and attach a monitor
C. Open a browser, and select Discover in the HPE Synergy Console
D. Attach a display and a keyboard to the front panel, and click connect

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docId=emr_na-a00019536en_us

QUESTION 7:

As part of a Synergy implementation, an integrator needs to create 100 networks in a Logical Interconnect Groups (LIG) configuration. The network administrator for the end-of-row (EoR) switches provides a CSV file with the networks that need to be created.
How should the integrator automate the creation of the 100 networks?

A. Upload the CSV file to the Composer, and execute the Create Networks wizard
B. Start HPE SUT to migrate the CSV file to a Synergy configuration file, and upload it to the composer
C. Use the HPE OneView PowerShell library to create the networks listed in the CSV file
D. Configure Image Streamer to automate the network configuration

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://github.com/DungKHoang/Import-Export-OneView-Resources

QUESTION 8:

A customer needs to deploy the HPE Global Dashboard appliance, but experienced vCenter Server failure and cannot access ESXi servers. How can the customer connect to the specific ESXi server to power on important virtual machines?

A. Login directly to the ESXi system using an embedded Host Client

B. Use HPE Composer to restart key vCenter Server services remotely

C. Login to the vCenter Server on port 5480, which is used for backup vCenter Server and is deployed automatically

D. Login to the Web Client, which is independent of the vCenter Server and provides basic management features

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

A customer wants to boot Synergy compute nodes from external LUN located on HPE MSA 2050 SAN Storage. What should an integrator consider when implementing this configuration?

A. Using HPE Composer, only volumes up to 4TB can be created on the MSA2050
B. Additional integration license must be purchased for the MSA2050 and Synergy platforms
C. Automated zoning functionality cannot be used, as MSA2050 is not supported in HPE Composer
D. MSA2050 must be imported first to the HPE Composer before volume presentation can be done

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

A customer wants to expand their existing cluster using the Grow Cluster functionality from OneView for vCenter Server.
Which OS build plan managed by HPE OneView for vCenter Server can the customer use?

A. ICsp-Based Deployment
B. iLO Federation-Based Deployment
C. Image Streamer-Based Deployment
D. PXE-Based Deployment

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=emr_na-a00036306en_usanddocLocale=en_US

QUESTION 11:

What are valid uses for an IPv4 address pool when configuring an HPE Synergy solution? (Choose two.)

A. assignment of IP addresses for NICs in an operating system
B. assignment of IP addresses for Composer appliances
C. assignment of IP addresses for PXE booting to a deployment server
D. assignment of IP addresses for interconnect modules
E. assignment of IP addresses for iLOs

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://techlibrary.hpe.com/docs/synergy/shared/setup_overview/index.html

QUESTION 12:

What is the main difference between HPE SimpliVity 2600 and HPE SimpliVity 380?

A. HPE SimpliVity 380 is shipped in a 5-node cluster configuration, while SimpliVity 2600 offers flexible expanding

B. HPE SimpliVity 380 integrates with Hyper-V only, while HPE SimpliVity 2600 supports any virtualization platform

C. HPE SimpliVity 380 is licensed per virtual machine, while HPE SimpliVity 2600 is licensed per capacity

D. HPE SimpliVity 380 uses hardware deduplication, while HPE SimpliVity 2600 uses software deduplication

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13:

HOTSPOT
An integrator is creating a server profile template for a VMware Cluster in a Synergy environment. The network administrator has given the server team two 40Gb uplinks with all 200 VLANs presented.
Click the appropriate network type that the integrator should select.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=emr_na-a00050865en_usanddocLocale=en_US(13)

……

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HPE0-P27 Configuring HPE GreenLake Solutions Exam Program

May 13, 2022May 13, 2022 exam

Pass the HPE0-P27 Configuring HPE GreenLake Solutions exam you need to know these:

Exam Name: Configuring HPE GreenLake Solutions
Exam Code: HPE0-P27
Delivery languages: Japanese, Latin American Spanish, English, Brazilian Portuguese
Actual Exam Duration: 90 minutes
Exam length：50 questions
Pass Score: 60%
HPE0-P27 dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/hpe0-p27.html
HPE0-P27 Dumps Questions: 157 Q&A
Official Information: https://certification-learning.hpe.com/tr/datacard/exam/HPE0-P27

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HPE0-P27 Dumps Questions are for Configuring HPE GreenLake Solutions exam core (HPE GreenLake, including designing and proposing HPE GreenLake solutions).

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QUESTION 1:

A partner received a Partner SOW from a distributor.
Is this a way partners can alter the Partner SOW to prepare the Customer SOW?
Solution: Partners can add their own logo.

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2:

Is this a correct use case for an HPE GreenLake for Compute option? Solution: General Compute for VDI

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

Does HPE offer this service under the monitoring level of HPE Adaptive Management Services? Solution: backup and restore services

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/us/en/insights/articles/less-grunt-work-more-innovation-how-it-can-be-amore-strategic-business-partner-1810.html

QUESTION 4:

Is this information you should gather and provide to HPE to qualify a customer for HPE GreenLake? Solution: How many months does it take from concept to production to provision infrastructure.

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

You have qualified a customer for the Swift sales program and entered the solution into the GLQQ tool Is this the next step in the sales process?
Solution: Complete the change order process to offer a complete HPE GreenLake solution

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6:

Is this a way mat customers benefit from HPE GreenLake for Storage solutions?
Solution: Customers get a faster return on investment using software-defined storage (SDS) based on HPE Apollo.

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7:

You proposed an HPE GreenLake solution to a customer and the customer is concerned about being locked into HPE.
Is this an appropriate response to the customer\’s concern? Solution: Reassure the customer that HPE GreenLake solutions can include third-party products.

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://searchconvergedinfrastructure.techtarget.com/feature/What-is-HPE-GreenLake-andhow-does-it-work

QUESTION 8:

For a custom solution, Is this when the partner and distributor add a markup to the unit or consumption? Solution: Before Start and End BOMs are built.

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

Is this when to use the Solution Assessment Foundry (SAF)? Solution: Discovery for storage customers

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10:

Is this now you can add HPE GMS to an HPE GLQQ Tool solution? Solution: Manually add GMS into the output proposal.

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11:

Is this an HPE Financial Service that can help customers fund new investments, such as in HPE GreenLake?
Solution: The Compute as a Service template is designed to support a single, specialized workload such as genomics.

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12:

You are designing a custom HPE GreenLaKe solution and have created solution BOMs.
Is this the next step in the process?
Solution: Sign an SOW with the customer tor you to deliver the solution

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

Is this about the SOW Order Form output from the GLQQ tool? Solution: It is developed with Distributor approval

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

……

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Real HPE0-P27 Configuring HPE GreenLake Solutions exam program uses 157 HPE0-P27 dumps exam questions.

lead4pass HPE0-J57 dumps questions have been updated

May 10, 2022May 10, 2022 exam

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QUESTION 1:

A customer is a cloud service provider with an infrastructure powered by HPE 3PAR StoreServ 9000. The customer is concerned about their ability to ensure the quality of service and protect their tenants from unpredictable bursts of I/O from other tenants.
What should you recommend to your customer?

A. Use Priority Optimization to enable service levels for workloads.
B. Use Adaptive Optimization to optimize service levels autonomically.
C. Use Dynamic Optimization to automatically manage the quality of service.
D. Use Virtual Domains to automatically set multi-tenant policies.

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/c04199812.pdf

QUESTION 2:

You are planning a single-site Nimble solution with iSCSI connectivity. Two 10GbE SFP+ dual port NICS are included in the configuration. You designed an intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF) stack with HPE FlexFabric 5900CP switches.
Which statement is correct when discussing the IRF limits for this configuration?

A. When connecting an iSCSI storage to an IRF stack, a minimum of four 10GbE ports must be used per switch.

B. A maximum of two switches can be used in an IRF stack when connecting storage.

C. In an IRF stack with storage connectivity, the 40GbE ports cannot be used.

D. The used IRF ports for iSCSI traffic have to be configured as 10GbE converged ports.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

An HPE 3PAR StoreServ customer with FC, SSD, and NL, drives is facing extreme latency during peak business hours with an OLTP application. They have enabled tiering using all drive types.
What could be used to resolve the issue?

A. Dynamic Optimization using tier 2
B. Adaptive Optimization using tier 1
C. Dynamic Optimization between tier 0 and tier 1
D. Dynamic Optimization using tier 1

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4:

What performance benefit is provided by using the HPE StoreVirtual DSM for Microsoft MPIO instead of the standard MPIO?

A. The HPE DSM increases availability and reduces latency and throughput.
B. The storage system, which holds a copy of the requested data, services the read I/Os.
C. The iSCSI connections are blocked to non-critical nodes in the cluster by default.
D. The storage system, which receives a copy of the data, does not service the write I/O.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

You are planning an upgrade to a customer\’s existing HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8200 to include 4-port 16Gb FC adapters.
The servers are zoned to see the storage via four paths. The customer is concerned about storage availability during the upgrade.
Which statement is correct about performing this upgrade?

A. When NPIV is enabled, the 3PAR Port persistence will show all four paths to the servers.
B. The MPIO service will do a failover, and the servers will continue to have access via two paths.
C. Windows servers require host explorer is installed to ensure MPIO is unaffected.
D. As long as the MEM driver is installed on VMware vSphere, no path failures are seen.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6:

A customer asks for an integrated solution for their remote office with All-Flesh storage and ease of management.
Application-aware replication to their main office is an important requirement.
Which HPE solution component should you discuss with the customer first?

A. HPE SimpliVity 380
B. HPE MSA 2052 Storage
C. HPE Nimble CS1000 system
D. HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8200

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7:

A customer is evaluating an HPE 3PAR StoreServ system in a proof-of-concept project. The customer wants to receive emails about important storage system events and alerts.
What feature do you need to configure?

A. HPE OneView integration
B. Secure Service Agent
C. Real-time Alert Processing
D. Local Notification Service

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8:

What is used to migrate data between nodes in an HPE StoreVirtual VSA environment?

A. Network RAID
B. Peer Motion
C. SmartClone
D. Remote Copy

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

After a performance analysis, a customer plants to reorganize his Adaptive Flash Cache (AFC) configuration and wants to raise it from 256GB to 768 GB. Which action is needed to take advantage of the new AFC configuration?

A. Increase the current AFC configuration to reflect the additional space.
B. Remove the old AO configuration and recreate a new one.
C. Run tunesys after raising the AFC to take advantage of the additional space.
D. Remove flash cache for all VVs and then run createflashcache.

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://d8tadude.com/2014/09/22/adaptive-flash-cache-deep-dive/

QUESTION 10:

Which management interface uses four basic commands (create, read, update, and delete) to enable administrators to define and radically simplify management processes?

A. WMI
B. SMI-S
C. WBEM
D. REST API

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docId=emr_na-c04774494

QUESTION 11:

Which 3PAR StoreServ feature allows a host to continue I/O interrupted during a firmware upgrade?

A. Peer Persistence
B. Persistent Memory
C. Persistent Ports
D. Persistent Cache

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12:

Which storage principle would benefit a customer who has several departments in their organization with different storage needs?

A. autonomic management
B. multi-tenancy
C. federated storage
D. scale-out storage

Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/4aa3-3516enw.pdf

QUESTION 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer has upgraded the first of their two HPE StoreServ 8200S to the latest InForm OS version to take advantage of the compression feature. You have been asked to design the storage configuration to support Oracle Database volumes to utilize HPE 3PAR compression.
Based on the analysis of the array, what would be your suggestion to implement the requested change?

A. Consider adding another node pair for compression to work efficiently.
B. Install the Catalyst agent on the Oracle server to enable inline compression on the selected VV.
C. Configure the source-side compression to offload compression to the host.
D. Balance the workloads between the arrays to have enough headroom for compression.

Correct Answer: C

……

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[Updated May 2022] Lead4Pass NS0-194 dumps | Provide free practice questions

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Type	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code
Free	13	NetApp Certified Support Engineer	NS0-194

QUESTION 1:

A customer ordered a FAS2720 cluster with 8 TB SATA drives. The customer wants to use the Advanced Drive Partitioning (ADP) feature to avoid consuming the high-capacity drives for the root aggregate. Before you use the cluster setup, you issue the aggr status command and notice that ADP is not being used.

In this scenario, what would you use to implement ADP?

A. loader prompt

B. special boot menu

C. node shell

D. SP prompt

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

The details from within Active IQ Cluster Viewer are downloadable in which three file formats? (Choose three.)

A. PDF

B. CSV

C. XLS

D. DOC

E. HTML

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3:

You receive the error shown below on a FAS2750 HA pair.

Mon Jun 24 00:27:30 UTC [NetappA: scsi_cmdblk_strthr_admin: scsi.cmd.checkCondition:error]: Unknown device 0a.00.99: Check Condition: CDB 0x12: Sense Data SCSI:hardware error – (0x4 – 0x44 0x0 0x0) (0).
The system is cabled as shown in the exhibit.

What should you do to clear the error?

A. Replace the cable connected to controller A\’s 0a port.

B. Replace the controller of controller B.

C. Replace the controller of controller A.

D. Re-cable the system per the FAS2750 installation guide.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

When using NetApp Volume Encryption (NVE) which type of server is needed to keep encryption keys separate from encrypted data?

A. KMIP

B. RADIUS

C. TLS

D. TKIP

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.pow-nve%2FGUID-
EAD13D8E-0219-45B6-A2C6-B25B76C9CA1A.html

QUESTION 5:

A volume was accidentally deleted two hours ago by another administrator. No backups exist. In this scenario, what do you do to restore the data?

A. Use the ONTAP System Manager to recover the volume.

B. Use a volume snapshot to return the data to the active file system.

C. Use the volume recovery queue to restore the volume.

D. Use an aggregate snapshot to revert the aggregate to an earlier state.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cm-vsmg%2FGUID-
D4E85AB5-EEBB-44B4-A648-5B1B04FD5F85.html

QUESTION 6:

A customer receives the message shown below in their EMS logs.
Tue Jun 27 18:34:18 CEST [netapp-ct1: cp_worker: wafl.cp.toolong:error]: Aggregate AG1_NTAP_PROD experienced a long CP. Tue Jun 27 18:37:10 CEST
Which two data sources do you use to explain this message? (Choose two.)

A. ONTAP System Manager

B. Performance Archive

C. Active IQ Unified Manager

D. mgwd.log

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://kb.netapp.com/Advice_and_Troubleshooting/Data_Storage_Software/ONTAP_OS/First_steps_troubl
eshooting_wafl_exempt10%3A_wafl.cp.toolong%3Aerror

QUESTION 7:

You are using FCP and iSCSI protocols from your clients with ONTAP as the target. You want to ensure that storage failover (SFO) works correctly for your clients. In this scenario, which two features of the initiator and the target will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. LACP

B. MPIO

C. ALUA

D. SCSI

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://www.netapp.com/media/10680-tr4080.pdf

QUESTION 8:

Which two statements describe ONTAP NVRAM? (Choose two.)

A. ONTAP NVRAM is used as a read cache.

B. ONTAP NVRAM stores uncommitted writes.

C. ONTAP NVRAM is used as a write cache.

D. ONTAP NVRAM is battery-backed.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference:
https://kb.netapp.com/Advice_and_Troubleshooting/Data_Storage_Software/ONTAP_OS/FAQ%3A_Consistency_Point

QUESTION 9:

In ONTAP 9.5, the event log show command queries and displays entries from which file?

A. messages.log

B. ems.log

C. bcomd.log

D. mgwd.log

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cm-
cmpr-930%2Fevent__log__show.html

QUESTION 10:

In the AFF A200 shown in the exhibit, which port is a CNA port?

A. |0|0|

B. e0c/0c

C. e0a

D. 0a

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/platstor/topic/com.netapp.doc.hw-2700-install-setup/GUID-FE4BD3C8-3DB4-438A-A5CE-FEEF74AE8BAF.html

QUESTION 11:

You observe cyclic redundancy check (CRC) errors on a network port from a node in the cluster.
Which two components would you consider reseating or replacing before you perform actions on the physical port where the errors are reported from the node? (Choose two.)

A. SFP

B. cluster interconnect switch

C. up-stream switch

D. cable

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12:

How many data-serving SVMs are supported with Cloud Volumes ONTAP that is running ONTAP 9.5?

A. 128

B. 1024

C. 1

D. 10

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/cloud-volumes-ontap/reference_limitations_95.html

QUESTION 13:

What is the minimum number of compute nodes required to run the NetApp Deployment Engine for NetApp HCI?

A. 2

B. 1

C. 3

D. 4

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/hci/docs/task_hci_getstarted.html#:~:text=The%20minimum%20cluster%20fo
r%20NetApp,to%20all%20NetApp%20HCI%20networks.

…

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New HPE6-A75 Dumps [2022] Best Scenario for Aruba Certified Edge Professional Exam

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QUESTION 1

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the Attribute configuration shown, which statement accurately describes the status of attribute values?

A. Only the attribute values of department and memberOf can be used in role mapping policies.

B. The attribute values of department, title, memberOf, telephone number, and mail are directly applied as ClearPass.

C. Only the attribute value of a company can be used in role mapping policies, not the other attributes.

D. The attribute values of department and memberOf are directly applied as ClearPass roles.

E. Only the attribute values of title, telephone number, and mail can be used in role mapping policies.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

A university wants to deploy ClearPass with the Guest module. They have two types of users that need to use web login authentication. The first type of users are students whose accounts are in an Active Directory server. The second type of user is friends of students who need to self-register to access the network.
How should the service be set up in the Policy Manager for this Network?

A. Guest User Repository and Active Directory server both as authentication sources

B. Active Directory server as the authentication source, and Guest User Repository as the authorization source

C. Guest User Repository as the authentication source, and Guest User Repository and Active Directory server as authorization sources

D. Either the Guest User Repository or Active Directory server should be the single authentication source

E. Guest User Repository as the authentication source and the Active Directory server as the authorization source

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator wants to reduce failover time If a switch link m VIAN 100 goes down. What should the administrator do?

A. Configure echo mode BFD on VLAN 100 on all OSPF routing devices on VLAN 100.
B. Lower the dead timer on the BDR of VLAN 100.
C. Lower the hello timer only on the BDR of VLAN 100.
D. Configure graceful restart on all of the OSPF routing devices on VLAN 100.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

What is true about clustering and AP connections to cluster members?

A. The AP will always stay connected to the LMS IP address configured in the AP profile.
B. During rebalancing, the active load is redistributed first.
C. The default thresholds are 75% for the Rebalanced Threshold and 25% for the Unbalanced Threshold.

D. AP load balancing is disabled by default.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

What is the purpose of the captive portal URL hash key on an AOS-Switch?

A. It authenticates guest users based on the password the users enter hi the portal.
B. It encrypts and secures the RADIUS messages that the AOS-Switch sends to ClearPass.
C. It does not let users alter the URL that redirects them to the portal.
D. It specifies the captive portal URL and conceals the setting in the config.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

When configuring a Web Login Page in ClearPass Guest, the information shown is displayed. What is the Address field value \’securelogin.arubanetworks.com\’ used for?

A. for ClearPass to send a TACACS+ request to the NAD
B. for appending to the Web Login URL, before the page name
C. for the client to POST the user credentials to the NAD
D. for ClearPass to send a RADIUS request to the NAD
E. for appending to the Web Login URL, after the page name.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch-1 and Switch-2 connect on interface A23. The switches experience a connectivity issue. The network administrator sees that both switches show this interface as up. The administrator sees the output shown in the exhibit on Switch-1. What is a typical issue that could cause this output?

A. a hardware issue, such as a broken cable
B. asymmetric routing introduced by a routing configuration error
C. an issue with queuing, caused by mismatched QoS settings
D. mismatched IP addresses on the VLAN for the link

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

An administrator deploys an AP at a branch office. The branch office has a private WAN circuit that provides connectivity to a corporate office controller. An Ethernet port on the AP is connected to a network storage device that contains sensitive information. The administrator is concerned about sending this traffic in clear text across the private WAN circuit.
What can the administrator do to prevent this problem?

A. Redirect the wired port traffic to an AP-to-controller GRE tunnel.
B. Convert the campus AP into a RAP.
C. Enable AP encryption for wired ports.
D. Enable IPSec encryption on the AP\’s wired ports.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

A network administrator can set the OSPF metric-type on an AOS-Switch to Type 1 or Type 2. What is the difference?

A. A Type 2 metric marks external routes that can be advertised in NSSAs, while a Type 1 metric marks external routes that can only be advertised in normal areas.

B. A Type 2 metric assigns cost 1 to a 100 Gbps link, while a Type 1 metric assigns cost 1 to all links of 100 Mbps or higher.

C. A Type 2 metric is assigned to multiple external routes that are aggregated together, while a Type 1 metric does not permit external route aggregation.

D. A Type 2 metric stays the same as the external route is advertised, while a Type 1 metric increments with internal OSPF link costs.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

An administrator deploys Aruba Mobility Controller 7005s to a company\’s branch offices. The administrator wants to disable the console port to prevent unauthorized access to the controllers.
Which controller command should the administrator use to implement this policy?

A. no console enable
B. no mgmt-user console
C. mgmt-user console-block
D. console disable

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit.

A. mike
B. We can\’t know this from the screenshot above.
C. Employee
D. john

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Which protocol do Mobility Controllers (MCs) use to detect a failed Mobility Master (MM)?

A. VRRP
B. SNMP
C. PAPI
D. IPSec

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

An administrator implements a standalone controller that runs ArubaOS 8.x. Which feature should the administrator configure to optimize the RF operation for the company\’s WLAN?

A. AirMatch
B. Clustering
C. ARM
D. Zones

Correct Answer: A

……

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