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Latest Updates Atlassian ACP-600 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Your development team has just released its first version of a GPS tracker yesterday. The next product release is not
due for another 3 months. Which two JQL queries, when executed today, will list all features shipped in the 1.0 version?
(Choose two.)
A. project = GPS AND issuetype Feature AND fixVersion = released()
B. project = GPS AND type = Feature AND fixVersion in (1.0)
C. project = GPS AND issuetype = Feature AND fixVersion(s) IS NOT EMPTY
D. project = GPS AND type = Feature AND fixVersion in releasedVersions()
E. project = GPS AND type = Feature AND fixVersion(s) = “1.0”
F. project = GPS AND issuetype = Feature AND fixVersion in 1.0
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about configuring issue types in a project?
A. Standard and sub-task issue types must always have their own workflows.
B. Epics cannot have sub-tasks in a Jira Software project.
C. There are three levels of issue types in a Jira Software project; Epic, Story, Sub-task.
D. Sub-task issue types can have a different issue of security level than their parent.
E. An issue type scheme can have unlimited sub-task issue types.
F. You can disable the Create Sub-task operation on some standard-issue types.
Correct Answer: F
Reference: https://blog.testlodge.com/how-to-write-test-cases-in-jira/

 

QUESTION 3
A project uses the Simplified Workflow and a Scrum board.
You are the project administrator and the board administrator, but the Extended project administration is disabled.
Which two actions can you perform? (Choose two.)
A. add a status via the workflow editor
B. add a status via the Scrum board
C. set a workflow resolution via the Scrum board
D. set a workflow resolution via the workflow editor
E. add a transition via the workflow editor
F. add a condition via the Scrum board
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 4
Teresa is able to see the Start Progress transition but not the Approve transition on an issue. Her co-worker is able to
see both. Identify two possible causes why Teresa can NOT see the Approve transition. (Choose two.)
A. Teresa is not listed in the correct security level for the issue.
B. Teresa does not have the Transition Issues permission.
C. Teresa is not in the correct group or project role.
D. Teresa does not meet the condition on the Approve transition.
E. Teresa does not have the correct global permission.
F. Teresa does not have the correct application access.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 5
Which two can project administrators associate with project roles? (Choose two.)
A. Security levels
B. Application access
C. Global permissions
D. Groups
E. Individual users
F. Project permissions
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://confluence.atlassian.com/adminjiracloud/managing-project-roles-776636382.html

 

QUESTION 6
Nadav wants to know how accurate estimates were on issues associated with version 2.2. Which report should he use?
A. Time Since Issues Report
B. Resolution Time Report
C. User Workload Report
D. Version Workload Report
E. Time Tracking Report
F. Single Level Group By Report
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
A user approaches you with a problem.
She cannot see or edit the Priority system field on any of the screens of a Process Management project.
What explains the problem?
A. The field does not have the correct configuration context.
B. She is not listed in the priority scheme.
C. The field is hidden in the field configuration.
D. The field is not available for this project template.
E. She does not have the correct permission.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.oasis-open.org/committees/download.php/51095/jira-manual-config.pdf

 

QUESTION 8
In your last team meeting, Scott showed a QA dashboard he has put together. It contains valuable data so he decides to
Share it with the entire project.
When you try to pull up the dashboard for the first time it shows multiple errors instead of the data you expected.
The most common error is: The filter configured for this gadget could not be retrieved. Please verify it is still valid on the
issue navigator.
Scott confirms, that the dashboard seems fine when he looks at it. What is the most likely cause for this behavior?
A. The filters being used in the gadgets return issues that are hidden by a security level.
B. The filters being used in the gadgets have been deleted.
C. The filters being used in the gadgets contain corrupt JQL clauses.
D. The filters being used in the gadgets are private or not shared with you.
E. The filters being used in the gadgets contain field references that have been deleted.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
An extract of a permission scheme is shown below.examsdemo acp-600 exam questions q9

Jennifer Evans needs to be able to:
Manage project role membership Log time to issues What is the minimum number of project roles she needs?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
View the extract of a permission scheme shown below.examsdemo acp-600 exam questions q10

Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Users in the project role Administrators can update components and versions.
B. Users must be in either the Jira-software-users group or the User’s project role to delete issues.
C. All logged-in users can create issues.
D. Users must be in both in the Jira-software-users group and the Users project role to delete issues.
E. Users can edit issues only if they have a valid Jira Core license.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 11
A project has a single issue type named Task to manage Bugs and Feature Requests.
What requirement would result in the need to create an additional issue type to manage Bugs?
A. Different fields should be displayed when creating a Bug based on creator\\’s project role.
B. Different components should be selectable when creating Tasks versus Bugs.
C. Different fields are needed when creating, editing, or viewing Tasks versus Bugs.
D. Different workflow transitions need to be available when Developers move a Bug through the workflow.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
A project uses two issue types named Task and Sub-task which share the workflow shown below.examsdemo acp-600 exam questions q12

What is the maximum number of screens that can be used in the current project configuration?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 8
D. 5
E. 6
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://marketplace.atlassian.com/apps/1214484/issue-type-resolutions-forjira?hosting=serverandtab=overview

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This exam is a qualifying exam for the Specialist-ImplementationEngineer, SC Series track. This exam focuses on the knowledge and activities involved in installing, initializing, configuring and testing the hardware and software of the Dell EMC SC Series Storage products. Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in preparation for the exam.
Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further.

Latest updates EMC DES-1721 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What is a requirement for installing the Dell Storage Manager (DSM) Virtual Appliance?
A. Must be installed on a standalone ESXi Hypervisor
B. Must be installed on a vVols datastore
C. Must be installed on a standalone Hyper-V Hypervisor
D. Must be installed on a standard datastore
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You are about to perform the post-setup tasks with the Storage-Center wizard. What information is required before
proceeding?
A. Customer contact information for the Storage Center
B. Management IPv4 address for the Storage Center
C. Email address for the default administrator
D. NTP server IPv4 address for the Storage Center
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the purpose of the Dell Storage Manager (DSM) Server Agent?
A. Installed on Microsoft Windows servers to replicate data to cloud services
B. Installed on any server OS to easily present and manage mapped volumes
C. Installed on only Linux servers to easily present and manage mapped volumes
D. Installed on only Microsoft Windows servers to easily present and manage mapped volumes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which 64-bit server operating systems are compatible with the Dell Storage Manager (DSM) Client?
A. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6, Windows Server 2012 R2, and Windows Server 2008 R2
B. Windows Server 2008 R2, Windows Server 2012 R2, and Windows 2016
C. Windows Server 2008 R2, Red Hat Enterprise Linux 7, and Windows Server 2012 R2
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6, Windows Server 2016, and Windows Server 2008 R2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
When configuring an SC Series array, why should a 4 MB data page size be selected?
A. When systems have large files with infrequent snapshots
B. This is the default data page size
C. This is an invalid data page size and cannot be selected
D. When applications have high performance needs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You are implementing a front-end connection in Legacy Port Mode on an SC4020 in a SAN with two iSCSI switches.
What is the minimum number of port(s), per switch, that can be used by each controller?
A. One port on each Ethernet switch
B. Two ports on each Ethernet switch
C. Four ports on each Ethernet switch
D. Eight ports on each Ethernet switch
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
When installing an SC Series array, the customer indicated that they want the controller configured to provide the
maximum amount of storage space. You discover that the storage controller was shipped with twelve 900 GB drives and
twelve
1.8 TB drives of the same type.
Which redundancy level can be selected to provide the maximum amount of storage?
A. Put equal size drives in their own pagepool.Change the default redundancy level for the 1.8 TB drives.
B. Put all drives in the same tier.Keep the default redundancy level for both the 900 GB and 1.8 TB drives.
C. Put equal size drives in their own tier.Change the default redundancy level for the 900 GB drives.
D. Put equal size drives in their own pagepool.Keep the default redundancy level for both the 900 GB and 1.8 TB
drives.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
How many SC420 enclosures can be supported by the SC7020 controller?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 6
D. 12
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A customer has a dual controller system, two independent Fibre Channel switches, and six servers all multipathed. How
many zones should be present on each for the SAN to run properly in Virtual Port Mode?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
In an SC Series environment, which Fibre Channel zoning method is more flexible?
A. Port
B. Single Initiator/Multi-Target
C. Single Initiator/Single Target
D. WWN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A customer wants to add an iSCSI path to a Microsoft Windows Server 2012 R1. The server has an existing Fibre
Channel path to an SC7020 array for load balancing and high availability.
Which Windows MPIO policy should be configured to achieve the customer\\’s requirement?
A. Fail Over Only
B. Weighted Paths
C. Round Robin with Subset
D. Round Robin
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which SC Series licenses are applied at the factory?
A. SC4020 and SC7020
B. SC7020 and SCv2000
C. SC8000 and SC9000
D. SCv2000 and SC8000
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
How much memory does the Dell Storage Manager (DSM) Virtual Appliance require to manage seven SC Series
arrays?
A. 2 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 8 GB
D. 16 GB
Correct Answer: D

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Free EMC E05-001 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
What is an accurate statement about the application presentation technique of application virtualization?
A. Application executes remotely and its user interface is transmitted to the client
B. Application is downloaded in portions on the client for local execution
C. Application executes on the client without the use of a locally-installed agent
D. Application is converted into a standalone package that directly executes on the client
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which type of fabric topology does the exhibit represent?lead4pass e05-001 exam question q2

A. Partial mesh
B. Full mesh
C. Single core-edge
D. Dual core-edge
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which fabric login type enables two N_Ports to exchange service parameters to establish a session?
A. PLOGI
B. PRLI
C. FLOGI
D. WWPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is an accurate statement about a virtual machine (VM) snapshot?
A. Captures the state and data of a running VM at a specific point-in-time
B. Provides the capability to delete the parent VM once the snapshot is created
C. Runs as an independent copy from the parent VM
D. Provides the capability to restore VM data to any point-in-time
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What describes an advantage of the changed block tracking backup technique?
A. Increase backup device performance
B. Enable restoration to any point-in-time
C. Eliminate the need for data deduplication
D. Reduce the backup window
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is a benefit of link aggregation in a SAN?
A. Provides a higher throughput than a single interswitch link can provide
B. Distributes the network traffic across all virtual SANs, ensuring even virtual SAN utilization
C. Optimizes performance by consolidating all interswitch links into a single physical link
D. Provides the flexibility to deploy the same interswitch links for both FC and iSCSI traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is an accurate statement about a fabric-provided MAC address (FPMA) used in an FCoE SAN?
A. FCoE switches provide MAC addresses to VN_Ports during node login
B. FC switches provide MAC addresses to VE_Ports dynamically during discovery
C. Compute systems provide MAC addresses to the VF_Ports on FCoE switches
D. Both VF_Ports and VE_Ports obtain MAC addresses from FC switches
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is signified by the “variety” characteristic of big data?
A. Data is generated in different formats by numerous sources
B. Meaning of the data changes constantly
C. Varying data quality affects its reliability and accuracy
D. Data change rate affects its timely analysis
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which process groups multiple physical drives and presents them to a compute system as a single logical volume?
A. Concatenation
B. Partitioning
C. Striping
D. Orchestration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is an accurate statement about OAuth security control?
A. Allows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner
B. Provides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography
C. Enables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code
D. Enables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is an advantage of performing cumulative backups compared to incremental backups for the same data?
A. Facilitates faster restores
B. Facilitates faster backups
C. Reduces the storage space required for backups
D. Eliminates the need for full backups
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which type of login is performed between an N_Port and an F_Port in a Fibre Channel SAN environment?
A. FLOGI
B. PLOGI
C. PRLI
D. WWPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What is an accurate statement about three-way NDMP backup in a NAS environment?
A. Backup data is sent directly from NAS to the backup device
B. Backup data is sent to the backup device through the application servers
C. A dedicated backup device is required for each NAS
D. All NAS systems should have the same operating environment
Correct Answer: A

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Latest effective CompTIA Linux+ LX0-103 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
In the vi editor, how can commands such as moving the cursor or copying lines into the buffer be issued multiple times
or applied to multiple rows?
A. By using the command :repeat followed by the number and the command.
B. By specifying the number right in front of a command such as 4l or 2yj.
C. By selecting all affected lines using the shift and cursor keys before applying the command.
D. By issuing a command such as :set repetition=4 which repeats every subsequent command 4 times.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which command will display messages from the kernel that were output during the normal boot sequence?
Correct Answer: dmesg, /bin/dmesg

QUESTION 3
What information can the lspci command display about the system hardware? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Device IRQ settings
B. PCI bus speed
C. System battery type
D. Device vendor identification
E. Ethernet MAC address
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 4
During a system boot cycle, what program is executed after the BIOS completes its tasks?
A. The bootloader
B. The inetd program
C. The init program
D. The kernel
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands can be used to search for the executable file foo when it has been placed in a
directory not included in $PATH?
A. apropos
B. which
C. find
D. query
E. whereis
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following sequences in the vi editor saves the opened document and exits the editor? (Choose TWO
correct answers.)
A. esc ZZ
B. ctrl :w!
C. esc zz
D. esc :wq!
E. ctrl XX
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Instead of supplying an explicit device in /etc/fstab for mounting, what other options may be used to identify the intended
partition? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. FIND
B. ID
C. LABEL
D. NAME
E. UUID
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
Which of the following commands is used to change options and positional parameters for a running Bash?
A. history
B. set
C. bashconf
D. setsh
E. envsetup
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the purpose of the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard?
A. It is a security model used to ensure files are organized according to their permissions and accessibility.
B. It provides unified tools to create, maintain and manage multiple filesystems in a common way.
C. It defines a common internal structure of inodes for all compliant filesystems.
D. It is a distribution neutral description of locations of files and directories.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands overwrites the bootloader located on /dev/sda without overwriting the partition table or
any data following it?
A. dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/sda bs=512
B. dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/sda bs=512 count=1
C. dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/sda bs=440 count=1
D. dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/sda bs=440
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
In the vi editor, which of the following commands will copy the current line into the vi buffer?
A. c
B. cc
C. 1c
D. yy
E. 1y
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What of the following statements are true regarding /dev/ when using udev? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Entries for all possible devices get created on boot even if those devices are not connected.
B. Additional rules for udev can be created by adding them to /etc/udev/rules.d/.
C. When using udev, it is not possible to create block or character devices in /dev/ using mknod.
D. The /dev/ directory is a filesystem of type tmpfs and is mounted by udev during system startup.
E. The content of /dev/ is stored in /etc/udev/dev and is restored during system startup.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which of the following commands will print the last 10 lines of a text file to the standard output?
A. cat -n 10 filename
B. dump -n 10 filename
C. head -n 10 filename
D. tail -n 10 filename
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
After running the command umount /mnt, the following error message is displayed:
umount: /mnt: device is busy.
What is a common reason for this message?
A. The kernel has not finished flushing disk writes to the mounted device.
B. A user has a file open in the /mnt directory.
C. Another file system still contains a symlink to a file inside /mnt.
D. The files in /mnt have been scanned and added to the locate database.
E. The kernel thinks that a process is about to open a file in /mnt for reading.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which of the following commands changes the ownership of file.txt to the user dan and the group staff?
A. chown dan/staff file.txt
B. chown dan:staff file.txt
C. chown -u dan -g staff file.txt
D. chown dan -g staff file.txt
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What is the default action of the split command on an input file?
A. It will break the file into new files of 1,024 byte pieces each.
B. It will break the file into new files of 1,000 line pieces each.
C. It will break the file into new files of 1,024 kilobyte pieces each.
D. It will break the file into new files that are no more than 5% of the size of the original file.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
When running the command
sed -e “s/a/b/” /tmp/file >/tmp/file
While /tmp/file contains data, why is /tmp/file empty afterwards?
A. The file order is incorrect. The destination file must be mentioned before the command to ensure redirection.
B. The command sed did not match anything in that file therefore the output is empty.
C. When the shell establishes the redirection it overwrites the target file before the redirected command starts and
opens it for reading.
D. Redirection for shell commands do not work using the > character. It only works using the | character instead.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which of the following kernel parameters instructs the kernel to suppress most boot messages?
A. silent
B. verbose=0
C. nomesg
D. quiet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which umask value will result in the default access permissions of 600 (rw——-) for files and 700 (rwx——) for
directories? (Specify only the numerical umask value.)
Correct Answer: 0077, 077

QUESTION 20
Which of the following characters can be combined with a separator string in order to read from the current input source
until the separator string, which is on a separate line and without any trailing spaces, is reached?
A.

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Latest effective CompTIA Linux+ LX0-102 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
When generating new authentication keys with SSH for a user, where should the private key be kept?
A. On any trusted system from which the user will login.
B. On a CD-ROM or USB stick.
C. Printed and kept in a secure place.
D. Only on the computer where the key was created.
E. SSH does not use private keys.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An administrator decides to use xinetd instead of inetd. Now, the administrator needs to transfer information from
/etc/inetd.conf to another file. What file must be created or edited? (Please specify the full path).
Correct Answer: /ETC/XINETD.CONF

QUESTION 3
Which of the following commands can be used to convert text files in one character encoding to another character
encoding?
A. cat
B. convert
C. dd
D. iconv
E. utf2utf
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An administrator wants to temporarily prevent users from logging in. Please complete the following commanD. touch
/etc/______
Correct Answer: NOLOGIN

QUESTION 5
The _________ command is used to assign an IP address to a device. (Please specify a single command with or
without path information)
Correct Answer: /SBIN/IFCONFIG
/SBIN/IFCONFIG, /SBIN/IP, IFCONFIG, IP

QUESTION 6
The xinetd service will be used instead of inetd. In order to create a similar configuration as inetd, what main file must be
created or edited for xinetd? (Please specify the full path)
Correct Answer: /etc/xinetd.conf

QUESTION 7
Please specify the top directory containing the configuration files for the CUPS printing system. (Provide the full path to
the directory)
Correct Answer: /etc/cups
/etc/cups, /etc/cups/

QUESTION 8
An administrator suspects that a gateway machine on the network has failed but they are unsure which machine. Which
of the following commands will help locate the problem?
A. ps
B. netstat
C. nslookup
D. ifconfig
E. traceroute
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
The legacy program, provided by CUPS for sending files to the printer queues on the command line is:
A. lpd
B. lpp
C. lpq
D. lpr
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
An ISP has given an executive an IP block for their use. The block is 192.168.112.64/27. If the network administrator
uses the first usable IP for the router that is installed on the executive\\’s network, how many usable IPs are left?
(Please enter the number and not a word)
Correct Answer: 29

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the purpose of the nsswitch.conf file?
A. It is used to configure where the C library looks for system information such as host name services and user
passwords.
B. It is used to configure network protocol port numbers such as for HTTP or SMTP.
C. It is used to configure LDAP authentication services for the local system.
D. It is used to configure which network services will be turned on during the next system reboot.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
On a system running the K Display Manager, when is the /etc/kde4/kdm/Xreset script automatically executed?
A. When KDM starts
B. When a user\\’s X session exists
C. When KDM crashes
D. When X is restarted
E. When X crashes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following benefits does an alias provide?
A. It provides faster lookups for commands.
B. It prevents having to type long commands
C. It hides from others the command that is being run.
D. It creates a local copy of a file from another directory.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
According to the FHS, where are user mailboxes kept? Assume that mail is not being delivered to somewhere in their
home directories.
A. /var/spool
B. /etc/mail
C. /var/mail
D. /usr/mail
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which protocol uses two (2) TCP/IP ports one of them being port 20 for data transfer? (Please do not enter duplicate
answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: FTP

QUESTION 16
Which of the following is NOT contained in the locale setting of the operating system?
A. Currency symbol
B. Language
C. Timezone
D. Thousands separator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
A department decided to change the Gnome Display Manager\\’s greeting. Which of the following configuration files
should an administrator edit?
A. /etc/gnome/greeting
B. /opt/gnome/share/greeting
C. /etc/X11/gmd.conf
D. /etc/X11/gdm/Init/Default
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
With IPv6, how many bits have been used for the host identifier portion of an address? (Please enter the number and
not a word)
Correct Answer: 64

QUESTION 19
Which of the following commands is used on the command line to send messages to the syslog systems.
A. lastlog
B. klog
C. logger
D. slog
E. syslog
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
To slave the NTP daemon to an external source, an administrator needs to modify the ______ variable in the
/etc/ntp.conf file.
Correct Answer: SERVER

QUESTION 21
After configuring printing on a Linux server, the administrator sends a test file to one of the printers and it fails to print.
What command can be used to print the status of the printer\\’s queue? (Provide only the command, without any options
or parameters).
Correct Answer: /USR/BIN/LPQ
/USR/BIN/LPQ, LPQ

QUESTION 22
Which of the following configuration files does sudo read when determining if a user is permitted to run applications with
root privileges?
A. /etc/groups
B. /etc/passwd
C. /etc/sudoers
D. /etc/sudo.conf
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which of the following outputs will the below command sequence produce? echo \\’1 2 3 4 5 6\\’ | while read a b c; do
echo result: $c $b $a; done
A. result: 3 4 5 6 2 1
B. result: 1 2 3 4 5 6
C. result: 6 5 4
D. result: 6 5 4 3 2 1
E. result: 3 2 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Correct Answer: /usr/bin/lsof
lsof, /usr/bin/lsof

QUESTION 25
Identify the statement that would create a default route using a gateway of 192.168.1.1.
A. netstat -add default gw 192.168.1.1
B. route add default gw 192.168.1.1
C. ip route default 192.168.1.1
D. route default gw 192.168.1.1
E. ifconfig default gw 192.168.1.1 eth0
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
The ________ command is used to add a group to the system. (Please enter only a single command and do not enter
duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /USR/SBIN/GROUPADD
/USR/SBIN/GROUPADD, GROUPADD

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is pool.ntp.org?
A. A deprecated feature for maintaining system time in the Linux kernel.
B. A website which provides binary and source packages for the OpenNTPD project.
C. A virtual cluster of various timeservers.
D. A community website used to discuss the localization of Linux.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which of the following describes the Linux ping packet or datagram?
A. IP packet with a packet type
B. ICMP packet with a message type
C. ICMP packet with a payload
D. UDP datagram with a protocol type
E. UDP datagram with a payload
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
An executive\\’s ISP has given an IP block for their use. The block is 192.168.112.64/29. If the network administrator
uses the first usable IP for the router that is installed on the executive\\’s network, how many usable IPs are left?
(Please enter the number and not a word)
Correct Answer: 5

QUESTION 30
Which of the following files, when using Sendmail or a similar MTA system, will allow a user to redirect all their mail to
another address and is configurable by the user themselves?
A. /etc/alias
B. /etc/mail/forwarders
C. ~/.alias
D. ~/.forward
Correct Answer: D

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Exam AZ-300: Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-300

Candidates for this exam are Azure Solution Architects who advise stakeholders and translate business requirements into secure, scalable, and reliable solutions. Candidates should have advanced experience and knowledge across various aspects of IT operations, including networking, virtualization, identity, security, business continuity, disaster recovery, data management, budgeting, and governance. This role requires managing how decisions in each area affect an overall solution. Candidates must be proficient in Azure administration, Azure development, and DevOps, and have expert-level skills in at least one of those domains.

Skills measured

  • A NEW VERSION OF THIS EXAM, AZ-303, WILL BE AVAILABLE ON APRIL 28, 2020. You will be able to take this exam until it retires on July 28, 2020. Please download the skills measured document below to see what will be changing.
  • NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured in the document below are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
  • Deploy and configure infrastructure (40-45%)
  • Implement workloads and security (25-30%)
  • Create and deploy apps (5-10%)
  • Implement authentication and secure data (5-10%)
  • Develop for the cloud and for Azure storage (15-20%)

Latest updates Microsoft AZ-300 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You plan to back up an Azure virtual machine named VM1.
You discover that the Backup Pre-Check status displays a status of Warning.
What is a possible cause of the Warning status?
A. VM1 does not have the latest version of WaAppAgent.exe installed
B. A Recovery Services vault is unavailable
C. VM1 has an unmanaged disk
D. VM1 is stopped
Correct Answer: A
The Warning state indicates one or more issues in VM\\’s configuration that might lead to backup failures and provides
recommended steps to ensure successful backups. Not having the latest VM Agent installed, for example, can cause
backups to fail intermittently and falls in this class of issues.
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/azure-vm-backup-pre-checks/

QUESTION 2
You have an on-premises network that contains a Hyper-V host named Host1. Host1 runs Windows Server 2016 and
hosts 10 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016.
You plan to replicate the virtual machines to Azure by using Azure Site Recovery.
You create a Recovery Services vault named ASR1 and a Hyper-V site named Site1.
You need to add Host1 to ASR1.
What should you do?
A. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the storage account key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.
B. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the vault registration key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.
C. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the storage account key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.
D. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the vault registration key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/hyper-v-azure-tutorial

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.
Solution: Configure notifications in the Azure API Management instance.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto-configure-notifications

QUESTION 4
You need to define a custom domain name for Azure AD to support the planned infrastructure. Which domain name
should you use?
A. ad.humongousinsurance.com
B. humongousinsurance.local
C. humongousinsurance.com
D. humongousinsurance.onmicrosoft.com
Correct Answer: C
Every Azure AD directory comes with an initial domain name in the form of domainname.onmicrosoft.com. The initial
domain name cannot be changed or deleted, but you can add your corporate domain name to Azure AD as well. For
example, your organization probably has other domain names used to do business and users who sign in using your
corporate domain name. Adding custom domain names to Azure AD allows you to assign user names in the directory
that
are familiar to your users, such as ‘[email protected]

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual networks. The virtual networks are hosted in separate resource
groups.
Another administrator plans to create several network security groups (NSGs) in the subscription.
You need to ensure that when an NSG is created, it automatically blocks TCP port 8080 between the virtual networks.
Solution: You create a resource lock, and then you assign the lock to the subscription.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
How can I freeze or lock my production/critical Azure resources from accidental deletion? There is way to do this with
both ASM and ARM resources using Azure resource lock.
References: https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/azureedu/2016/04/27/using-azure-resource-manager-policy-and-azure-lock-to-control-your-azure-resources/

QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft SQL Server Always On availability group on Azure virtual machines. You need to configure an
Azure internal load balancer as a listener for the availability group. What should you do?
A. Create an HTTP health probe on port 1433.
B. Set Session persistence to Client IP.
C. Set Session persistence to Client IP and protocol.
D. Enable Floating IP.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/sql/virtual-machines-windows-portal-sql-alwayson-int-listener

QUESTION 7
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains the virtual networks in the following
table:lead4pass AZ-300 exam question q7

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass AZ-300 exam question q7-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass AZ-300 exam question q7-2

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/tutorial-connect-virtual-networksportal

QUESTION 8
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
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When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button.
Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you
complete the rest of the exam.
Overview
The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While
most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste,
ability
to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You plan to allow connections between the VNET01-USEA2 and VNET01-USWE2 virtual networks.
You need to ensure that virtual machines can communicate across both virtual networks by using their private IP
address.
The solution must NOT require any virtual network gateways.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1.
Subscription1 contains the virtual machines in the following table:lead4pass AZ-300 exam question q9

Subscription1 contains a virtual network named VNet1 that has the subnets in the following table.

lead4pass AZ-300 exam question q9-1

VM3 has multiple network adapters, including a network adapter named NIC3. IP forwarding is enabled on NIC3.
Routing is enabled on VM3. You create a route table named RT1 that contains the routers in the following table.

lead4pass AZ-300 exam question q9-2

You apply RT1 to Subnet1 and Subnet2.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

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Correct Answer:

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IP forwarding enables the virtual machine a network interface is attached to:
Receive network traffic not destined for one of the IP addresses assigned to any of the IP configurations assigned to the
network interface.
Send network traffic with a different source IP address than the one assigned to one of a network interface\\’s IP
configurations.
The setting must be enabled for every network interface that is attached to the virtual machine that receives traffic that
the virtual machine needs to forward. A virtual machine can forward traffic whether it has multiple network interfaces or
a
single network interface attached to it.
Box 1: Yes
The routing table allows connections from VM3 to VM1 and VM2. And as IP forwarding is enabled on VM3, VM3 can
connect to VM1.
Box 2: No
VM3, which has IP forwarding, must be turned on, in order for VM2 to connect to VM1.
Box 3: Yes
The routing table allows connections from VM1 and VM2 to VM3. IP forwarding on VM3 allows VM1 to connect to VM2
via VM3.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-networks-udr-overview
https://www.quora.com/What-is-IP-forwarding

QUESTION 10
SIMULATION
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.lead4pass AZ-300 exam question q10 lead4pass AZ-300 exam question q10-1 lead4pass AZ-300 exam question q10-2

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button.
Note that you cannot return to the lab once you click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you
complete the rest of the exam.
Overview
The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While
most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste,
ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are
able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You recently created a virtual machine named Web01.
You need to attach a new 80-GB standard data disk named Web01-Disk1 to Web01.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 11
You have an Azure subscription that contains two storage accounts named storagecontoso1 and storagecontoso2.
Each storage account contains a queue service, a table service, and a blob service.
You develop two apps named App1 and App2. You need to configure the apps to store different types of data to all the
storage services on both the storage accounts.
How many endpoints should you configure for each app?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 12
Correct Answer: A
Each app needs a service endpoint in each Storage Account.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-network-security

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You are designing a virtual network to support a web application. The web application uses Blob storage to store large
images. The web application will be deployed to an Azure App Service Web App.
You have the following requirements:
Secure all communications by using Secured Socket layer (SSL)
SSL encryption and decryption must be processed efficiently to support high traffic load on the web application Protect
the web application from web vulnerabilities and attacks without modification to backend code Optimize web application
responsiveness and reliability by routing HTTP request and responses to the endpoint with the lowest network latency
for the client.
You need to configure the Azure components to meet the requirements.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass AZ-300 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass AZ-300 exam question q12-1

Box 1: Azure application Gateway Azure Application Gateway supports end-to-end encryption of traffic. Application
Gateway terminates the SSL connection at the application gateway. The gateway then applies the routing rules to the
traffic, re-encrypts the packet, and forwards the packet to the appropriate back-end server based on the routing rules
defined. Any response from the web server goes through the same process back to the end user.
Box 2: Azure Security Center
Azure Security Center is a unified infrastructure security management system that strengthens the security posture of
your data centers, and provides advanced threat protection across your hybrid workloads in the cloud – whether they\\’re
in
Azure or not – as well as on premises.
Box 3: Azure Traffic Manager
Azure Traffic Manager is a DNS-based traffic load balancer that enables you to distribute traffic optimally to services
across global Azure regions, while providing high availability and responsiveness.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/application-gateway-end-to-end-ssl-powershell
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/traffic-manager/traffic-manager-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security-center/security-center-intro

QUESTION 13
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1.
You have 5 TB of data that you need to transfer to Subscription1.
You plan to use an Azure Import/Export job.
What can you use as the destination of the imported data?
A. an Azure Cosmos DB database
B. Azure SQL Database
C. Azure File Storage
D. Azure Data Lake Store
Correct Answer: C
Azure Import/Export service is used to securely import large amounts of data to Azure Blob storage and Azure Files by
shipping disk drives to an Azure datacenter.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-import-export-service

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Exam MB-200: Microsoft Power Platform + Dynamics 365 Core: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/mb-200

Candidates for this exam are functional consultants who have access to the features and functionality of the enterprise licensed product. As a functional consultant, the candidate is aware of bundled versions of features but does not primarily work with these bundled products.

Candidates are primarily responsible for configuring the system to meet client needs, performing design tasks related to implementing new features and functionality, and implementing and testing system change.

Candidates plan the functional design for solutions, implement an application lifecycle management (ALM) process, migrate data and objects from legacy and external systems, integrate Power Platform with other systems, and manage the Power Platform environment.

Skills measured

  • Perform discovery, planning, and analysis (5-10%)
  • Manage user experience design (20-25%)
  • Manage entities and data (15-20%)
  • Implement security (5-10%)
  • Implement integration (15-20%)
  • Perform solutions deployment and testing (25-30%)

Latest updates Microsoft Certifications MB-200 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You manage a Dynamics 365 environment. You create a global option set for a custom solution.
You observe the following issues with the global option set:
The default prefix is incorrect.
The option set value is too long.
You need to change the option set value and ensure the correct prefix is used.
Which actions should you perform? To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct options. Each action may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass mb-200 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-200 exam question q1-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customize/change-solution-publisher-prefix

QUESTION 2
A company identifies a new opportunity.
Sales associates must collaborate to convert the opportunity to a sale. All associates have access to Microsoft
SharePoint, but some associates do not have access to Dynamics 365 for Sales.
You need to ensure that users can collaborate on a single platform that directly integrates with Dynamics 365 data.
Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft OneDrive for Business
B. Microsoft Skype for Business
C. Microsoft Office 365 Delve
D. Yammer
E. Microsoft Office 365 Groups
Correct Answer: E
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/basics/collaborate-with-colleagues-using-office-365-groups

QUESTION 3
You manage Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Development, Test, and Production instances. You use an
unmanaged solution to develop customizations and deploy the customizations to a Production instance.
Several deployed customizations do not meet legal standards. You delete the unmanaged solution and the
customizations remain.
You need to remove the customizations.
What should you do?
A. Change the publisher settings.
B. Install the previous solution.
C. Manually remove each customization.
D. Change the version number on the unmanaged solution to the previous version.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator.
You are unable to import a translation file.
You need to determine if the file being imported is of the right type and format, and that the file conforms to maximum
field length requirements.
Which parameter should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass mb-200 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-200 exam question q4-1

QUESTION 5
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator.
When a customer case is assigned to a new representative, the system must send an email to the customer to alert
them about the change.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass mb-200 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-200 exam question q5-1

QUESTION 6
You import data into Dynamics 365 for Customer Service by using the Import Data wizard. Errors occur when you try to
import the following data lines:lead4pass mb-200 exam question q6

You need to identify the cause of the errors.
What error types have occurred? To answer, drag the appropriate error types to the correct data. Each error type may
be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass mb-200 exam question q6-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-200 exam question q6-2

QUESTION 7
You export a Microsoft Excel workbook from Dynamics 365. The workbook contains 10,000 rows of data. You email the
workbook and a description of the data to another user.
The user reports that they can only see 500 rows of data.
You need to determine why the user cannot view all the data.
Why is the user unable view all available data?
A. You exported a static worksheet. The user does not have the appropriate security role in Dynamics 365 to see all
records.
B. You exported a PivotTable worksheet. The user does not have the appropriate security role in Dynamics 365 to see
all records.
C. You created a chart in Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement and exported the chart.
D. You ran a report in Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement and then saved the report as an Excel file.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You are the system administrator for Dynamics 365. You add a custom URL field for the Account entity.
You need to make changes to a custom field.
Which four fields can you change after the initial change? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass mb-200 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-200 exam question q8-1

QUESTION 9
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Services system administrator. Sales team members access Dynamics 365 by
using a tablet device.
Sales team members report several issues when they access Dynamics 365.
You need to resolve the issues.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass mb-200 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-200 exam question q9-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/mobile-app/troubleshooting-things-know-about-phones-tablets

QUESTION 10
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator for a Sandbox and a Production instance.
A user forgets to sign out from a shared device connected to a Production instance. A second user makes changes to
records using the credentials of the first user.
You need to implement user session timeouts to prevent this type of issue from recurring.
Where should you configure this feature?
A. each instance of Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) associated to the tenant
B. each user in Microsoft 365 admin center
C. each user in Dynamics 365
D. each Dynamics 365 instance
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You are a Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement administrator. Each team will use Microsoft Excel in different ways.lead4pass mb-200 exam question q11

You need to select an Excel option to meet the needs of each team.
Which Excel option should be deployed for each team? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass mb-200 exam question q11-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-200 exam question q11-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/basics/export-data-excel

QUESTION 12
You manage a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service instance.
You must modify the unit price from two decimal places to four decimal places.
You need to ensure the unit price displays with four digits after the decimal.
What should you configure?
A. Currency Precision to use four decimal places.
B. Base Currency to use four decimal places.
C. Currency field type to whole number.
D. Currency Conversion to use four decimal places.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator.
A user creates a duplicate account record with an updated email address.
You need to remove the duplicate record and update the primary record with the new email address.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass mb-200 exam question q13

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-200 exam question q13-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/basics/merge-duplicate-records-accounts-contacts-leads

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Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.

Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.

Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.

Latest updates Microsoft MS-201 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Case Study : Litware,Inc.
Case Study
Overview
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe.
PhysicalLocations
Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome.
Each branch office has its own compliance officer.
ExistingEnvironment
The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory
domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU)
in an
OU named Offices in Active Directory.
Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each
Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels,
RegionalAdmins_Munich,
RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as
DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office.
All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance.
Each office has the following servers and client computers:
One reverse proxy appliance
One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server
One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server
Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange
Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured.
Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main
office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is
configured
to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full
backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport
department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Litware plans to implement the following changes:
Implement calendar sharing to partner companies.
Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the
need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the
mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure
that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the
item
must be available.
TechnicalRequirements
Litware identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize administrative effort.
Use the principle of least privilege.
Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted
automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure
that
all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT
department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement.
Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items.
Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to
the Junk Email folder.
Problemstatements
The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow.
Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are
open.
You need to recommend a solution to retain the items in the public folders. The solution must support the planned
changes.
What should you recommend?
A. Create an Outlook rule that forwards all the items in each public folder to a compliance mailbox.
B. Place an In-Place Hold on all the mailboxes of the public folders.
C. Increase the frequency of the backups.
D. Modify the public folder permissions.
Correct Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/security-and-compliance/in-place-and-litigationholds#placingpublic-folders-on-hold

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment.
All user mailboxes are migrated to Exchange Online.
You need to migrate the public folders from the on-premises organizations to Exchange Online. Which three actions
should you perform in sequence before you create the migration batch? To answer, move the appropriate actions from
the
list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-201 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/Exchange/collaboration/public-folders/migrate-to-exchangeonline?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment that contains two Mailbox servers named
MBX1 and MBX2.
The company has the departments shown in the following table.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q3

From the on-premises organization, outbound email is sent directly to the internet by using DNS lookups.
You are informed that some sales department users send email messages that are identified as spam.
You need to automatically block the sales department users from repeatedly sending spam.
Solution: You modify the Send connector to use Exchange Online as a smart host.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow-best-practices/use-connectors-to-configure-mail-flow/set-up-connectors-to-route-mail

QUESTION 4
Overview
General Overview
Contoso, Ltd. is a national freight company in the United States. The company has 15,000 employees.
PhysicalLocations
Contoso has a main office in Houston and 10 branch offices that each contains 1,000 employees.
ExistingEnvironment
Active Directory and Microsoft Exchange Server Environments The network contains an Active Directory forest named
contoso.com. The forest contains one root domain named contoso.com and 10 child domains. All domain controllers
run
Windows Server 2019.
The forest has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
deployed.
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2019 and Microsoft Office 365.
There are 2,000 user mailboxes in Exchange Online.
Each office contains two domain controllers and two Mailbox servers. the main office also contains an Edge transport
server.
The organization contains 100 public folders. The folders contain 80 GB of content. All email messages sent to
contoso.com are delivered to Exchange Online. All messages sent to onpremises mailboxes are routed through the
Edge
Transport server. Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) is enabled and configured for the Office 365 tenant.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office connects directly to the Internet by using a local connection. The offices connect to each other by using a
WAN link.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Contoso plans to implement the following changes:
1.
or all new users in the on-premises organization, provide an email address that uses the value of the Last Name
attribute and the first two letters of the First Name attribute as a prefix.
2.
ecommission the public folders and replace the folders with a Microsoft 265 solution that maintains web access to the
content.
Technical Requirements
Contoso identifies the following technical requirements:
1.
All email messages sent from a SMTP domain named adatum.com must never be identified as spam.
2.
Any solution to replace the public folders must include the ability to collaborate with shared calendars.
Security Requirements
Contoso identifies the following security requirements:
1.
The principle of least privilege must be applied to all users and permissions.
2.
All email messages sent from an SMTP domain named com to contoso.com must be encrypted.
3.
All users must be protected from accessing unsecure websites when they click on URLs embedded in email messages.
4.
If a user attempts to send an email message to a distribution group that contains more than 15 members by using
Outlook, the user must receive a warning before sending the message.
Problemstatements Recently, a user named HelpdeskUser1 erroneously created several mailboxes. Helpdesk1user1 is
a member of the Recipient Management management role group. Users who have a mailbox in office 365 report that it
takes a long time for email messages containing attachments to be delivered.
Exhibitlead4pass ms-201 exam question q4

You need to recommend a solution for the public folders that supports the planned changes and meets the technical
requirements. What should you recommend?
A. Microsoft SharePoint site mailboxes
B. Office 365 groups
C. Resource mailboxes
D. Public folder replicas
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/collaboration/public-folders/migrate-to-office-365-groups?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 5
You deploy a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You need to ensure that users of all new mailboxes are prevented from editing their personal information.
What should you do?
A. From PowerShell, run the New-RoleGroup cmdlet and specify the -CustomRecipientWritesScope parameter.
B. From the Exchange admin center, create a new role assignment policy.
C. From the Exchange admin center, run a new role group and assign the role group to Domain users.
D. From PowerShell, run the New-RoleAssignmentPolicy cmdlet and specify the -isDefault parameter.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/role-based-access-control/new-roleassignmentpolicy?view=exchange-ps

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that has the mailboxes shown in the following table.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6

You have the distribution groups shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6-1

Email messages sent within the organization are shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statements is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6-3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q6-4

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/policy-andcompliance/ediscovery/ediscovery?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 7
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains mailbox servers in four Active Directory sites.
The organization contains 35,000 user mailboxes. The network bandwidth between the sites is limited.
Users frequently travel between the sites.
You need to ensure the users download the offline address book (OAB) from a local server.
What should you do?
A. Create an arbitration mailbox in each site and configure shadow copies of the OAB.
B. Modify the OAB virtual directories on the Exchange servers in each site to use unique URLs.
C. Place the arbitration mailbox of the OAB in a database that replicates between the sites by using a database
availability groups (DAG).
D. Create a separate OAB and arbitration mailbox in each site.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/offline-address-books/offline-address-books?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment.
You are migrating public folder data to Exchange Online by using a migration batch of the PublicFolder type.
You need to identify the sync of each move request in the batch.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Get-PublicFolderMailboxMigrationRequests
B. Get-MoveRequest
C. Get-PublicFolderMoveRequest
D. Get-PublicFolderMigrationRequest
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/Exchange/collaboration/public-folders/migrate-to-exchange-online?view=exchserver-2019
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/move-and-migration/get-publicfoldermoverequest?view=exchange-ps

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription and configure Active Directory synchronization.
You use a smart host for all communication between the organization and the Internet. The smart host performs email
hygiene and alters message headers.
You plan to run the Hybrid Configuration wizard to create an Exchange hybrid deployment and change the MX record to
point to Exchange Online.
You need to decommission the smart host from the organization.
What should you do first?
A. Modify the InternalSmtpServer value by running the Set-TransportConfig cmdlet.
B. Modify the Send connector to use DNS delivery.
C. Modify the TLSReceiveDomainSecureList value by running the Set-TransportConfig cmdlet.
D. Create a Receive connector that allows anonymous authentication.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/mail-flow/set-transportconfig?view=exchange-ps

QUESTION 10
Case Study : Litware,Inc.
Case Study
Overview
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe.
PhysicalLocations
Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome.
Each branch office has its own compliance officer.
ExistingEnvironment
The network contains oneImplement a compliance solution to ensure that items deleted from public folders Active
Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory domain. Each office is configured as
an Active
Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU) in an OU named Offices in Active Directory.
Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each
Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels,
RegionalAdmins_Munich,
RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as
DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office.
All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance.
Each office has the following servers and client computers:
One reverse proxy appliance
One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server
One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server
Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange
Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured.
Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main
office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is
configured
to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full
backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport
department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Litware plans to implement the following changes:
Implement calendar sharing to partner companies.
Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the
need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the
mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure
that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the
item
must be available.
TechnicalRequirements
Litware identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize administrative effort.
Use the principle of least privilege.
Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted
automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure
that
all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT
department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement.
Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items.
Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to
the Junk Email folder.
Problemstatements
The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow.
Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are
open.
You need to implement a solution to support the planned changes for the helpdesk users.
What should you do?
A. Assign the Recipient Policies role to the helpdesk users and a default management scope
B. Assign the Mail Recipients role to the helpdesk users and use a default management scope
C. Assign the Mail Recipients role to the helpdesk users and create a custom management scope
D. Assign the Recipient Policies roles to the helpdesk users and create a custom management scope
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You plan to purchase a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription and create a hybrid deployment.
You are evaluating the security requirements for communication between the on-premises and Exchange Online.
You need to ensure that Exchange Online services can access the necessary on-premises virtual directories.
Which two on-premises virtual directories should be accessible to Exchange Online services? Each correct answer
presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Rpc
B. EWS
C. PowerShell
D. ecp
E. mapi
F. Autodiscover
Correct Answer: EF
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/configure-exchange-server-for-hybrid-modern-authentication

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment that contains two Mailbox servers named
MBX1 and MBX2.
The company has the departments shown in the following table.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q12

From the on-premises organization, outbound email is sent directly to the internet by using DNS lookups. You are
informed that some sales department users send email messages that are identified as spam. You need to
automatically block the sales department users from repeatedly sending spam.
Solution: You migrate all the mailboxes of the sales department to Exchange Online. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization and a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. From the Microsoft 365
admin center, you open Data migration as shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-201 exam question q13

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q13-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-201 exam question q13-2

References:
https://www.stellarinfo.com/blog/hybrid-migration-migrate-exchange-mailboxes-office-365/
https://www.kerneldatarecovery.com/blog/migrate-from-exchange-on-premises-to-exchangeonlinein-hybrid-environment/

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Latest updates Salesforce ADM-201 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following are setting options for the User Interface?
A. Enable Collapsible Sections
B. Show Quick Create
C. Show customer Sidebar Components on All Pages
D. Transfer all Open Opportunities E. Enable Drag-and-drop scheduling on List Views
Correct Answer: ABCE

 

QUESTION 2
The Self Service Portal and Customer Portal are the same technology?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which is the new type of Dashboard Chart to make entry in Spring\\’11 Release?
A. Waterfall Chart
B. Scatter
C. Gauge
D. Metric
E. Organization Chart
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
True or False, Final reject actions in a workflow approval process can include actions such as email alerts.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
In List View Enhancements, users can export list results to CSV file
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Can you set Standard and Custom fields as unique or required using the Property feature?
Correct Answer: No, only custom fields.

 

QUESTION 7
History Tracking can be performed on the following Standard Objects Except Select the choice which is applicable.
A. Accounts
B. Forecasts
C. Contacts
D. Leads
E. Opportunities
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is NOT controlled by the Page Layout?
A. How detail and edit pages are organized
B. Field properties like visible, read-only and required
C. Controlling which fields, related lists, and Custom Links users sees
D. Page section customizations
E. Rollup summary
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 9
Sharing rules can be formed on the following except:
A. Custom objects
B. Standard objects
C. Junction Objects
D. Objects on managed packages
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
What is Salesforce.com Partner Portal? Choose 2 answers:
A. Use your company logo on a Partner Site
B. Develop Partner Application on Force.com Platform
C. Data goes into your Salesforce objects through a third party site
D. Create Interactive Communities
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 11
What should be the Advanced filter Conditions to meet the requirement “Find contacts owned by Poo that have a title of
CFO, functional role of CFO, or reports to the CFO?
1) Title equals CFO 2) Functional Role equals CFO 3) Reports To equals CFO 4) Contact Owner contains Poo
A. (1 OR 2 OR 3) AND 4
B. (4 AND (2 OR 3)) OR 1
C. (1 OR 2 OR (3 AND 4)
D. (1 AND (2 OR 3)) OR 4
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Using the following hierarchy, if a sharing rule exists granting Operations Person Read/Write access to Sales
Management on the Account Object, what access does Operations Management have to Sales Management\\’s
accounts?
Default access for the Account object is Public Read Only. Executive Management Sales Management Sales Person
Operations Management Operations Person
A. None
B. Read Only
C. Read/Write
D. Read/Write/Transfer
Correct Answer: C
Read/Write is granted through role hierarchy permissions from the sharing rule. If the sharing rule referenced a sharing
group then the Grant Access Using Hierarchies would not apply. This could also be true for a custom object; all
standard objects require Grant Access Using Hierarchies.

 

QUESTION 13
What is the limit of Master-Detail Relationships per object?
A. 35
B. 25
C. 15
D. 3
E. 2
F. 8
Correct Answer: E

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Latest Oracle 1z0-064 exam List

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Oracle Database 12c: Performance Management and Tuning: https://education.oracle.com/oracle-database-12c-performance-management-and-tuning/pexam_1Z0-064

Latest updates Oracle 1z0-064 exam practice questions(1-5)

QUESTION 1
You are administrating a database that supports a DSS workload. Syntactically similar queries using joins and
aggregate functions are frequently executed by users to fetch data from remote databases by using database links.
Which three tasks should you perform to improve the performance of these queries?
A. Ensure that the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_RESULT parameter is set to 100.
B. Ensure that the RESULT_CACHE_REMOTE_EXPIRATION parameter is set to a nonzero value for the local
instance.
C. Ensure that the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_SIZE parameter is set to a nonzero value on the local database instance.
D. Ensure that the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_SIZE parameter is set to a nonzero value on both the local and remote
database instances.
E. Ensure that the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_SIZE parameter is set to a nonzero value on the remote database instance.
F. Ensure that the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_MODE parameter is set to FORCE for the local instance.
G. Ensure that the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter is set to FORCE for remote database instances.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 2
Which two result in the least internal fragmentation within segments and the least external fragmentation within
tablespaces? (Choose two.)
A. automatic segment space managed segments
B. locally managed tablespaces with uniform extent size
C. freelist managed segments with one freelist
D. dictionary managed tablespaces
E. locally managed tablespaces that were converted from dictionary managed tablespaces
F. freelist managed segments with multiple freelists
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
In which three situations can dynamic statistics be used? (Choose three.)
A. when the sampling time is a small fraction of the total time for a query
B. when an execution plan is suboptimal because of complex predicates
C. when extended statistics are not available for SQL statements that use complex predicates
D. when a query is on a partitioned table with a global index
E. when index statistics are missing on a column that is used in SQL statements with highly selective filters
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about the interpretation of Buffer Cache Hit Ratio in the Instance Efficiency Percentages
section of an AWR report? (Choose two.)
A. A high value indicates that the buffer cache is adequately sized for the current workload.
B. Poor hit ratios indicate that a large number of indexed lookups or small table scans are being performed.
C. A low hit ratio does not necessarily imply that increasing the size of the buffer cache will improve performance.
D. A high hit ratio may indicate that repeated scanning of the same large table or index is being performed.
E. A low hit ratio indicates that a KEEP buffer pool should be configured based on the size of the largest object
accessed in the buffer cache.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
You are administering a database that supports an OLTP workload. RESULT_CACHE_MODE is set to the default value
and a result cache is configured for the instance. Multiple sessions execute syntactically similar queries without dblinks,
containing functions and expressions, on tables with no DML activity. Some users complain about poor performance of
these queries.
You investigate and find that the queries are frequently performing physical I/O, even though the results fetched by the
queries are similar.
Which two actions do you recommend to overcome the problem affecting these queries? (Choose two.)
A. Set the RESULT_CAHCE_MODE parameter to FORCE for the instance.
B. Use the result cache hint in the queries.
C. Use bind variables for similar queries instead of literals.
D. Set the RESULT_CACHE_REMOTE_EXPIRATION parameter to a nonzero value.
E. Configure the KEEP pool and cache the queried tables used in the KEEP pool.
Correct Answer: AB

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Latest Oracle 1z0-066 exam List

Oracle Oracle 1z0-066 Exam Video

1Z0-066 – Oracle University:https://education.oracle.com/oracle-database-12c-data-guard-administration/pexam_1Z0-066

Latest updates Oracle 1z0-066 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
Which three statements are true about standby redo logs in a Data Guard configuration with no Oracle Streams or
Goldengate configured?
A. They are required on a logical standby for real-time apply
B. They are required only for synchronous redo transport.
C. Only standby databases can write redo to them.
D. It is recommended to have them on the primary database.
E. They are required on a physical standby for real-time apply.
F. The LGWR process writes to them on a standby database.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 2
Which two are true about management of a far sync instance when using the Data Guard Broker?
A. A far sync instance is in a disabled state in the broker configuration immediately after adding it
B. A far sync instance that has its RedoRoutes property set may not be disabled in the broker configuration.
C. Broker management of a far sync instance may only be disabled with the disable configuration DGMGRL command.
D. A far sync instance need not exist before adding it to the broker configuration but may not be enabled until created
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which two Data Guard monitoring activities may be performed using Enterprise Manager Cloud Control?
A. monitoring the redo apply rate on a physical standby
B. monitoring the redo apply rate on a logical standby
C. monitoring the undo generation rate on a logical standby
D. monitoring the redo apply rate on a snapshot standby
E. monitoring the transport lag
F. monitoring the undo generation rate on the primary
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
Examine the Data Guard configuration: DGMGRL> show configuration Configuration -Animals Protection Mode:
MaxAvailability Databases: dogs- Primary database
sheep- (*) Physical standby database cats- Physical standby database Fast-Start Failover: ENABLED Configuration
Status: SUCCESS What happens if you issue “switchover” to sheep;” at the DGMGRL prompt?
A. The switchover succeeds but Dogs need to be reinstated
B. The switchover succeeds but Fast-Start Failover is suspended.
C. The switchover succeeds and Cats become the new failover target.
D. The switchover succeeds and Dogs become the new failover target
E. it results in an error indicating that a switchover is not allowed.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Examine the Data Guard configuration: DGMGRL > show configuration; Configuration-Animals
Protection Mode MaxPerformance Databases dogs-Primary database sheep-Snapshot standby database catsSnapshot standby database Fast-Start Failover: DISABLED Configuration Status: SUCCESS
You receive an error while attempting to raise the protection mode to Maximum Availability:
DGMGDRL> edit configuration set protection mode as max availability;
Error ORA-16627 operation disallowed since no standby databases would remain to support protection mode Failed.
Identify two statements that you can execute, either one of which will enable successful raising of the protection mode to
Maximum Availability.
A. DGMGRL> convert database sheep to physical standby;
B. DGMGRL> convert database cats to physical standby;
C. DGMGRL> edit database dogs set property LogXptMode= fastsync;
D. DGMGRL> edit database sheep set property LogXptMode= fastsync;
E. DGMGRL> edit database cats set property LogXptMode= sync;
Correct Answer: BE

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Oracle WebLogic Server 12c: Advanced Administrator II:https://education.oracle.com/oracle-weblogic-server-12c-advanced-administrator-ii/pexam_1Z0-134

Latest updates Oracle 1z0-134 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
Your organization is using a Multi data source (MDS) on WebLogic Server to support applications connecting to an
Oracle RAC database. You have been tasked with configuring a new callback handler for the MDS. Which two
statements are true concerning related MDS options and behavior? (Choose two.)
A. Callback handlers are optional when using the Failover MDS Algorithm.
B. If the Failover Callback Handler attribute is set on the MDS, the Test Frequency attribute is no longer used.
C. Callback handlers are called for both failover and failback decisions.
D. You can register only one callback handler for each WebLogic server.
Correct Answer: CD
C: A callback handler used to control the failover and failback within a multi-data source must include an implementation
of the weblogic.jdbc.extensions.ConnectionPoolFailoverCallback interface.
D: You can register a callback handler with WebLogic Server that controls when a multi-data source with the Failover
algorithm fails over connection requests from one JDBC data source in the multi-data source to the next data source in
the list.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The frequency of these tests is controlled by the Test Frequency Seconds attribute of the multi-source. The default value
for Test Frequency is 120 seconds, so if you do not specifically set a value for the option, the multi-data source will test
disabled data sources every 120 seconds.
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E23943_01/web.1111/e13737/jdbc_multidatasources.htm#JDBCA223

QUESTION 2
You are analyzing the JMSDeliveryMode header field for all the messages for all the queues deployed to your
JMSServer. Which two values do you expect to find for this header? (Choose two.)
A. PERSISTENT
B. NON_PERSISTENT
C. TRANSIENT
D. PERMANENT
E. MULTIMODE
F. EXACTLY_ONCE
Correct Answer: AB
JMSDeliveryMode specifies PERSISTENT or NON_PERSISTENT messaging. Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12840_01/wls/docs103/jms/fund.html

QUESTION 3
You are using the administration console to monitor messages in a queue. Which three tasks can be performed while
doing this monitoring? (Choose three.)
A. Create a new message in the queue.
B. Duplicate a message.
C. Monitor the content of a message.
D. Delete the message from the queue.
E. Merge two messages.
F. Alter the ordering of the messages.
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 4
You want to create a WebLogic Server (WLS) Work Manager with a Response Time Request Class of one second. You
start to create the following WLST script:Examsdemo 1z0-134 exam questions q4

Which two can replace the missing sequence to finish this script? (Choose two.)
A. cmo.addTarget(getMBean(\\’/Servers/ManagedServer\\’))
cd(\\’edit:/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager\\’) cmo.setResponseTimeRequestClass(getMBean
(\\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime\\’))
B. managedServer=getMBean(\\’/Servers/ManagedServer\\’) cmo.addTarget(managedServer)
cmo.setWorkManaqer(getMBean(\\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorManagers/MyWorkManager\\’))
C. cd(\\’edit:/Servers/ManagedServer\\’) cmo.addTarget(getMBean
(\\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime\\’)) cmo.addTarget
(getMBean(\\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager\\’))
D. managedServer=getMBean(\\’/Servers/ManagedServer\\’) cmo.addTarget(managedServer)
cd(\\’edit:/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager\\’) cmo.setResponseTimeRequestClass(getMBean
(\\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime\\’))
E. cmo.addTarqet(\\’/Servers/ManagedServer\\’) cd(\\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager\\’)
cmo.setResponseTimeRequestClass (\\’/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime\\’)
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12839_01/apirefs.1111/e13952/pagehelp/J2EEappworkresponsetimerequestclassconfigtitle.html

QUESTION 5
Which three statements are correct regarding the WLST to create command? (Choose three.)
A. When the create command is used with WLST online, the connection must be to the administration server.
B. The type of MBean being created must be a child type of the current management object.
C. The correct order of the mandatory parameters for the create statement is a name followed by childMBeanType.
D. The create command is used to create any configuration or runtime management bean.
E. The create command returns a WLSTProgress object.
Correct Answer: ABC
A: When using the create command with WLST online you must be connected to an Administration Server.
B: Child types must be created under an instance of their parent type.
C: Syntax: create(name, childMBeanType, [baseProviderType])
The Create command creates a configuration bean of the specified type for the current bean.
Incorrect Answers:
D: The create command returns a stub for the newly created configuration bean. It can\\’t create a runtime management
bean.
E: The create command returns a stub for the newly created configuration bean.
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E13222_01/wls/docs92/config_scripting/reference.html#wp1081543

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Oracle Database SQL | 1Z0-071 – Oracle University:https://education.oracle.com/oracle-database-sql/pexam_1Z0-071

Latest updates Oracle 1z0-071 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the PRODUCT_INFORMATION table.Examsdemo 1z0-071 questions q1

Which two tasks would require subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. displaying all the products whose minimum list prices are more than the average list price of products having the status
orderable
B. displaying the total number of products supplied by supplier 102071 and having product status OBSOLETE
C. displaying the number of products whose list prices are more than the average list price
D. displaying all supplier IDs whose average list price is more than 500
E. displaying the minimum list price for each product status
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Evaluate the following queryExamsdemo 1z0-071 questions q2

What is the correct output of the above query?
A. +00-300, +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
B. +25-00, +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
C. +00-300, +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
D. +25-00, +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
In which three situations does a transaction complete?
A. when a PL/SQL anonymous block is executed
B. when a DELETE statement is executed
C. when a ROLLBACK command is executed
D. when a data definition language (DDL) statement is executed
E. when a TRUNCATE statement is executed after the pending transaction
Correct Answer: CDE
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14220/transact.htm

QUESTION 4
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table. (Choose two.)Examsdemo 1z0-071 questions q4

You executed this SQL statement:
SELECT first_name, department_id, salary FROM employees ORDER BY department_id, first_name, salary desc;
Which two statements are true regarding the result? (Choose two.)
A. The values in the SALARY column would be returned in descending order for all employees having the same value in
the DEPARTMENT_ID and FIRST_NAME column.
B. The values in the FIRST_NAME column would be returned in ascending order for all employees having the same
value in the DEPARTMENT_ID column.
C. The values in the SALARY column would be returned in descending order for all employees having the same value in
the DEPARTMENT_ID column.
D. The values in all columns would be returned in descending order.
E. The values in the FIRST_NAME column would be returned in descending order for all employees having the same
value in the DEPARTMENT_ID column.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which two statements are true regarding the execution of the correlated subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. The nested query executes after the outer query returns the row.
B. The nested query executes first and then the outer query executes.
C. The outer query executes only once for the result returned by the inner query.
D. Each row returned by the outer query is evaluated for the results returned by the inner query.
Correct Answer: AD

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