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Latest updates Cisco 300-815 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A support engineer is troubleshooting a voice network. When conducting a search for call setup details related to calling
search space issues, which trace files should be investigated?
A. CallManager traces
B. CTI Manager traces
C. Cisco IP Manager Assistant
D. Call logs
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-815 q2

Calls incoming from the provider are not working through newly set up Cisco Unified Border Element. Provider
engineers get the 404 Not Found SIP message. Incoming calls are coming from the provider with called number
“222333444” and Cisco Unified Communications Manager is expecting the called number to be delivered as
“444333222”. The administrator already verified that the IP address of the Cisco Unified CM is set up correctly and there are no dial peers configured other than those shown in the exhibit. Which action must the administrator take to fix the
issue?
A. Change the destination-pattern on the outgoing dial peer to match “444333222”.
B. Set up translation-profile on the incoming dial peer to match incoming traffic.
C. Create specific matching for “222333444” on the incoming dial peer.
D. Fix the voice translation-rule to match specifically number “222333444” and change it to “444333222”.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which IOS command creates a SIP-enabled dial peer?
A. voice dial-peer 20 sip
B. dial-peer voice 20 voip
C. dial-peer voice 20 pots
D. dial peer voice 20 sip
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=664148andseqNum=6

 

QUESTION 4
An administrator discovers that employees are making unauthorized long-distance and international calls from loggedoff Extension Mobility phones when the authorized users are away from their desks Which two configurations should the
administrator configure in the Cisco UCM to avoid this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions from the calling search space of the physical phone.
B. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the physical phone\\’s
directory number.
C. Remove the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions from the calling search space of the device profile.
D. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the physical phone.
E. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the device profile
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 5
A user in location X dials an extension at location Y. The call travels through a QoS-enabled WAN network, but the user
experiences choppy or clipped audio. What is the cause of this issue?
A. missing Call Admission Control
B. codec mismatch
C. ptime mismatch
D. phone class of service issue
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-815 q6

Users report that when they dial the emergency number 9911 from any internal phone, it takes a long time to connect
with the emergency operator. Which action resolves this issue?
A. Adjust the service parameter T302 timet to the desired value.
B. Adjust the service parameter T204 timer to the desired value.
C. Check the Urgent Priority check box under 9.911 pattern.
D. Point the emergency pattern directly to the PSTN gateway.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
What is first preference condition matched in a SIP-enabled incoming dial peer?
A. incoming uri
B. target carrier-id
C. answer-address
D. incoming called-number
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip-voip/211306-InDepthExplanation-of-Cisco-IOS-and-IO.html#anc8

 

QUESTION 8
An engineer must route all SIP calls in the form of @example.com to the SIP trunk gateway corporate local. Which two
SIP route patterns can be used to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. [email protected]
B. *@example.com
C. gateway.corporate.local
D. example.com
E. *.*
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-815 q9

An administrator is troubleshooting a situation where a call placed from a phone registered to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager does not complete. The administrator wants to use the Dialed Number Analyzer on Cisco
Unified CM to check which translation pattern the call is matching. However, when logging in to Cisco Unified
Serviceability there is no option for Dialed Number Analyzer under the tool menu. Which two steps must be performed
to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Restart the subscriber
B. Activate the Cisco Extended Functions service.
C. Activate the Cisco CallManager service.
D. Activate the Cisco Dialed Number Analyzer service.
E. Activate the Cisco Dialed Number Analyzer Server service.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 10
A user reports when they press the services key they do not receive a user ID and password prompt to assign the
phone extension. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Create the default device profiles for all phone models that are used.
B. Subscribe the phone to the Cisco Extension Mobility service.
C. Create the end user and associate it to the device profile.
D. Assign the extension as a mobile extension.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Which configuration must an administrator perform to display Translation Pattern operations in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager SDL traces?
A. Enable the Detailed Call Analysis option under Enterprise Parameters for Unified CM.
B. Set up the Digit Analysis Complexity in Service Parameters for Cisco Unified CM to
TranslationAndAlternatePatternAnalysis.
C. Check the Translation Patterns Analysis check box in Micro Traces on the Cisco Unified CM Serviceability page.
D. By default, the Translation Patterns operations are printed in SDL traces, so no additional configuration is necessary.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/taking-sip-call-trace-on-ciscounified-cm-usingrtmt/ta-p/3161200

 

QUESTION 12
A customer is using a SIP trunk to route calls to ITSP to decrease the possibility of downtime, the customer invested in
a failover device How does the customer ensure reachability to ITSP, so that if one device on ITSP fails, the calls will be
routed to another device?
A. Enable transmit security status on the SIP security profile
B. Enable ANAT on the SIP profile.
C. Monitor the link using network management toots, and if it fails, manually change the routing to another working
device.
D. Enable SIP Option Ping on the SIP profile.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Configure Call Queuing in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Where do you set the maximum number of callers
in the queue?
A. in the telephony service configuration
B. in the queuing configuration
C. in Cisco Unified CM Enterprise Parameters
D. in Cisco Unified CM Service Parameters
Correct Answer: B
Reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communicationsmanagercallmanager/200453-Configure-CUCM-Native-Call-Queuing-Featu.html

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QUESTION 1
DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the functionalities from the left onto the correct target fields on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
Which configuration modifies Local Packet Transport Services hardware policies?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/crs/software/crs_r4-1/addr_serv/command/reference/b_ipaddr_cr41crs/b_ipaddr_cr41crs_chapter_0111.html#wp1754734006

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is preparing to implement a data plane security configuration. Which statement about this
configuration is true?
A. Router 2 is the router receiving the DDoS attack.
B. Router 1 must be configured with uRPF for the RTBH implementation to be effective.
C. Router 1 is the trigger router in an RTBH implementation.
D. Router 2 must configure a route to null 0 for network 192.168.1.0/24 for the RTBH implementation to be complete.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which three OSPF parameters must match before two devices can establish an OSPF adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. subnet mask
C. interface cost
D. process ID
E. area number
F. hello timer setting
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 5
Which statement about segment routing prefix segments is true?
A. It is the longest path to a node.
B. It is linked to an adjacency SID that is globally unique within the router.
C. It is linked to a prefix SID that is globally unique within the segment routing domain.
D. It requires using EIGRP to operate.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/segment-routing/configuration/guide/b-segrouting-cg-asr9k/b-seg-routing-cg-asr9k_chapter_010.pdf

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement supports QPPB implementation?
A. QPPB policies affect only egress traffic.
B. QoS policies rely exclusively on BGP attributes to manipulate traffic.
C. QoS policies are identified in the MPLS forwarding table.
D. QoS policies use BGP to gain full coverage on the network.
Correct Answer: B
The QoS Policy Propagation via BGP feature allows you to classify packets by IP precedence based on the Border
Gateway Protocol (BGP) Attributes like community lists, BGP autonomous system paths, and access lists.

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration prevents the OSPF neighbor from establishing?
A. default-metric
B. duplex
C. network statement
D. MTU
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What are two factors to consider when implementing NSR High Availability on an MPLS PE router? (Choose two.)
A. It consumes more memory and CPU resources than NSF
B. It operates normally without NSR support on the PE peers.
C. It requires all PE-CE sessions to support NSR
D. It requires routing protocol extensions
E. It cannot sync state information across redundant RPs
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is implementing a BGP routing policy. Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. All traffic that matches acl10 is allowed without any change to its local preference.
B. All traffic that matches acl10 is dropped without any change to its local preference.
C. If traffic matches acl10, it is allowed and its local preference is set to 300.
D. All traffic is assigned a local preference of 300 regardless of its destination.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A network engineer is configuring a BGP route policy for the SUBNET prefix set. Matching traffic must be dropped, and
other traffic must have its MED value set to 400 and community 4:400 added to the route. Which configuration must an
engineer apply?
A. router-policy CISCO if destination in SUBNET then drop
else
set med 400
set community (4:400) additive
endif
end-policy
end
B. router-policy CISCO if destination in SUBNET then
drop
endif
set med 400
if community matches any SUBNET then
set local-preference 400
set med 500
set community (4:400) additive
endif
end-policy
end
C. router-policy SUBNET if destination in SUBNET then
drop
endif
set med 400
set local-preference 400
if community matches any SUBNET then
set community (4:400)
endif
end-policy
end
D. router-policy SUBNET if destination in BGP then drop
else
set med 400
set community (4:400)
endif
end-policy
end
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator working for a service provider with an employee id: 1234:56:789 applied this
configuration to a router.
Which additional step should the engineer use to enable LDP?
A. Enable MPLS LDP on the interface.
B. Disable Cisco Express Forwarding globally.
C. Delete the static router ID.
D. Configure both keywords to enable LDP globally.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

A network operator must configure CSR1 interlaces GigabitEihernet2 and GigabitEthemet to rewrite VLAN tags 12 and
21 for traffic between R1 and R2 respectively. Which configurator accomplishes this task?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
Correct Answer: C
IF bridge domain on both interfaces are 10

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit. Router 1 was experiencing a DDoS attack that was traced to interface gigabitethernet0/1. Which
statement about this configuration is true?
A. Router 1 accepts all traffic that ingresses and egresses interface gigabitethernet0/1.
B. Router 1 drops all traffic that ingresses interface gigabitethernet0/1 that has a FIB entry that exits a different
interface.
C. Router 1 accepts source addresses that have a match in the FIB that indicates it is reachable through a real
interface.
D. Router 1 accepts source addresses on interface gigabitethernet0/1 that are private addresses.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nxos/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_urpf.html

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QUESTION 1
Which two operations are valid for RESTCONF? (Choose two.)
A. HEAD
B. REMOVE
C. PULL
D. PATCH
E. ADD
F. PUSH
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/166/b_166_programmability_cg/b_166_programmability_cg_chapter_01011.html

 

QUESTION 2
What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution?
A. to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships
B. to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric
C. to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD-Access fabric.
D. to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button
under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN?
A. ISE server
B. local WLC
C. RADIUS server
D. anchor WLC
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions correct
B. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table
C. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices
D. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing
before they are sent to the FIB
Correct Answer: A
The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table?CEF uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions.
The FIB is conceptually similar to a routing table or information base. It maintains a mirror image of the forwarding
information contained in the IP routing table. When routing or topology changes occur in the network, the IP routing
table is updated, and these changes are reflected in the FIB. The FIB maintains next-hop address information based on
the information in the IP routing table. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/routers/12000-seriesrouters/47321-ciscoef.html

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the OPSF debug output is true?
A. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent to received on interface Fa0/1.
B. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on all interfaces.
C. The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent received on interface Fa0/1.
D. The output displays OSPF hello and LSACK messages which router R1 has sent or received.
Correct Answer: C
This combination of commands is known as “Conditional debug” and will filter the debug output based on your
conditions. Each condition added, will behave like an `And\\’ operator in Boolean logic. Some examples of the “debug IP OSPF hello” are shown below:

QUESTION 6
Which standard access control entry permits from odd-numbered hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet?
A. Permit 10.0.0.0.0.0.0.1
B. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.0
C. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.254
D. Permit 10.0.0.0.255.255.255.254
Correct Answer: C
Remember, for the wildcard mask, 1s are I DON\\’T CARE, and 0s are I CARE. So now let\\’s analyze a simple ACL:
access-list 1 permit 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255
Two first octets are all 0\\’s meaning that we care about the network 172.23.x.x. The third octet of the wildcard mask, 15
(0000 1111 in binary), means that we care about the first 4 bits but don\\’t care about the last 4 bits so we allow the third octet in
the form of 0001xxxx (minimum:00010000 = 16; maximum: 0001111 = 31).

The fourth octet is 255 (all 1 bits) which means I don\\’t care. Therefore network 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255 ranges from
172.23.16.0 to 172.23.31.255. Now let\\’s consider the wildcard mask of 0.0.0.254 (four-octet: 254 = 1111 1110) which
means we
only care the last bit. Therefore if the last bit of the IP address is a “1” (0000 0001) then only odd numbers are allowed.
If the last bit of the IP address is a “0” (0000 0000) then only even numbers are allowed.
Note: In binary, odd numbers always end with a “1” while even numbers always end with a “0”.
Therefore in this question, only the statement “permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.254” will allow all odd-numbered
hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet.

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the
network. Which COS to DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly?
A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46
B. COS of 7 to DSCP 48
C. COS of 6 to DSCP 46
D. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure.
Which design facilitates migration from a traditional campus design to a programmable fabric design?
A. Layer 2 access
B. three-tier
C. two-tier
D. routed access
Correct Answer: C
Intent-based networking (IBN) transforms a hardware-centric, manual network into a controller-led network that
captures business intent and translates it into policies that can be automated and applied consistently across the
network. The goal is for the network to continuously monitor and adjust network performance to help assure desired
business outcomes. IBN builds on software-defined networking (SDN). SDN usually uses spine-leaf architecture, which
is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves (such as an access layer).

 

QUESTION 9
An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.)
A. Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic
B. Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible
C. Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate
D. Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it
E. Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible
Correct Answer: CE
Traffic policing propagates bursts. When the traffic rate reaches the configured maximum rate (or committed information
rate), excess traffic is dropped (or remarked). The result is an output rate that appears as a saw-tooth with crests and
troughs.
Unlike traffic shaping, traffic policing does not cause delay. Classification (which includes traffic policing, traffic shaping, and queuing techniques) should take place at the network edge. It is recommended that classification occur as close to the source of the traffic as possible. Also according to this Cisco link, “policing traffic as close to the source as
possible”.

 

QUESTION 10
To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer
enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC
to connect?
A. Auto
B. Active
C. On
D. Passive
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-mobility-documents/lag-link-aggregation/ta-p/3128669

 

QUESTION 11
Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12
On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric?
A. LISP
B. IS-IS
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. VXLAN
Correct Answer: D
The tunneling technology used for the fabric data plane is based on Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN). VXLAN
encapsulation is UDP-based, meaning that it can be forwarded by any IP-based network (legacy or third party) and
creates the overlay network for the SD-Access fabric. Although LISP is the control plane for the SD-Access fabric, it
does not use LISP data encapsulation for the data plane; instead, it uses VXLAN encapsulation because it is capable of
encapsulating the original Ethernet header to perform MAC-in-IP encapsulation, while LISP does not. Using VXLAN
allows the SD-Access fabric to support Layer 2 and Layer 3 virtual topologies (overlays) and the ability to operate over
any IP-based network with built-in network segmentation (VRF instance/VN) and built-in group-based policy. Reference:
CCNP and CCIE Enterprise Core ENCOR 350-401 Official Cert Guide

 

QUESTION 13
Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall?
A. Passive
B. Tap
C. Inline tap
D. Inline
Correct Answer: D
Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) provides six interface modes which are: Routed, Switched, Inline Pair, Inline Pair with
Tap, Passive, Passive (ERSPAN). When Inline Pair Mode is in use, packets can be blocked since they are processed
inline When you use Inline Pair mode, the packet goes mainly through the FTD Snort engine When Tap Mode is
enabled, a copy of the packet is inspected and dropped internally while the actual traffic goes through FTD unmodified
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-ngfw/200924-configuringfirepower-threat-defenseint.html

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QUESTION 1

cisco 350-201 q1

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop has automatically submitted
a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine for further analysis. What should be concluded from this report?
A. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the
scores do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.
B. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the
scores are high and do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.
C. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.
D. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are
low and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which command was executed in PowerShell to generate this log?cisco 350-201 q2

A. Get-EventLog -LogName*
B. Get-EventLog -List
C. Get-WinEvent -ListLog* -ComputerName localhost
D. Get-WinEvent -ListLog*
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://lists.xymon.com/archive/2019-March/046125.html

 

QUESTION 3
DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the threat from the left onto the scenario that introduces the threat on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

cisco 350-201 q3

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q3-1

QUESTION 4
A SOC analyst is notified by the network monitoring tool that there are unusual types of internal traffic on IP subnet
103.861.2117.0/24. The analyst discovers unexplained encrypted data files on a computer system that belongs on that
specific subnet.
What is the cause of the issue?
A. DDoS attack
B. phishing attack
C. virus outbreak
D. malware outbreak
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Which asset has the highest risk value?cisco 350-201 q5

A. servers
B. website
C. payment process
D. secretary workstation
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
What is the principle of Infrastructure as Code?
A. System maintenance is delegated to software systems
B. Comprehensive initial designs support robust systems
C. Scripts and manual configurations work together to ensure repeatable routines
D. System downtime is grouped and scheduled across the infrastructure
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
An analyst is alerted for a malicious file hash. After analysis, the analyst determined that an internal workstation is
communicating over port 80 with an external server and that the file hash is associated with Duqu malware. Which
tactics, techniques, and procedures align with this analysis?
A. Command and Control, Application Layer Protocol, Duqu
B. Discovery, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
C. Lateral Movement, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
D. Discovery, System Network Configuration Discovery, Duqu
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. For IP 192.168.1.209, what are the risk level, activity, and next step?cisco 350-201 q8

A. high-risk level, anomalous periodic communication, quarantine with antivirus
B. critical risk level, malicious server IP, run in a sandboxed environment
C. critical risk level, data exfiltration, isolate the device
D. high-risk level, malicious host, investigate further
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROPcisco 350-201 q9

Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Secure Network Analytics (Stealthwatch) console alerted with “New Malware Server
Discovered” and the IOC indicates communication from an end-user desktop to a Zeus CandC Server. Drag and drop
the actions that the analyst should take from the left into the order on the right to investigate and remediate this IOC.
Select and Place: cisco 350-201 q9-1

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q9-2

QUESTION 10cisco 350-201 q10

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine. What should be concluded from this report?
A. Threat scores are high, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified
B. Threat scores are low, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified
C. Threat scores are high, malicious activity is detected, but files have not been modified
D. Threat scores are low and no malicious file activity is detected
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
DRAG-DROP
An organization lost connectivity to critical servers, and users cannot access business applications and internal
websites. An engineer checks the network devices to investigate the outage and determines that all devices are
functioning. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to continue investigating this issue. Not
all options are used.
Select and Place:cisco 350-201 q11

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q11-1

QUESTION 12
An employee abused PowerShell commands and script interpreters, which lead to an indicator of compromise (IOC)
trigger. The IOC event shows that a known malicious file has been executed, and there is an increased likelihood of a
breach.
Which indicator generated this IOC event?
A. ExecutedMalware.ioc
B. Crossrider.ioc
C. ConnectToSuspiciousDomain.ioc
D. W32 AccesschkUtility.ioc
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
A threat actor used a phishing email to deliver a file with an embedded macro. The file was opened, and a remote code
execution attack occurred in a company\\’s infrastructure. Which steps should an engineer take at the recovery stage?
A. Determine the systems involved and deploy available patches
B. Analyze event logs and restrict network access
C. Review access lists and require users to increase password complexity
D. Identify the attack vector and update the IDS signature list
Correct Answer: B

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latest updated Cisco 200-301 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
A. 0
B. 110
C. 38443
D. 3184439
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q2

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with
IP address 10.20.20.1/24?lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q3

A. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1
255.255.255.0
B. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1
255.255.255.0
C. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
D. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q4-1

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to
interface FastEthernet 0/1?lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5

A. DHCP client
B. access point
C. router
D. PC
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibitlead4pass 200-301 exam questions q6

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers
must be able to access the web server.

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q6-1

Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
How can the Cisco Discovery Protocol be used?
A. to allow a switch to discover the devices that are connected to its ports
B. to determine the hardware platform of the device
C. to determine the IP addresses of connected Cisco devices
D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
A. 2000::/3
B. FC00::/7
C. FE80::/10
D. FF00::/8
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q9

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2. The configuration failed to work as intended.
Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while
still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two.)
A. Add a “permit ip any any” statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.
B. Add a “permit ip any any” statement to the beginning of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.
C. The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2.
D. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101.
E. The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 10
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?
A. collision
B. CRC
C. runt
D. late collision
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
A. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
B. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
C. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
A. 172.9.0.0/16
B. 172.28.0.0/16
C. 192.0.0.0/8
D. 209.165.201.0/24
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be
allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior?
(Choose two.)
A. The ACL is empty
B. A matching permit statement is too broadly defined
C. The packets fail to match any permit statement
D. A matching deny statement is too high in the access list
E. A matching permit statement is too high in the access list
Correct Answer: BE

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QUESTION 1
Which type of data collection requires the largest amount of storage space?
A. alert data
B. transaction data
C. session data
D. full packet capture
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
What does cyber attribution identity in an investigation?
A. cause of an attack
B. exploit of an attack
C. vulnerabilities exploited
D. threat actors of an attack
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3lead4pass 200-201 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. This request was sent to a web application server driven by a database.
Which type of web server attack is represented?
A. parameter manipulation
B. heap memory corruption
C. command injection
D. blind SQL injection
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
What is the benefit of agent-based protection when compared to agentless protection?
A. It lowers maintenance costs
B. It provides a centralized platform
C. It collects and detects all traffic locally
D. It manages numerous devices simultaneously
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
What is the difference between statistical detection and rule-based detection models?
A. Rule-based detection involves the collection of data in relation to the behavior of legitimate users over a period of
time
B. Statistical detection defines legitimate data of users over a period of time and rule-based detection defines it on an
IF/THEN basis
C. Statistical detection involves the evaluation of an object on its intended actions before it executes that behavior
D. Rule-based detection defines legitimate data of users over a period of time and statistical detection defines it on an
IF/THEN basis
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6lead4pass 200-201 exam questions q6

Refer to the exhibit. What information is depicted?
A. IIS data
B. NetFlow data
C. network discovery event
D. IPS event data
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
How does an attacker observe network traffic exchanged between two users?
A. port scanning
B. man-in-the-middle
C. command injection
D. denial of service
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8lead4pass 200-201 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. What is the expected result when the “Allow subdissector to reassemble TCP streams” feature is
enabled?
A. insert TCP subdissectors
B. extract a file from a packet capture
C. disable TCP streams
D. unfragment TCP
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation and traffic mirroring?
A. Inline inspection acts on the original traffic data flow
B. Traffic mirroring passes live traffic to a tool for blocking
C. Traffic mirroring inspects live traffic for analysis and mitigation
D. Inline traffic copies packets for analysis and security
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
What causes events on a Windows system to show Event Code 4625 in the log messages?
A. The system detected an XSS attack
B. Someone is trying a brute force attack on the network
C. Another device is gaining root access to the system
D. A privileged user successfully logged into the system
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?
A. SSL interception
B. packet header size
C. signature detection time
D. encryption
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12lead4pass 200-201 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. Which application protocol is in this PCAP file?
A. SSH
B. TCP
C. TLS
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its
integrity?
A. examination
B. investigation
C. collection
D. reporting
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What is the benefit of the application-aware firewall?
A. It blocks traffic by MAC address
B. It blocks traffic by MTU of the packet.
C. It blocks traffic by application.
D. It blocks encrypted traffic
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_data_zbf/configuration/xe-16-9/sec-data-zbf-xe-16-9-book/secdata-zbf-xe-16-9-book_chapter_0100100.html

 

QUESTION 2
When redistribution is configured between OMP and BGP at two Data Center sites that have Direct Connection interlink,
which step avoids learning the same routes on WAN Edge routers of the DCs from LAN?
A. Define different VRFs on both DCs
B. Set the same overlay AS on both DC WAN Edge routers
C. Set down-bit on Edge routers on DC1
D. Set OMP admin distance lower than BGP admin distance
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which on-the-box security feature k supported by the Cisco ISR 4451 SD-WAN device and not on vEdge?
A. Cloud Express service
B. Enterprise Firewall with Application Awareness
C. reverse proxy
D. IPsec/GRE cloud proxy
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Which logs verify when a device was upgraded?
A. Audit
B. Email
C. ACL
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which template configures the out-of-band management VPN?lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q5 lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q5-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
On which device Is a service FW address configured to Insert firewall service at the hub?
A. vEdge at the branch
B. vSmart at the hub
C. vEdge at the hub
D. vSmart at the branch
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/Software_Features/Release_18.4/07Policy_Applications/02Service_Chaining/Service_Chaining_Configuration_Examples

 

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco SD-WAN WAN Edge platform supports LTE and Wi-Fi?
A. vEdge2000
B. ASR1001
C. CSR 1000v
D. ISR 1101
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the vManage policy configuration procedures from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q8-1

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/vedge/policies-book/datapolicies.html

 

QUESTION 9
Which alarm setting is configured to monitor serious events that affect but do not shut down, the operation of a network
function?
A. Minor
B. Major
C. Medium
D. Critical
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/vManage_HowTos/Troubleshooting/Monitor_Alarms

 

QUESTION 10
A policy is created to influence routing in the network using a group of prefixes. What policy application will achieve this goal when applied to a site list?
A. Vpn-membership policy
B. Control-policy
C. cflowd-template
D. App-route policy
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
What are the two advantages of deploying cloud-based Cisco SD-WAN controllers? (Choose two.)
A. centralized control and data plane
B. distributed authentication policies
C. management of SLA
D. infrastructure as a service
E. centralized raid storage of data
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
Which value is verified in the certificates to confirm the identity of the physical WAN Edge device?
A. Serial Number
B. OTP
C. System-IP
D. Chassis-ID
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which command displays BFD session summary information per TLOC on vEdge routers?
A. show bfd history
B. show bfd summary
C. show BFD sessions
D. show BFD tloc-summary-list
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/command/sdwan-cr-book/sdwan-cr-book_chapter_0100.html

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the SNMP attributes in Cisco IOS devices from the left onto the correct SNMPv2c or SNMPV3 categories
on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco VPN technology can use the multipoint tunnel, resulting in a single GRE tunnel interface on the hub, to support
multiple connections from multiple spoke devices?
A. DMVPN
B. GETVPN
C. Cisco Easy VPN
D. FlexVPN
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which next hop is going to be used for 172.17.1.0/24?lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q3

A. 10.0.0.1
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 10.0.0.2
D. 192.168.3.2
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which label operations are performed by a label edge router?
A. SWAP and POP
B. SWAP and PUSH
C. PUSH and PHP
D. PUSH and POP
Correct Answer: D
A label edge router (LER, also known as edge LSR) is a router that operates at the edge of an MPLS network and acts
as the entry and exit points for the network. LERs push an MPLS label onto an incoming packet and pop it off an
outgoing
packet.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nxos/mpls/configuration/guide/mpls_cg/mp_mpls_overview.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the OSPF adjacency states from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q5-1 lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q5-2

Down This is the first OSPF neighbor state. It means that no information (hellos) has been received from this neighbor,
but hello packets can still be sent to the neighbor in this state. During the fully adjacent neighbor state, if a router
doesn\\’t receive a hello packet from a neighbor within the Router Dead Interval time (RouterDeadInterval =
4*HelloInterval by default) or if the manually configured neighbor is being removed from the configuration, then the
neighbor state changes from Full to Down.
Attempt This state is only valid for manually configured neighbors in an NBMA environment. In an Attempt state, the router
sends unicast hello packets every poll interval to the neighbor, from which hellos have not been received within the
dead interval. Init This state specifies that the router has received a hello packet from its neighbor, but the receiving
router\\’s ID was not included in the Hello packet. When a router receives a hello packet from a neighbor, it should list
the sender\\’s router ID in its hello packet as an acknowledgment that it received a valid hello packet.
2-Way This state designates that bi-directional communication has been established between two routers. Bi-directional
means that each router has seen the other\\’s hello packet. This state is attained when the router receiving the hello
packet sees its own Router ID within the received hello packet\\’s neighbor field. At this state, a router decides whether
to become adjacent to this neighbor. On broadcast media and non-broadcast multiaccess networks, a router becomes
full only with the designated router (DR) and the backup designated router (BDR); it stays in the 2-way state with all
other neighbors. On Point-to-point and Point-to-multipoint networks, a router becomes full with all connected routers. At
the end of this stage, the DR and BDR for broadcast and non-broadcast multiaccess networks are elected. For more
information on the DR election process, refer to DR Election. Note: Receiving a Database Descriptor (DBD) packet from
a neighbor in the init state will also cause a transition to a 2-way state.
Exstart Once the DR and BDR are elected, the actual process of exchanging link-state information can start between
the routers and their DR and BDR. (ie. Shared or NBMA networks). In this state, the routers and their DR and BDR
establish a master-slave relationship and choose the initial sequence number for adjacency formation. The router with
the higher router ID becomes the master and starts the exchange, and as such, is the only router that can increment the
sequence number. Note that one would logically conclude that the DR/BDR with the highest router ID will become the
master during this process of master-slave relation. Remember that the DR/BDR election might be purely by virtue of a
higher priority configured on the router instead of the highest router ID. Thus, it is possible that DR plays the role of a slave.
And also note that the master/slave election is on a per-neighbor basis.
Exchange In the exchange state, OSPF routers exchange database descriptor (DBD) packets. Database descriptors
contain link-state advertisement (LSA) headers only and describe the contents of the entire link-state database. Each
DBD packet has a sequence number that can be incremented only by the master which is explicitly acknowledged by the slave. Routers also send link-state request packets and link-state update packets (which contain the entire LSA) in this
state. The contents of the DBD received are compared to the information contained in the routers link-state database to
check if new or more current link-state information is available with the neighbor.
Loading In this state, the actual exchange of link-state information occurs. Based on the information provided by the
DBDs, routers send link-state request packets. The neighbor then provides the requested link-state information in link state update packets. During the adjacency, if a router receives an outdated or missing LSA, it requests that LSA by
sending a link-state request packet. All link-state update packets are acknowledged.
Full In this state, routers are fully adjacent to each other. All the router and network LSAs are exchanged and the
routers\\’ databases are fully synchronized. Full is the normal state for an OSPF router. If a router is stuck in another
state, it is an indication that there are problems in forming adjacencies. The only exception to this is the 2-way state,
which is normal in a broadcast network. Routers achieve the FULL state with their DR and BDR in NBMA/broadcast
media and FULL state with every neighbor in the remaining media such as point-to-point and point-to-multipoint. Note:
The DR and BDR that achieve a FULL state with every router on the segment will display FULL/BROTHER when you
enter the show IP OSPF neighbor command on either a DR or BDR. This simply means that the neighbor is not a DR or
BDR, but since the router on which the command was entered is either a DR or BDR, this shows the neighbor as
FULL/BROTHER.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html
+
Each router compares the DBD packets that were received from the other router: Exchange
+
Routers exchange information with other routers in the multiaccess network: Exstart
+
The neighboring router requests the other routers to send missing entries: Loading
+
The network has already elected a DR and a backup BDR: 2-way
+
The OSPF router ID of the receiving router was not contained in the hello message: Init
+
No hellos have been received from a neighbor router: Down
When OSPF adjacency is formed, a router goes through several state changes before it becomes fully adjacent with its
neighbor.
The states are Down -> Attempt (optional) -> Init -> 2-Way -> Exstart -> Exchange -> Loading -> Full. Short descriptions
about these states are listed below:
Down: no information (hellos) has been received from this neighbor. Attempt: only valid for manually configured
neighbors in an NBMA environment. In Attempt state, the router sends unicast hello packets every poll interval to the
neighbor,
from which hellos have not been received within the dead interval.
Init: specifies that the router has received a hello packet from its neighbor, but the receiving router\\’s ID was not
included in the hello packet
2-Way: indicates bi-directional communication has been established between two routers. Extract: Once the DR and
BDR is elected, the actual process of exchanging link-state information can start between the routers and their DR
and
BDR.
Exchange: OSPF routers exchange and compare database descriptor (DBD) packets Loading: In this state, the actual
exchange of link-state information occurs. Outdated or missing entries are also requested to be resent.
Full: routers are fully adjacent with each other
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080093f0e.shtml
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer executes the show ipv6 OSPF database command and is presented with the
output that is shown. Which flooding scope is referenced in the link-state type?lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q6

A. link-local
B. area
C. As (OSPF domain)
D. reserved
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. During troubleshooting, it was discovered that the device is not reachable using a secure web
browser. What is needed to fix the problem?
A. permit TCP port 443
B. permit UDP port 465
C. permit TCP port 465
D. permit TCP port 22
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. In which circumstance does the BGP neighbor remain in the idle condition?
A. if prefixes are not received from the BGP peer
B. if prefixes reach the maximum limit
C. if a prefix list is applied in the inbound direction
D. if prefixes exceed the maximum limit
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to block the route to 192.168.2.2 from the routing table by using the
configuration that is shown. The route is still present in the routing table as an OSPF route. Which action blocks the
route?lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q9

A. Use an extended access list instead of a standard access list.
B. Change sequence 10 in the route-map command from permit to deny.
C. Use a prefix-list instead of an access list in the route map.
D. Add this statement to the route map: route-map RM-OSPF-DL denies 20.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
While working with software images, an engineer observes that Cisco DNA Center cannot upload its software image
directly from the device. Why is the image not uploading?
A. The device must be resynced to Cisco DNA Center.
B. The software image for the device is in install mode.
C. The device has lost connectivity to Cisco DNA Center.
D. The software image for the device is in bundle mode
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-and/management/dna-center/1-2-10/user_guide/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_1_2_10/b_dnac_ug_1_2_10_chapter_0100.html

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q11

A company is evaluating multiple network management system tools. Trending graphs generated by SNMP data are
returned by the NMS and appear to have multiple gaps. While troubleshooting the issue, an engineer noticed the
relevant output.
What solves the gaps in the graphs?
A. Remove the exceed-rate command in the class map.
B. Remove the class-map NMS from being part of control plane policing.
C. Configure the CIR rate to a lower value that accommodates all the NMS tools
D. Separate the NMS class-map into multiple class maps based on the specific protocols with appropriate CoPP actions
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/copp_best_practices

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the following output:
Router#show ip nhrp detail
1.1.2/8 via 10.2.1.2, Tunnel1 created 00:00:12, expire 01:59:47 TypE. dynamic, Flags: authoritative unique nat
registered used NBMA address:
10.12.1.2
What does the authoritative flag mean in regards to the NHRP information?
A. It was obtained directly from the next-hop server.
B. Data packets are process switches for this mapping entry.
C. NHRP mapping is for networks that are local to this router.
D. The mapping entry was created in response to an NHRP registration request.
E. The NHRP mapping entry cannot be overwritten
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Drag and drop the operations from the left onto the locations where the operations are performed on the right. Drag
each definition on the left to the matching term on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q13

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q13-1

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Latest updates Cisco 500-450 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which tool is available to expand the size of Cisco Unified ICM databases?
A. Microsoft SQL Studio
B. DBExpand
C. database sizing utility
D. ICMDBA
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which batch script can be used to view VXML application states and port count for a Cisco Unified CVP VXML server?
A. getVersions.bat
B. status.bat
C. updateApp.bat
D. displayApp.bat
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
What must be enabled when configuring voice gateways to support SIP dialers?
A. 100rel
B. signaling forward unconditional
C. 200rel
D. signaling forward 100
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 500-450 exam questions q4

In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise 10.0 Outbound Option with SIP Dialer, you check the status of the Dialer
process from Diagnostic Framework Portico. What does the circled message “R” represent?
A. customer instance name
B. telephony port status
C. configured ports
D. ready ports
E. reserved ports
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which three objects are created by the Domain Manager tool in the Cisco Unified ICM? (Choose three.)
A. ICM Organizational Unit
B. ICM facility
C. ICM User Group policy
D. ICM Security policy
E. ICM instance
F. ICM agent users
Correct Answer: ABE

 

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum number of agents that can be configured within Cisco Packaged Contact Center Enterprise up to
release 10.5?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 2000
D. 6000
E. 76,000
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
When performing an upgrade to Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, which components do not need to be
upgraded together during the same maintenance window?
A. Cisco Unified ICM call router and logger
B. Cisco Unified ICM call router and administrative workstation
C. Cisco Unified ICM call router and peripheral gateway
D. administrative workstation and HDS-DDS
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which statement about administrative scripts in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution is true?
A. Administrative scripts can run more than one time per second.
B. Administrative scripts must be associated with a call type.
C. Administrative scripts can use a DB Lookup node.
D. Administrative scripts can use an ICM Gateway node.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable?
A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could
increment from 151191 to 151192.
B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could advance
from “Monday” to “Tuesday”.
C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example: at midnight it would
reset to zero.
D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call.
E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution with SIP Dialer, which option lists the correct order to set up the
components (assuming the agent peripheral gateway host already exists)?
A. configure media routing peripheral gateway, dialer; install media routing peripheral gateway, dialer
B. configure dialer, port map, media routing peripheral gateway; install dialer, media routing peripheral gateway
C. install dialer, media routing peripheral gateway; configure dialer, port map, media routing peripheral gateway
D. install media routing peripheral gateway, dialer; configure media routing peripheral gateway, dialer
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 500-450 exam questions q11

The Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal post-call survey is enabled on OAMP. Which option describes what the survey
Does the dialed number pattern represent?
A. dial-peer configured for survey DN
B. dialed number configured for UCCE scripts
C. route pattern configured for survey DN
D. dial-peer configured for survey DN and dialed number configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise scripts
E. dial-peer and route pattern configured for survey DN and dialed number configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center
Enterprise scripts
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
In the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution, which process is responsible for peer-to-peer synchronization?
A. ccagent
B. MDS
C. router
D. OPC
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
When configuring the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Courtesy Callback feature in the ingress and VXML gateway,
which configuration is needed to ensure that SIP is set up to forward SIP INFO messaging?
A. signaling sip forward unconditional
B. signaling forward conditional
C. signaling forward unconditional
D. signaling forward unconditional sip info
E. signaling forward conditional sip info
Correct Answer: C

 

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Latest updates Cisco 500-440 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Studio scripts are allowed to be modified for the Courtesy Callback
feature?
A. BillingQueue, Callback Engine, CallbackEntry, CallbackQueue, CallbackWait
B. Billing, Callback Engine, CallbackEntry, CallbackQueue, CallbackWait
C. BillingQueue, Callback Engine, CallbackEntry, CallbackBilling, CallbackWait
D. BillingQueue, CallbackEntry, CallbackWait
E. BillingQueue, Callback Engine, CallbackEntry
F. Billing, CallbackEntry, CallbackWait
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement about using agent targeting rules in Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is true?
A. Agent device targets must be created for each phone that is used by an agent.
B. Agent labels must be created for each routing client that can route calls to an agent.
C. Agent extensions can be defined as a range, without having to build each device target.
D. Agent targeting rules are not allowed with translation routes.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
The JTAPI communications between the Cisco Unified Communication Manager cluster and Cisco Unified Contact
Center Enterprise includes three distinct types of messaging. Which two options are those messages? (Choose two.)
A. devise and call monitoring
B. SIP call control messages
C. service control
D. single sign-on messages
E. routing control (Cisco Unified CM cluster request instructions from Cisco Unified CCE)
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 4
A customer has a remote site with 100 agents, and the remote site only has SRST for E.911. 50% of the supervisors are
located at HQ where the data center is. The agents to supervisor ratio is 10%. The customer requires that supervisors
from any remote site can record and silent monitor active calls. With BW design consideration, how many minimum RTP
streams are needed between the data center and agent remote sites?
A. 300 RTP streams
B. 150 RTP streams
C. 110 RTP streams
D. 120 RTP streams
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, primary and secondary nodes can be installed on separate domains. Which two
requirements must be met for the pair to work properly? (Choose two.)
A. Each Cisco Finesse server should be able to perform a DNS lookup of the other server using a fully qualified domain
name.
B. Primary and secondary Cisco Finesse servers should only communicate with IP addresses.
C. All Cisco Finesse clients should be able to perform DNS lookups of the Cisco Finesse servers using the FQDN.
D. All Cisco Finesse clients should connect to the server with IP address.
E. All Cisco Finesse clients should be local to the Cisco Finesse servers.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 6
Which three statements about the high availability of the Cisco Unified Intelligent Contact Management central controller are
valid? (Choose three.)
A. If one ICM call router of a duplex pair of Cisco Unified ICM call routers fails, the surviving ICM call router recognizes
the failure when it receives no response to heartbeats over the private LAN.
B. During Cisco Unified ICM call router failover processing, calls in progress in Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal are
disconnected, but all new calls are processed successfully.
C. If ICM Logger Side A fails, the impact of call processing is limited to ICM call router side A.
D. If ICM Logger Side A fails, router side B cannot send historical info to ICM Logger side A and is limited to ICM Logger
side B.
E. There is no impact on call processing during a Cisco Unified ICM Logger failure.
F. If the private LAN fails, the peripheral gateways are used to help determine the active call router side of the duplex
pair.
G. If ICM Logger Side B fails, the ICM Router side B cannot send real-time and historical info to logger side A.
Correct Answer: AEF

 

QUESTION 7
Erlang calculations are used to size contact center resources. Which two resources are sized by using Erlang-B?
(Choose two.)
A. reporting ports
B. estimated wait times
C. PSTN gateway trunks
D. agents
E. IVR ports
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 8
When using micro-apps, which core components are required for calls that originate from Cisco Unified Communications
Manager to Cisco Unified CVP using Comprehensive mode?
A. CUCM: CTI Route Port, SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU, CUBE, VXML Gateway
B. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway
C. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway
D. CUCM: CTI Route Port and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about combining IP telephony and Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Extensions on the
same IP phone are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified CCE supports only one agent ACD line on the IP phone.
B. The ACD line on the IP phone may have voicemail or call forwarding defined.
C. In a typical call center, the ACD line is the first line on the phone to make it easier for the agent to forward inbound
ACD calls.
D. The agent state changes based on the activity of the ACD line.
E. If the agent picks up the phone to place a call, the agent is put into ready mode.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 10
Which three benefits does a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise centralized deployment with small agents branch
provide? (Choose three.)
A. It requires only a small data switch and router, IP phones, and agent desktops at remote sites for a few agents.
B. It requires only a limited system and network management skills at remote sites.
C. Small remote branches require PSTN and SIP trunks, in addition to the ones needed for local POTS lines for
emergency services (911) in the event of a WAN link loss.
D. PSTN trunks for incoming traffic connect to data centers for efficiency.
E. It does not use VoIP WAN bandwidth when an agent is answering the call.
F. Calls extend over the WAN only while calls are in the queue.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 11
Which two features does the Cisco Unified Border Element provide when Cisco Unified CCE and Cisco Unified Customer
Voice Portals are used? (Choose two.)
A. load-balancing outbound calls
B. secure communication using flow around mode
C. normalize SIP messages using SIP profiles
D. Silent Monitor inbound voice calls
E. record calls by forking the media
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
Which three WAN/MAN configurations are valid in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise clustering over the WAN
deployment model? (Choose three.)
A. A highly available visible network WAN/MAN/DWDM and a dedicated private network WAN.
B. A highly available MPLS WAN shared by the visible and private networks with a 2 second convergence time.
C. A highly available MPLS WAN shared by the visible and private networks where the private network is pinned to a
single path and the visible network aligned to an alternate path failing to the private network path as a redundant link with
QoS and bandwidth provisioning.
D. A highly available DWDM/CWDM network shared by the visible and private networks with a sub-500 ms convergence
time.
E. All traffic is converged on a single MPLS network by using appropriate QoS markings and settings to ensure latency
and bandwidth requirements.
F. A highly available DWDM/CWDM network shared by the visible and private networks with 1500 ms convergence
time.
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 500-440 exam questions q13

Which includes three inbound call flows with their respective average handle times. The deployment includes Cisco
Unified Contact Center Enterprise, Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal, Cisco Unified Communication Manager, and
Cisco Unified Border Element. The customer needs to record all agent conversations with callers. What is the minimum
average handle time needed to determine how many recording ports are required?
A. 290.0 seconds
B. 259.5 seconds
C. 146.9 seconds
D. 117.5 seconds
Correct Answer: C

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