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Latest updates Salesforce ADM-201 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Which of the following are setting options for the User Interface? A. Enable Collapsible Sections B. Show Quick Create C. Show customer Sidebar Components on All Pages D. Transfer all Open Opportunities E. Enable Drag-and-drop scheduling on List Views Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 2 The Self Service Portal and Customer Portal are the same technology? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which is the new type of Dashboard Chart to make entry in Spring\\’11 Release? A. Waterfall Chart B. Scatter C. Gauge D. Metric E. Organization Chart Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 True or False, Final reject actions in a workflow approval process can include actions such as email alerts. A. True B. False Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 In List View Enhancements, users can export list results to CSV file A. True B. False Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Can you set Standard and Custom fields as unique or required using the Property feature? Correct Answer: No, only custom fields.
QUESTION 7 History Tracking can be performed on the following Standard Objects Except Select the choice which is applicable. A. Accounts B. Forecasts C. Contacts D. Leads E. Opportunities Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Which of the following is NOT controlled by the Page Layout? A. How detail and edit pages are organized B. Field properties like visible, read-only and required C. Controlling which fields, related lists, and Custom Links users sees D. Page section customizations E. Rollup summary Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9 Sharing rules can be formed on the following except: A. Custom objects B. Standard objects C. Junction Objects D. Objects on managed packages Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 What is Salesforce.com Partner Portal? Choose 2 answers: A. Use your company logo on a Partner Site B. Develop Partner Application on Force.com Platform C. Data goes into your Salesforce objects through a third party site D. Create Interactive Communities E. All of the above Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11 What should be the Advanced filter Conditions to meet the requirement “Find contacts owned by Poo that have a title of CFO, functional role of CFO, or reports to the CFO? 1) Title equals CFO 2) Functional Role equals CFO 3) Reports To equals CFO 4) Contact Owner contains Poo A. (1 OR 2 OR 3) AND 4 B. (4 AND (2 OR 3)) OR 1 C. (1 OR 2 OR (3 AND 4) D. (1 AND (2 OR 3)) OR 4 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Using the following hierarchy, if a sharing rule exists granting Operations Person Read/Write access to Sales Management on the Account Object, what access does Operations Management have to Sales Management\\’s accounts? Default access for the Account object is Public Read Only. Executive Management Sales Management Sales Person Operations Management Operations Person A. None B. Read Only C. Read/Write D. Read/Write/Transfer Correct Answer: C Read/Write is granted through role hierarchy permissions from the sharing rule. If the sharing rule referenced a sharing group then the Grant Access Using Hierarchies would not apply. This could also be true for a custom object; all standard objects require Grant Access Using Hierarchies.
QUESTION 13 What is the limit of Master-Detail Relationships per object? A. 35 B. 25 C. 15 D. 3 E. 2 F. 8 Correct Answer: E
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Latest updates Oracle 1z0-064 exam practice questions(1-5)
QUESTION 1 You are administrating a database that supports a DSS workload. Syntactically similar queries using joins and aggregate functions are frequently executed by users to fetch data from remote databases by using database links. Which three tasks should you perform to improve the performance of these queries? A. Ensure that the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_RESULT parameter is set to 100. B. Ensure that the RESULT_CACHE_REMOTE_EXPIRATION parameter is set to a nonzero value for the local instance. C. Ensure that the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_SIZE parameter is set to a nonzero value on the local database instance. D. Ensure that the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_SIZE parameter is set to a nonzero value on both the local and remote database instances. E. Ensure that the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_SIZE parameter is set to a nonzero value on the remote database instance. F. Ensure that the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_MODE parameter is set to FORCE for the local instance. G. Ensure that the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter is set to FORCE for remote database instances. Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 2 Which two result in the least internal fragmentation within segments and the least external fragmentation within tablespaces? (Choose two.) A. automatic segment space managed segments B. locally managed tablespaces with uniform extent size C. freelist managed segments with one freelist D. dictionary managed tablespaces E. locally managed tablespaces that were converted from dictionary managed tablespaces F. freelist managed segments with multiple freelists Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 3 In which three situations can dynamic statistics be used? (Choose three.) A. when the sampling time is a small fraction of the total time for a query B. when an execution plan is suboptimal because of complex predicates C. when extended statistics are not available for SQL statements that use complex predicates D. when a query is on a partitioned table with a global index E. when index statistics are missing on a column that is used in SQL statements with highly selective filters Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 4 Which two statements are true about the interpretation of Buffer Cache Hit Ratio in the Instance Efficiency Percentages section of an AWR report? (Choose two.) A. A high value indicates that the buffer cache is adequately sized for the current workload. B. Poor hit ratios indicate that a large number of indexed lookups or small table scans are being performed. C. A low hit ratio does not necessarily imply that increasing the size of the buffer cache will improve performance. D. A high hit ratio may indicate that repeated scanning of the same large table or index is being performed. E. A low hit ratio indicates that a KEEP buffer pool should be configured based on the size of the largest object accessed in the buffer cache. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 5 You are administering a database that supports an OLTP workload. RESULT_CACHE_MODE is set to the default value and a result cache is configured for the instance. Multiple sessions execute syntactically similar queries without dblinks, containing functions and expressions, on tables with no DML activity. Some users complain about poor performance of these queries. You investigate and find that the queries are frequently performing physical I/O, even though the results fetched by the queries are similar. Which two actions do you recommend to overcome the problem affecting these queries? (Choose two.) A. Set the RESULT_CAHCE_MODE parameter to FORCE for the instance. B. Use the result cache hint in the queries. C. Use bind variables for similar queries instead of literals. D. Set the RESULT_CACHE_REMOTE_EXPIRATION parameter to a nonzero value. E. Configure the KEEP pool and cache the queried tables used in the KEEP pool. Correct Answer: AB
Latest updates Oracle 1z0-066 exam practice questions (1-5)
QUESTION 1 Which three statements are true about standby redo logs in a Data Guard configuration with no Oracle Streams or Goldengate configured? A. They are required on a logical standby for real-time apply B. They are required only for synchronous redo transport. C. Only standby databases can write redo to them. D. It is recommended to have them on the primary database. E. They are required on a physical standby for real-time apply. F. The LGWR process writes to them on a standby database. Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 2 Which two are true about management of a far sync instance when using the Data Guard Broker? A. A far sync instance is in a disabled state in the broker configuration immediately after adding it B. A far sync instance that has its RedoRoutes property set may not be disabled in the broker configuration. C. Broker management of a far sync instance may only be disabled with the disable configuration DGMGRL command. D. A far sync instance need not exist before adding it to the broker configuration but may not be enabled until created Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 Which two Data Guard monitoring activities may be performed using Enterprise Manager Cloud Control? A. monitoring the redo apply rate on a physical standby B. monitoring the redo apply rate on a logical standby C. monitoring the undo generation rate on a logical standby D. monitoring the redo apply rate on a snapshot standby E. monitoring the transport lag F. monitoring the undo generation rate on the primary Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4 Examine the Data Guard configuration: DGMGRL> show configuration Configuration -Animals Protection Mode: MaxAvailability Databases: dogs- Primary database sheep- (*) Physical standby database cats- Physical standby database Fast-Start Failover: ENABLED Configuration Status: SUCCESS What happens if you issue “switchover” to sheep;” at the DGMGRL prompt? A. The switchover succeeds but Dogs need to be reinstated B. The switchover succeeds but Fast-Start Failover is suspended. C. The switchover succeeds and Cats become the new failover target. D. The switchover succeeds and Dogs become the new failover target E. it results in an error indicating that a switchover is not allowed. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Examine the Data Guard configuration: DGMGRL > show configuration; Configuration-Animals Protection Mode MaxPerformance Databases dogs-Primary database sheep-Snapshot standby database catsSnapshot standby database Fast-Start Failover: DISABLED Configuration Status: SUCCESS You receive an error while attempting to raise the protection mode to Maximum Availability: DGMGDRL> edit configuration set protection mode as max availability; Error ORA-16627 operation disallowed since no standby databases would remain to support protection mode Failed. Identify two statements that you can execute, either one of which will enable successful raising of the protection mode to Maximum Availability. A. DGMGRL> convert database sheep to physical standby; B. DGMGRL> convert database cats to physical standby; C. DGMGRL> edit database dogs set property LogXptMode= fastsync; D. DGMGRL> edit database sheep set property LogXptMode= fastsync; E. DGMGRL> edit database cats set property LogXptMode= sync; Correct Answer: BE
Latest updates Oracle 1z0-134 exam practice questions (1-5)
QUESTION 1 Your organization is using a Multi data source (MDS) on WebLogic Server to support applications connecting to an Oracle RAC database. You have been tasked with configuring a new callback handler for the MDS. Which two statements are true concerning related MDS options and behavior? (Choose two.) A. Callback handlers are optional when using the Failover MDS Algorithm. B. If the Failover Callback Handler attribute is set on the MDS, the Test Frequency attribute is no longer used. C. Callback handlers are called for both failover and failback decisions. D. You can register only one callback handler for each WebLogic server. Correct Answer: CD C: A callback handler used to control the failover and failback within a multi-data source must include an implementation of the weblogic.jdbc.extensions.ConnectionPoolFailoverCallback interface. D: You can register a callback handler with WebLogic Server that controls when a multi-data source with the Failover algorithm fails over connection requests from one JDBC data source in the multi-data source to the next data source in the list. Incorrect Answers: B: The frequency of these tests is controlled by the Test Frequency Seconds attribute of the multi-source. The default value for Test Frequency is 120 seconds, so if you do not specifically set a value for the option, the multi-data source will test disabled data sources every 120 seconds. Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E23943_01/web.1111/e13737/jdbc_multidatasources.htm#JDBCA223
QUESTION 2 You are analyzing the JMSDeliveryMode header field for all the messages for all the queues deployed to your JMSServer. Which two values do you expect to find for this header? (Choose two.) A. PERSISTENT B. NON_PERSISTENT C. TRANSIENT D. PERMANENT E. MULTIMODE F. EXACTLY_ONCE Correct Answer: AB JMSDeliveryMode specifies PERSISTENT or NON_PERSISTENT messaging. Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12840_01/wls/docs103/jms/fund.html
QUESTION 3 You are using the administration console to monitor messages in a queue. Which three tasks can be performed while doing this monitoring? (Choose three.) A. Create a new message in the queue. B. Duplicate a message. C. Monitor the content of a message. D. Delete the message from the queue. E. Merge two messages. F. Alter the ordering of the messages. Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 4 You want to create a WebLogic Server (WLS) Work Manager with a Response Time Request Class of one second. You start to create the following WLST script:
Which two can replace the missing sequence to finish this script? (Choose two.) A. cmo.addTarget(getMBean(\\’/Servers/ManagedServer\\’)) cd(\\’edit:/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager\\’) cmo.setResponseTimeRequestClass(getMBean (\\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime\\’)) B. managedServer=getMBean(\\’/Servers/ManagedServer\\’) cmo.addTarget(managedServer) cmo.setWorkManaqer(getMBean(\\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorManagers/MyWorkManager\\’)) C. cd(\\’edit:/Servers/ManagedServer\\’) cmo.addTarget(getMBean (\\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime\\’)) cmo.addTarget (getMBean(\\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager\\’)) D. managedServer=getMBean(\\’/Servers/ManagedServer\\’) cmo.addTarget(managedServer) cd(\\’edit:/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager\\’) cmo.setResponseTimeRequestClass(getMBean (\\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime\\’)) E. cmo.addTarqet(\\’/Servers/ManagedServer\\’) cd(\\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager\\’) cmo.setResponseTimeRequestClass (\\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime\\’) Correct Answer: AD Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12839_01/apirefs.1111/e13952/pagehelp/J2EEappworkresponsetimerequestclassconfigtitle.html
QUESTION 5 Which three statements are correct regarding the WLST to create command? (Choose three.) A. When the create command is used with WLST online, the connection must be to the administration server. B. The type of MBean being created must be a child type of the current management object. C. The correct order of the mandatory parameters for the create statement is a name followed by childMBeanType. D. The create command is used to create any configuration or runtime management bean. E. The create command returns a WLSTProgress object. Correct Answer: ABC A: When using the create command with WLST online you must be connected to an Administration Server. B: Child types must be created under an instance of their parent type. C: Syntax: create(name, childMBeanType, [baseProviderType]) The Create command creates a configuration bean of the specified type for the current bean. Incorrect Answers: D: The create command returns a stub for the newly created configuration bean. It can\\’t create a runtime management bean. E: The create command returns a stub for the newly created configuration bean. Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E13222_01/wls/docs92/config_scripting/reference.html#wp1081543
Latest updates Oracle 1z0-071 exam practice questions (1-5)
QUESTION 1 View the Exhibit and examine the data in the PRODUCT_INFORMATION table.
Which two tasks would require subqueries? (Choose two.) A. displaying all the products whose minimum list prices are more than the average list price of products having the status orderable B. displaying the total number of products supplied by supplier 102071 and having product status OBSOLETE C. displaying the number of products whose list prices are more than the average list price D. displaying all supplier IDs whose average list price is more than 500 E. displaying the minimum list price for each product status Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2 Evaluate the following query
What is the correct output of the above query? A. +00-300, +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457 B. +25-00, +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457 C. +00-300, +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457 D. +25-00, +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 In which three situations does a transaction complete? A. when a PL/SQL anonymous block is executed B. when a DELETE statement is executed C. when a ROLLBACK command is executed D. when a data definition language (DDL) statement is executed E. when a TRUNCATE statement is executed after the pending transaction Correct Answer: CDE References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14220/transact.htm
QUESTION 4 View the Exhibit and examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table. (Choose two.)
You executed this SQL statement: SELECT first_name, department_id, salary FROM employees ORDER BY department_id, first_name, salary desc; Which two statements are true regarding the result? (Choose two.) A. The values in the SALARY column would be returned in descending order for all employees having the same value in the DEPARTMENT_ID and FIRST_NAME column. B. The values in the FIRST_NAME column would be returned in ascending order for all employees having the same value in the DEPARTMENT_ID column. C. The values in the SALARY column would be returned in descending order for all employees having the same value in the DEPARTMENT_ID column. D. The values in all columns would be returned in descending order. E. The values in the FIRST_NAME column would be returned in descending order for all employees having the same value in the DEPARTMENT_ID column. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5 Which two statements are true regarding the execution of the correlated subqueries? (Choose two.) A. The nested query executes after the outer query returns the row. B. The nested query executes first and then the outer query executes. C. The outer query executes only once for the result returned by the inner query. D. Each row returned by the outer query is evaluated for the results returned by the inner query. Correct Answer: AD
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Candidates for this exam are IT consultants and telecommunications consulting professionals who design, plan, deploy, and maintain solutions for unified communications (UC). Candidates should be able to translate business requirements into technical architecture and design for a UC solution. Candidates should have a minimum of two years of experience with Skype for Business technologies and be familiar with supported migration scenarios. Candidates should be proficient in deploying Skype for Business Server and Skype for Business Online solutions for end users, endpoint devices, telephony, audio/video and web conferences, security, and high availability. Candidates should also know how to monitor and troubleshoot Skype for business using Microsoft tools. In addition, candidates should be proficient with Active Directory Domain Services, data networks, and telecommunications standards and components that support the configuration of Skype for Business. Candidates should be familiar with the requirements for integrating Skype for Business with Microsoft Exchange Server and Office 365.
Plan and design Skype for Business with Enterprise Voice (30-35%)
Deploy and configure Enterprise Voice (30-35%)
Manage and troubleshoot Enterprise Voice (30-35%)
Latest updates Microsoft 70-333 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 You need to replace the existing automatic call distribution (ACD) helpdesk with Skype for Business Server 2015 solution. Which three actions should you perform in sequence to recreate the ACD in Skype for Business Server 2015? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 2 Your company has two offices. The offices are located in New York and Amsterdam. The dialing habits of the users in each office are shown in the following table:
You need to create a dial plan for the users in the New York office. Which match patterns should you use in the normalization rules? To answer, select the appropriate normalization rule from each list in the answer area. Hot Area:
QUESTION 3 You need to identify the metric that is causing poor quality in Skype for Business calls by analyzing the user activity report collected by the help desk department. Which metric should you choose? A. burst gap duration B. round trip C. packet loss D. jitter Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 You need to define the goals that you would like to achieve after you perform usage modeling of Skype for Business traffic. Which two goals should you establish? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Confirm that bandwidth is sufficient for 40 new Litware, Inc. Skype for Business users. B. Confirm that the volume of Skype for Business traffic does not exceed 5 megabits per second (Mbps). C. Confirm that bandwidth is sufficient for 80 new Litware, Inc. Skype for Business users. D. Confirm that the volume of Skype for Business traffic does not exceed 25 percent of wide area network (WAN) bandwidth. E. Confirm that bandwidth is sufficient for Microsoft Office 365 Hybrid Skype for Business deployment. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 5 You need to create a rule to meet the technical requirements for international dialing from the SIP trunk in the New York office. Which type of rule should you create? A. called number translation B. normalization C. dialing D. calling number translation Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 You are planning the Peer-to-Peer (P2P) audio bandwidth requirements for the Berlin wide area network (WAN) connection. You need to calculate the bandwidth usage network impact of P2P audio calls between Berlin and Moscow. What is the minimum bandwidth in megabits per second (Mbps) required for P2P calls between Berlin and Moscow? A. 8.7 Mbps B. 7.8 Mbps C. 9.1 Mbps D. 6.1 Mbps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 You need to prepare the Quality of Service (QoS) policy for the Skype for Business environment. Which values should you use for each configuration? To answer, drag the appropriate value or values to the correct configuration or configurations in the answer area. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. Each correct set of answers is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 8 You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure and a Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 organization. You enable Enterprise Voice for all users. You plan to implement Unified Messaging (UM). You need to configure a dial plan between Exchange Server 2013 and Skype for Business Server 2015. How should you configure the URI type and the VoIP security in the dial plan? To answer, select the appropriate URI type and the VoIP security in the answer area. Hot Area:
QUESTION 9 You need to resolve the issue users are having with the Call Via Work functionality. What should you do? A. Create and apply a Call Via Work policy. Enable the policy. B. Create and apply a client policy that enables the CallViaWork option. C. Create and apply a voice policy. Enable the CallViaWork option. D. Configure Call Via Work on the public switched telephone network (PSTN) trunk that connects to the PBX. E. Create and apply a Call Via Work policy that specifies a value for the AdminCallBackNumber option. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Your company has an on-premises Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure. The company purchases a subscription to Microsoft Office 365. You plan to implement a hybrid solution between the on-premises infrastructure and Office 365. You implement Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) and you configure directory synchronization between your environment and Office 365. You need to configure federation to support the hybrid configuration. What Skype for Business Management Shell command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
QUESTION 11 You need to design the Call Park solution. Which Call Park design should you choose? To answer, select the appropriate range and application server in the dialog box in the answer area. Hot Area:
QUESTION 12 You need to configure the unassigned numbers range to support the planned changes. Which four actions should you perform? To answer, move the four appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 13 Contoso recently completed a migration to Exchange Online and would like to enable Unified Messaging integration with their on-premises deployment of Skype for Business Server 2015. Outlook Web App Instant Messaging integration is already working, and Exchange Online users are able to schedule Skype meetings from Outlook Web App. You need to identify the first step to be performed on both Exchange Online and Skype for Business Server 2015 to enable Unified Messaging capabilities for all users. In the table below, identify the action that must be taken in each service. NOTE: Make only one selection in each column. Each correct answer is worth one point. Hot Area:
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This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.
Design, implement and maintain a data warehouse (35–40%)
Extract, transform and load data (40–45%)
Build data quality solutions (15–20%)
Who should take this exam?
This exam is intended for extract, transform, and load (ETL) and data warehouse developers who create business intelligence (BI) solutions. Their responsibilities include data cleansing, in addition to ETL and data warehouse implementation.
Latest updates Microsoft 70-767 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 You are creating a Data Quality Services (DQS) solution. You must provide statistics on the accuracy of the data. You need to use DQS profiling to obtain the required statistics. Which DQS activity should you use? A. Cleansing B. Knowledge Discovery C. SQL Profiler D. Matching Rule Definition Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 You plan to use the dtutil.exe utility with Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) to customize packages. You need to create a new package ID for package1 on Server1. Which dtutil.exe command should you run? A. dtutil.exe /FILE c:\repository\packagel.dtsx /DestServer Server! /COPY SQL;package1.dtsx B. dtutil.exe /I /FILE c:\repository\packagel.dtsx C. dtutil.exe /SQL package1 /COPY OTS;c:\repository\package1.dtsx D. dtutil.exe /SQL package1 /DELETE Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) data flow to load sales transactions from a source system into a data warehouse hosted on Windows Azure SQL Database. One of the columns in the data source is named ProductCode. Some of the data to be loaded will reference products that need special processing logic in the data flow. You need to enable separate processing streams for a subset of rows based on the source product code. Which Data Flow transformation should you use? A. Multicast B. Conditional Split C. Destination Assistant D. Script Task Correct Answer: B Explanation: We use Conditional Split to split the source data into separate processing streams. A Script Component (Script Component is the answer to another version of this question) could be used but this is not the same as a Script Task.
QUESTION 4 You are implementing a Microsoft SQL Server data warehouse with a multi-dimensional data model. Orders are stored in a table named Factorder. The addresses that are associated with all orders are stored in a fact table named FactAddress. A key in the FoctAddress table specifies the type of address for an order. You need to ensure that business users can examine the address data by either of the following: shipping address and billing address shipping address or billing address type Which data model should you use? A. star schema B. snowflake schema C. conformed dimension D. slowly changing dimension (SCD) E. fact table F. semi-additive measure G. non-additive measure H. dimension table reference relationship Correct Answer: H
QUESTION 5 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database. The database contains a table named Employee. Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee table. You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity and visibility. On which column in the Employee table should you use an identity specification to include a seed of 1,000 and an increment of 1? A. DateHired B. DepartmentID C. EmployeeID D. EmployeeNum E. FirstName F. JobTitle G. LastName H. MiddleName I. ReportsToID Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to populate a fact table from a source table. The fact table and source table are located in a SQL Azure database. The source table has a price field and a tax field. The OLE DB source uses the data access mode of Table. You have the following requirements: The fact table must populate a column named TotalCost that computes the sum of the price and tax columns. Before the sum is calculated, any records that have a price of zero must be discarded. You need to create the SSIS package in SQL Server Data Tools. In what sequence should you order four of the listed components for the data flow task? (To answer, move the appropriate components from the list of components to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.) Select and Place:
QUESTION 7 You are using the Knowledge Discovery feature of the Data Quality Services (DQS) client application to modify an existing knowledge base. In the mapping configuration, two of the three columns are mapped to existing domains in the knowledge base. The third column, named Group, does not yet have a domain. You need to complete the mapping of the Group column. What should you do? A. Map a composite domain to the source column. B. Create a composite domain that includes the Group column. C. Add a domain for the Group column. D. Add a column mapping for the Group column. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 You are designing a complex SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project that uses the Project Deployment model. The project will contain between 15 and 20 packages. All the packages must connect to the same data source and destination. You need to define and reuse the connection managers in all the packages by using the least development effort. What should you do? A. Copy and paste the connection manager details into each package. B. Implement project connection managers. C. Implement package connection managers. D. Implement parent package variables in all packages. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You plan to deploy a Microsoft SQL server that will host a data warehouse named DB1. The server will contain four SATA drives configured as a RAID 10 array. You need to minimize write contention on the transaction log when data is being loaded to the database. Solution: You replace the SATA disks with SSD disks. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B A data warehouse is too big to store on an SSD. Instead you should place the log file on a separate drive. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/policy-based-management/place-data-and-log-files-on-separate-drives?view=sql-server-2017
QUESTION 10 You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SS1S) package that uploads a file to a table named Orders in a SQL Azure database. The company\\’s auditing policies have the following requirements: Correct Answer: C Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms140223.aspx
QUESTION 11 You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package sources data from an HTML web page that lists product stock levels. You need to implement a data flow task that reads the product stock levels from the HTML web page. Which data flow sources should you use? Select Two A. Raw File source B. XML source C. Custom source component D. Flat File source E. script component Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have a database named DB1. You need to track auditing data for four tables in DB1 by using change data capture. Which stored procedure should you execute first? A. catalog.deploy_project B. catalog.restore_project C. catalog.stop_operation D. sys.sp_cdc_add_job E. sys.sp_cdc_change_job F. sys.sp_cdc_disable_db Correct Answer: D Because the cleanup and capture jobs are created by default, the sys.sp_cdc_add_job stored procedure is necessary only when a job has been explicitly dropped and must be recreated. Note: sys.sp_cdc_add_job creates a change data capture cleanup or capture job in the current database. A cleanup job is created using the default values when the first table in the database is enabled for change data capture. A capture job is created using the default values when the first table in the database is enabled for change data capture and no transactional publications exist for the database. When a transactional publication exists, the transactional log reader is used to drive the capture mechanism, and a separate capture job is neither required nor allowed. Note: sys.sp_cdc_change_job References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/track-changes/track-data-changes-sql-server
QUESTION 13 You are designing a data warehouse hosted on Windows Azure SQL Database. The data warehouse currently includes the dimUser and dimRegion dimension tables and the factSales fact table. The dimUser table contains records for each user permitted to run reports against the warehouse, and the dimRegion table contains information about sales regions. The system is accessed by users from certain regions, as well as by area supervisors and users from the corporate headquarters. You need to design a table structure to ensure that certain users can see sales data for only certain regions. Some users must be permitted to see sales data from multiple regions. What should you do? A. For each region, create a view of the factSales table that includes a WHERE clause for the region. B. Create a userRegion table that contains primary key columns from the dimUser and dimRegion tables. C. Add a region column to the dimUser table. D. Partition the factSales table on the region column. Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 A client has an MPLS inter-AS implementation that is required to have QoS deployed between ASBRs based on IP packet. At the same time, the client requires minimization of the routing configuration between ASBRs for better scalability. Which MPLS inter-AS option can achieve this goal? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option AB Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A NOC engineer is troubleshooting an issue on a customer\\’s server that is connected to a switch port in the data center. The engineer has a packet analyzer that is connected to a test port in the NOC. A core network exists between the NOC and the data center Which two configuration steps should the NOC engineer apply for the port in the NOC and the customer\\’s switch port in the data center? (Choose Two) A. Configure ERSPAN between the NOC test port and customer\\’s switch port B. Enable an MPLS pseusdowire that is destined to the NOC and used by the mirrored customer traffic to cross network C. Enable GRE encapsulation that is destined to the NOC and supply by the mirrored customer traffic to cross the network D. Enable an MPLS TE tunnel that is destined to the NOC and used by the mirrored customer traffic to cross the core network E. Configure RSPAN between the NOC test port and customer\\’s switch port Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3 Process-level redundancy is implemented by a system manager process that creates the standby process. What two functions are provided by the system-level process called Qnet Symlink Manager (QSM)? (Choose two.) A. backing up the information for the broken connections B. provides common information for connecting processes and services C. detection of a failed connection D. provides an abstract name for a process or service E. distribution of symbolic link information Correct Answer: DE 1.4. SP high end product 1.4.01. IOS-XR structure Process-Level Redundancy Process-level redundancy is implemented by a system manager process creating the standby process. Because the active process created the standby process, the active process has all the information that it needs to communicate with the standby process. The active process uses a checkpoint database to share running state with the standby process. Symbolic links and abstract names are used to identify the processes. Clients do not see the standby process until the active goes away. If a process fails and it has created a standby process, a system-level process called QNet Symlink Manager (QSM) and a library called Event Connection Manager (ECM) are used to re-establish links from the clients to the processes. QSM provides: Distribution of symbolic link information Abstract name for a process or service ECM provides: Common information for connecting processes and services Detection of broken connections Only processes considered essential by development engineers are designated to support process-level redundancy. This is not a user-configurable option. Clients have to reconnect to the “new” active process (the “original” standby process) when they detect that the active process has failed. Clients can connect to it using the symbolic links and abstract names. The new active process creates a new standby process. The general steps in process redundancy are: The active process dies. The standby process becomes the active process. A new standby process starts. The new active process begins sending updates to the new standby process. Clients begin using the new active process through the symbolic links and abstract names.
QUESTION 4 In which modes does selective packet discard (SPD) operate? (Choose three.) A. discard B. random C. normal D. full E. select Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 5 Which two components are shared across secure domain routers? (Choose two) A. Fabric B. CPU C. Memory D. Fans E. Forwarding engine Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6 Drag the MPLS label element on the left to the correct length on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 7 In which way does the DS-Lite IPv6 transitioning mechanism differ from IPv6 Dual-Stack? A. DS-Lite is a combination of tunnel and translation technologies. B. DS-Lite is a transition technology that gives full IPv6 connectivity for IPv6 capable hosts that are on the IPv4 Internet but have no native connection to an IPv6 network. C. DS-Lite is an automatic tunnel where the tunnel destination is determined by the IPv4 address extracted from the IPv6 address that starts with the prefix 2002::/16. D. DS-Lite is a stateless tunneling mechanism with a lightweight and secure manner without requiring upgrades to existing IPv4 access network infrastructure. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 In a segment routing-enabled network, which two protocols perform label distribution? (Choose two) A. IS-IS B. LDP C. BGP D. OSPF E. RSVP-TE Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9 Which two statements about IEEE 802.1ah Provider Backbone Bridge are true? (Choose two.) A. IEEE 802.1ah enables geographically separated LAN segments to be interconnected as a single bridged domain over an MPLS network, knowing all the customer MAC addresses. B. IEEE 802.1ah provides the same Ethernet Layer 2 network services as VLAN does, but with greater extensibility and flexibility by overlay scheme over a Layer 3 network. C. IEEE 802.1ah allows a fewer number of pseudowires in the IP/MPLS core to transport a large number of customer services. D. IEEE 802.1ah redefines the flooding and forwarding behavior to avoid loops by not flooding frames received from one member to other members of the same group. E. IEEE 802.1ah provides a means for interconnecting multiple provider bridged to build a large-scale, end-to-end, Layer 2 provider bridged network. Correct Answer: CE Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/asr9k-r6-4/lxvpn/configuration/guide/b-l2vpn-cg-asr9000-64x/b-l2vpn-cg-asr9000-64x_chapter_0111.pdf
QUESTION 10 Which two BGP mechanisms solve the BGP full-mesh paradigm? (Choose two.) A. BGP link state B. MPLS VPN C. route reflectors D. hierarchical VPLS E. confederation F. route policy filtering G. community SOO Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 11 A service provider has a requirements to deploy a virtual router in its network to handle high-performance data plane service up to 20Gbps. Which Cisco solution fulfills this requirement? A. Cisco 7600 B. Cisco ASR 9000 C. Cisco NCS 6000 D. Cisco CSR 1000v E. Cisco nexus 9000v Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which timing over packet solution provides only accurate frequency synchronization, but does not provide time/phase synchronization? A. Timing over IP connection and transfer of clock BOF B. Precision time protocol C. Network time protocol D. Synchronous Ethernet Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit.
Which attached circuit interface shown uses VC Type 4? A. Gi8/0/1 B. AT1/0 C. Se5/0 D. ATM2/0 E. Gi4/0.1 Correct Answer: E
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QUESTION 1 Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s discovery process? (Choose two.) A. Establishing credibility with the customer B. Working with the customer to develop a reference architecture C. Referencing the PPDIOO model to effectively facilitate the discussion D. Gathering information about the current state of the customer\\’s network environment E. Mapping Cisco innovation to customer\\’s needs Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 2 What is the easiest way to enable SD-Access for all your remote site after you have your campus SD-Access fabric up and running? A. Treat all the sites as one fabric domain and use the traditional physical network as the underlay B. Use a separate fabric domain for each site and use SD-WAN as the underlay C. Use a separate fabric domain for each site and use the traditional physical network as the underlay D. Treat all the sites as one fabric domain and use SD-WAN as the underlay Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which node enables Cisco ISE to share contextual information on a device with Cisco Stealth watch? A. Monitoring and Troubleshooting B. pXGrid Controller C. Policy Administration Node D. Inline Posture Node Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which are two Cisco recommendations that demonstrates SDA? (Choose two.) A. Use the CLI to perform as much of the configuration as possible B. Show lite customer how to integrate ISL into DMA Center at the end of the demo C. Focus on business benefits D. Keep the demo at a high level E. Be sure you explain the major technologies such as VXLAN and LISP in depth Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 5 Which two Cisco ISE use cases typically involve the highest level of implementation complexity? (Choose two.) A. Guest and wireless access B. Software defined access C. Device management D. Asset visibility E. Software defined segmentation Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 6 Which are two advantages of a “one switch at a tune\\’ approach to integrating SD-Access into an existing brownfield environment? (Choose two.) A. appropriate for campus and remote site environments B. allows simplified testing prior to cutover C. deal for protecting recent investments while upgrading legacy hardware D. involves the least risk of all approaches E. opens up many new design and deployment opportunities F. allows simplified roll back Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 7 Which three ways are SD-Access and ACI Fabric similar? (Choose three.) A. use of overlays B. use of Virtual Network IDs C. focus on user endpoints D. use of group policy E. use of Endpoint Groups F. use of Scalable Group Tags Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 8 Which two statements are true regarding SD-WAN demonstrations? (Choose two.) A. As a Cisco SD-WAN SF, you should you should spend your time learning about the technology rather than contributing to demo innovation B. Use demonstrations primarily for large opportunities and competitive situations C. During a demo, you should demonstrate and discuss what the team considers important details D. There is a big difference between demos that use a top down approach and demos that use a bottom up approach E. During a demo you should consider the target audience and the desired outcome Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9 Which are two Cisco ISE that benefits our customers ? (Choose two.) A. provides network access controller B. helps them stop and contain real time threats C. enables them to set traffic priorities across the network D. helps them accelerate application deployment and delivery Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10 Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s demo process? (Choose two.) A. determining whether the customer would like to drive deeper during a follow up B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case. E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and complexity Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11 Which Cisco vEdge route offers 20 Gb of encrypted throughput? A. Cisco vEdge 5000 B. Cisco vEdge 1000 C. Cisco vEdge 2000 D. Cisco vEdge 100 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT traversal? A. vBond orchestrator B. vManage C. vSmart controller D. vEdge Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Which is a function of lite Proactive Insights feature of Cisco DNA Center Assurance\\’? A. pointing out where the most serious issues are happening in the network B. generating synthetic traffic to perform tests that raise awareness of potential network issues C. enabling you to quickly view all of the contextual information related to the end application D. enabling you to see the complete path of packets from the client to the end application Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis? A. MDS 9513 B. MDS 9509 C. MDS 9506 D. MDS 9250i Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What is the maximum distance that the 40GBASE-LR4 Ethernet standard can span? A. 550 m B. 10 km C. 40 km D. 80 km Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit.
Which call-out accurately shows the currently running version of the Cisco UCS Manager management software? A. A – UCS Manager running version 1.4(1m) B. B – IO Module 1 running version 1.4(1m) C. C – Interface Card 1 running version 1.4(1m) D. D – Kernel running version 4.2(1)N(1.4m) Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server? A. A is a power button and power status LED; B is the identification button and LED; C is system status LED; D is a network link activity LED. B. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification button and LED. C. A is system status LED; B is network link activity LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification button and LED. D. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is an identification button and LED; D is power button and power status LED. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Up to what speed can Category 5e UTP cable transmit data? A. 10 Mb/s B. 100 Mb/s C. 1000 Mb/s D. 10000 Mb/s Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 Up to what speed can Category 5 UTP cable transmit data? A. 10 Mb/s B. 100 Mb/s C. 1000 Mb/s D. 10000 Mb/s Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which type of optics module is supported by a 6-port 40 GE Cisco Nexus 7000 M2 Series I/O module? A. CPAK B. QSFP+ C. SFP/SFP+ D. CFP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.) A. Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure. B. Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic. C. Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage. D. Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center. Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 9 Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector? A. dual-mode B. single-mode C. straight-mode D. multi-mode E. subscriber-mode Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 When the Cisco UCS Manager is used to verify the B- or C-Series device, which two types of Overall Status are acceptable and do not indicate a failure? (Choose two.) A. Online B. OK C. Unassociated D. Active Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 11 If the Overall Status for a Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server indicates a failure in the Cisco UCS Manager, such as discovery-failed, which statement is true? A. The server shuts down. B. The server automatically reboots reboot in 3 minutes. C. The endpoints on that server cannot be upgraded. D. The server is online, but the administrator cannot assign a service profile to that blade. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit.
Where is the best place to see whether the system is ready for a Fabric Interconnect failover? A. A – Overall Status operable B. B – L1 Connection C. C – Part Details D. D – Access E. E – High Availability Details Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 13 Which tool does a network administrator not need when installing hardware? A. cable tester B. wrench set C. cable wraps D. needle-nose pliers E. PCMCIA memory F. soldering iron with a grounded tip Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 14 Which two Cisco Nexus switches provide the foundation of the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 7718 switch B. Cisco Nexus 9508 switch C. Cisco Nexus 7710 switch D. Cisco Nexus 93128TX switch E. Cisco Nexus 6004 switch Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 15 Refer to the exhibit.
Which item does F represent? A. HDD 1 B. SFP Module C. SuperCap Module D. CPU 2 E. CMOS Battery Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16 How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis? A. Use the Cisco UCS Admin. B. Use the Cisco UCS Application. C. Use the Cisco UCS Assistant. D. Use the Cisco UCS Manager. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17 Which three statements about powering down a Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Server to perform maintenance or replacement are true? (Choose three.) A. Standby power mode: Power is supplied only to the service processor and the cooling fans, and it is safe to power off the server from this mode. B. Power status LED. Green indicates that the server is in main power mode and can be safely powered off. C. Graceful shutdown: Press and release the power button. The operating system performs a graceful shutdown, and the server goes to standby mode, which is indicated by an amber power status LED. D. Disconnect the power cords from the power supplies in your server to completely power off the server. E. Only an emergency shutdown can be performed using the power button on the server front panel. F. The Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Server has only one power mode. Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 18 Which three steps do you perform to troubleshoot when a rack server powers on with no video? (Choose three.) A. Check that the front I/O dongle is properly seated. B. Check the front I/O cable connection to the motherboard. C. Check for memory subsystem failure. D. Verify the power source for equipment. E. Reseat the DIMMs, CPU, and PCI cards. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 19 Refer to the exhibit.
This image shows a CPU Pick-and-Place tool and a CPU Socket Protective Cap Removal tool. Which types of Cisco UCS servers and Intel Xeon processors do these tools support? A. Cisco UCS B22 Blade Server, C22 Rack Server, and C24 Rack Server with Intel Xeon E5- 2400 Series processors B. Cisco UCS B22 Blade Server, C22 Rack Server, and C24 Rack Server with Intel Xeon E5- 2600 Series processors C. Cisco UCS B200 M3 Blade Server, B420 M3 Blade Server, C220 Rack Server, C240 Rack Server, and C420 Rack Sever with Intel Xeon E5-2400 Series processors D. Cisco UCS B200 M3 Blade Server, B420 M3 Blade Server, C220 Rack Server, C240 Rack Server, and C420 Rack Sever with Intel Xeon E5-2600 Series processors Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20 Drag the password recovery procedures on a Cisco NX-OS switch from the left to the right and place them in order. Select and Place:
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 1 Which Cisco product is a premised-based, cloud-managed telephone platform that targets the SMB market for partner recurring revenue? A. Cisco Hybrid Media Services B. Cisco Business Edition 6000 C. Cisco Spark Flex Plan D. Cisco Business Edition 4000 Correct Answer: D Cisco launched a new premise-based, cloud-managed telephony platform targeting the SMB market. The new Cisco Business Edition 4000 provides affordable telephony and voice mail for up to 200 devices, according to Trollope. https:// www.crn.com/slide-shows/networking/300082686/5-new-cisco-collaboration-plays-aimed-at-driving-sales-recurring- revenue-for-partners.htm/pgno/0/1
QUESTION 2 Which option does BYOx refer to? A. bring your own application B. bring your own XML C. bring your own device D. bring your own experience Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which option do all aspects of the Unified Communications and Collaboration system rely on? A. licensing that is purchased B. administrator security rights C. proper design and deployment of the system architecture D. proper delegation of tasks during the sales cycle and deployment Correct Answer: C All aspects of the Unified Communications and Collaboration System, including call routing, call control, applications and services, and operations and serviceability, rely heavily on proper design and deployment of the system architecture. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab09/clb09/ovarchit.pdf
QUESTION 4 For which purpose was the Cisco Spark Flex Plan designed? A. to simplify the transition to cloud-based collaboration solutions B. to simplify the transition to hybrid-based collaboration solutions C. to simplify the transition to all collaboration solutions D. to simplify the transition to premises-based collaboration solutions Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which options are the Cisco user-based license models? A. Cisco UWL and Cisco UCL B. Cisco WUL and Cisco CUL C. Cisco Flex Plans D. Cisco User Integration and Adoption Plans Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which purpose of the Quick Pricing tool is true? A. It obtains general design best practices. B. It provides pricing guidance on the optimal solution. C. It builds the BOM for you. D. It provides detailed design options for Cisco Collaboration. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 For on-premises deployments, which option does Cisco recommend for a consistent one meeting experience and full interoperability\\’? A. Cisco Telepresence Server B. Cisco Meeting Server C. Cisco Expressway D. Cisco Conductor Correct Answer: B Cisco Meeting Server provides a consistent one-meeting experience for every meeting attendee, as well as open interoperability, all based on a highly scalable software architecture supporting business-quality meetings from mobile through immersive via audio, video, and web. The software has two major elements: the server software and an extension of the server in the form of an app/client that Knowledge Workers use to access and control their meetings. Cisco Meeting Server supports standards-based video endpoints, including the Cisco portfolio of telepresence endpoints as well as third-party solutions such as Skype for Business. It includes Personal Multiparty (PMP) and Shared Multiparty (SMP) licenses, Multibrand license, and Recording port licenses https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/spark-flex-plan/datasheet-c78-740394.pdf
QUESTION 8 Which option lists the components of Cisco Spark? A. messaging and meeting B. messaging, meeting, and collaboration C. messaging, meeting and calling D. messaging, calling, and collaboration Correct Answer: C https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en_us/about/doing_business/legal/service_descriptions/docs/Cisco-Spark-Offer- Description.pdf Cisco Spark Services is a subscription-based offer hosted in the Cisco cloud that provides Subscriber access to our end- to-end suite of collaboration software (“Cisco Spark Services”). Cisco Spark Flex Plan is a flexible way to subscribe to Cisco Spark across a variety of deployment models and buying models. Under the Cisco Spark Flex Plan you can choose between Cisco-hosted cloud services and licensed software for on-premises or partner-hosted solutions, and you can mix or flexibly migrate from one deployment or buying model to another under one subscription (“Cisco Spark Flex Plan”). The three core Cisco Spark Services capabilities are messaging, meeting, and calling.
QUESTION 9 Which feature of SWSS eliminates the need to repurchase software licenses? A. software updates B. expert support C. license portability D. license updates Correct Answer: C When purchased with Cisco ONETM Software, SWSS provides support for license portability. During a hardware refresh, this allows you to reassign license entitlements from one hardware platform to another and eliminates the need to purchase new software licenses. https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en_us/services/portfolio/documents/support-service-qa.pdf
QUESTION 10 How is transactional revenue procured? A. through a subscription-based model B. through a one-time transaction C. through a time-building model D. through massive marketing campaigns Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which option do you need to apply a customer budget to products? A. knowledge of who the decision makers are B. clear understanding of the end goal C. if the customer has any flexibility in their budget to buy additional products as needed D. what licenses apply to each product Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which Cisco UCL plans support all Cisco user devices? A. Basic and Enhanced B. Enhanced and Enhanced Plus C. Essential and Enhanced Plus D. Essential and Basic Correct Answer: B https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmfeat/CUCM_BK_F3AC1C0F_00_cucm-f eatures-services-guide-100/CUCM_BK_F3AC1C0F_00_cucm-features-services- guide100_chapter_0100101.html#CUCM_RF_U75FBF1E_00
QUESTION 13 Which components of the on-premises collaboration solution offer IP firewall traversal for B2B and B2C calling? A. Cisco Expressway Core and Expressway Edge B. Cisco Telepresence Conductor C. Cisco Telepresence Server D. Cisco Unity Connection server Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14 How is recurring revenue procured? A. through a time-building model B. through a one-time transaction C. through a subscription-based model D. through massive marketing campaigns Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 Which Cisco platform provides all of the applications and integrations that other vendors have built? A. Hybrid Media Services B. Cisco API and Bot Plan C. Spark Depot Marketplace D. Cisco Spark Flex Plan Correct Answer: C https://blogs.cisco.com/collaboration/discover-cisco-spark-depot
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Latest effective Cisco Account manager 700-551 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 What are the three key issues that customers with compliance standards issues are dealing with? (Choose three.) A. Lack of access policies B. Government controlled security C. E-mail exposure D. Device incompatibility E. Malware attacks F. Network visibility Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 2 Whichare three small budget customer concerns? (Choose three.) A. Budget is controlled by sales B. Licenses are too cheap C. Multiple devices are leaving a gap in security D. Products are not packages together E. Solutions are not prioritized to threats F. Security budget has been decreasing Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 3 Which are three attack vectors of thethreat-centric defense? (Choose three.) A. SaaS apps B. Cloud apps C. E-mail D. Voicemail E. Mobile Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 4 Which three are key points from the Threat-Centric module? (Choose three) A. The Cisco Security Portfolio provide security across the entire business environment B. Cisco Security provides direct, simple, and balanced detection by driving customer outcomes C. Customers are searching for security answers without interrupting productivity D. Cisco Security is the#1 threat model E. Cisco Security provides flexible, simple, and integrated advanced threat detection, through a multilayered approach F. Aneffective security solution can help overcome ever-growing security challenges Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 5 Which three options are a result of utilizing a fragmented security model? (Choose three.) A. Cyber criminals have decreased access to applications B. Multiple points of access that can be exploited by cyber criminals C. Patchworked applications that continually increase in complexity D. Decreased network accessibility through multiple applications E. Individual components pieced together that are incompatible F. Additional fragmentation reduces the risk from malicious files Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 6 Which are two key solutions and features of the Campus and Branch threat-centric solution? (Choose two.) A. Behavioral Indication of Compromise B. File Retrospection and Trajectory C. Network Analytics D. Enabled and protected investments Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 7 What three types of solutions are provided in the Cisco security portfolio? (Choose three) A. Cloud Security B. Policy and Access C. E-mail Analytics D. Advanced Threat E. SaaS and Cloud Platform F. Firewall Security Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 8 What NGIPS appliance would you use if your customer is at the enterprise level and requires modular architecture that is scalable? A. Cisco 4000 series ISR B. FirePOWER 8000 series C. ASA 7000 series D. Cisco 800 series ISR E. FirePOWER 2100 series Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Which two attack vectors protected by Cyber Threat Defense and Network Analytics? (Choose two ) A. Web B. E-mail C. Campus and Branch D. Voicemail E. Cloud apps Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10 What business outcomes are most customers driving to achieve in response to the current security threat landscape? A. Increased scalability blocking only current threats:enabled business B. Complete protection, visibility control and enabled business C. Increased scalability visibility and control, blocking only current threats D. Complete protection, increased fragmentation, enabled business Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which are three Cloud Security products? (Choose three) A. Meraki B. Investigate C. NGFWv(Virtual) D. Cisco Umbrella E. Cloudlock F. Web Security Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 12 Which are two attack vectors protected by DNS-Layer security? (Choose two.) A. Mobile B. Webmail C. Cloud technology D. E-mail E. Voicemail Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 13 Which are three key solutions and features of the Datacenter threat-centric solution? (Choose three.) A. Global ThreatIntelligence B. Data center defense policy enforcement C. Constant threat protection at all levels D. Enhanced visibility of data, user, and device behavior E. Enabled scalability and capability across the business F. File Reputation Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 14 Which are two key points of the Partner Value Proposition module? (Choose two.) A. The Cisco Partner Ecosystem provides partners with the right knowledge, resources, and tools to drive a successfulsecurity practice. B. The security market is growing and the increasing complexity in protecting customer environments is driving demand for specialized partners. C. The Cisco Security Solutions Portfolio drives customer business outcomes by providing threat-centric defense, visibility and control, and flexible solutions D. The collaboration between partners and the Ecosystem is pivotal in supporting customers to drive business outcomes. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 15 Which is the issue you are dealing with,when a customer has a different user groups that needs distinct levels of access to data? A. Limited mobility B. Growing business C. Vulnerable cloud D. Small budget E. Compliance issue Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 16 How does Cisco TrustSec help secure sensitive data and regulating network access? A. E-mail security B. Provide customer choice C. Traffic tagging D. Leverage file reputation E. Ensure compliance Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17 What are two ways Cisco helps partners Go-To-Market? (Choose two.) A. Logo and brand creation B. An evolving threat mitigation software C. Reduced cost of entry D. A customerengagement platform E. Training and specializations Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 18 Which are three key security vectors customers need to monitor to overcome security challenges? (Choose three.) A. Data Center B. Hackers Device C. SaaS and Cloud Platform D. Campus and Branch E. Cloud Apps F. Malware Protection Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 19 Which are three key products andbenefits of the endpoints threat-centric solution? (Choose three ) A. AnyConnect B. URL Sampling C. URL Filtering D. Enhanced access and usage control with ISE E. CRD and Network Analytics F. Increased flexibility across device environments with Cisco Umbrella Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 20 What NGFW appliance would you use if your customer is a small business thatrequires multilayered protection and task automation? A. FirePOWER 3100 series B. ASA 4100 series C. ASA 5500-X with FirePOWER D. Cisco 500 series ISR E. Cisco 4000 series NGIPS Correct Answer: C
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