The latest updated Lead4Pass 500-220 dumps contain 57 exam questions and answers, verified by the Cisco professional team, and corrected the past exam questions and answers to ensure that candidates can successfully pass the 500-220 Cisco Meraki Solutions Specialist certification exam.

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Verify some latest 500-220 Dumps exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease time
15Cisco Meraki Solutions SpecialistLead4PassDec 02, 2022
New Question 1:

Which Cisco Meraki best practice method preserves complete historical network event logs?

A. Configuring the preserved event number to maximize logging.

B. Configuring the preserved event period to unlimited.

C. Configuring a syslog server for the network.

D. Configuring Dashboard logging to preserve only certain event types.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 2:

Which two features and functions are supported when using an MX appliance in Passthrough mode? (Choose two.)

A. intrusion prevention

B. site-to-site VPN

C. secondary uplinks

D. DHCP

E. high availability

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MX/Networks_and_Routing/Passthrough_Mode_on_the_MX_Security_Appliance_and_Z-series_Teleworker_Gateway

New Question 3:

A customer requires a hub-and-spoke Auto VPN deployment with two NAT-mode hubs with dual uplink connections and 50 remote sites with a single uplink connection. How many tunnels does each hub need to support?

A. 52

B. 54

C. 100

D. 104

Correct Answer: C

New Question 4:
new 500-220 dumps questions 4

Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions are required to optimize load balancing asymmetrically with a 4:1 ratio between links? (Choose two.)

A. Change the primary uplink to “none”.

B. Add an internet traffic preference that defines the load-balancing ratio as 4:1.

C. Enable load balancing.

D. Set the speed of the cellular uplink to zero.

E. Change the assigned speeds of WAN 1 and WAN 2 so that the ratio is 4:1.

Correct Answer: BC

New Question 5:

What are the two roles of the network and device tags in a Dashboard? (Choose two.)

A. Tags enable administrators to configure a combination of network and device-specific tags to create summary reports filtered for specific devices across multiple networks.

B. Network tags can be used to assign networks to separate Auto VPN domains in an Organization with many networks.

C. Network tags can be used to simplify the assignment of network-level permissions in an Organization with many networks.

D. Device tags can be used to simplify the assignment of device-level permissions in an Organization with many administrators.

E. Device tags can be assigned to MR APs to influence the gateway selection for repeaters in a mesh wireless network.

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Organizations_and_Networks/Organization_Menu/Manage_Tags

New Question 6:

Which two actions can extend the video retention of a Cisco Meraki MV Smart Camera? (Choose two.)

A. enabling audio compression

B. installing an SSD memory extension

C. enabling motion-based retention

D. enabling maximum retention limit

E. configuring a recording schedule

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MV/Initial_Configuration/Video_Retention

New Question 7:
new 500-220 dumps questions 7

Refer to the exhibit. What is the advantage of implementing inter-VLAN routing on an MX Security Appliance rather than performing inter-VLAN routing on an MS Series Switch?

A. The MX appliance performs IDS/IPS for inter-VLAN traffic.

B. The MX appliance performs AMP for inter-VLAN traffic.

C. The MX appliance performs data encryption for inter-VLAN traffic.

D. The MX appliance performs content filtering for inter-VLAN traffic.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 8:

Which requirement is needed to implement Fast Lane on Cisco Meraki APs?

A. wireless profile installed on an Apple iOS device

B. wireless profile installed on a Cisco iOS access point

C. adaptive 802.11r disabled

D. traffic shaping rule tagging traffic with a DSCP value of 46 to Apple.com

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/WiFi_Basics_and_Best_Practices/Wireless_QoS_and_Fast_Lane

New Question 9:

Which three verbs of request are available in the Cisco Meraki API? (Choose three.)

A. SET

B. PUT

C. PATCH

D. ADD

E. POST

F. GET

Correct Answer: BEF

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Other_Topics/Cisco_Meraki_Dashboard_API

New Question 10:

In an organization that uses the Co-Termination licensing model, which two operations enable licenses to be applied? (Choose two.)

A. Renew the Dashboard license.

B. License a network.

C. License more devices.

D. Call Meraki support.

E. Wait for the devices to auto-renew.

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Licensing/Meraki_Co-Termination_Licensing_Overview

New Question 11:

One thousand concurrent users stream video to their laptops. A 30/70 split between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz is used. Based on the client count, how many APs (rounded to the nearest whole number) are needed?

A. 26

B. 28

C. 30

D. 32

Correct Answer: C

New Question 12:

For which two reasons can an organization become “Out of License”? (Choose two.)

A. licenses that are in the wrong network

B. more hardware devices than device licenses

C. expired device license

D. licenses that do not match the serial numbers in the organization

E. MR licenses that do not match the MR models in the organization

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Licensing/Meraki_Licensing_FAQs

New Question 13:

Which Meraki Dashboard menu section is accessed to enable Sentry enrollment on an SSID?

A. Wireless > Configure > Access Control

B. Wireless > Configure > Splash page

C. Wireless > Configure > Firewall and Traffic Shaping

D. Wireless > Configure > SSIDs

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/MR_Splash_Page/Systems_Manager_Sentry_Enrollment

New Question 14:

What is the best practice Systems Manager enrollment method when deploying corporate-owned iOS devices?

A. manual

B. Apple Configurator

C. Sentry enrollment

D. DEP

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://meraki.cisco.com/lib/pdf/meraki_whitepaper_ios.pdf

New Question 15:

A Cisco Meraki MV camera is monitoring an office and its field of vision currently captures work desks and employee computer screens. However, recording employee computer screens is prohibited by local regulations.

Which feature in the Dashboard can be used to preserve the current position of the camera while also meeting regulation requirements?

A. zone exclusion

B. privacy window

C. area or interest

D. sensor crop

E. restricted mode

Correct Answer: E


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About Cisco Enterprise Wireless Network

Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networking includes two important certification exam options:

300-425 ENWLSD Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD)

300-430 ENWLSI Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSI)

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Latest updated 300-425 Dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

Which UDP port numbers are used for exchanging mobility packets in an AireOS wireless deployment?

A. UDP 16666 for the control plane, EoIP (IP protocol 97) for the data plane

B. UDP 16668 for the control plane, UDP 16667 for the data plane

C. UDP 16667 for the control plane, UDP 16666 for the data plane

D. UDP 16666 for the control plane, UDP 16667 for the data plane

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 1

New Question 2:

An engineer is designing a wireless deployment for a university auditorium. Which two features can be used to help deal with the issues introduced by high AP count? (Choose two.)

A. TSPEC

B. RXSOP

C. TPC

D. LSS

E. DFS

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/80211/200069-Overview-on-802-11h-Transmit-Power-Cont.html

New Question 3:

A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network to support real-time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol must the engineer enable on the WLC so that the number of packets that are exchanged between an access point and client is reduced and fast roaming occurs?

A. 802.11w

B. 802.11r

C. 802.11i

D. 802.11k

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 3

New Question 4:

A network administrator of a global organization is collapsing all controllers into a single cluster located in central Europe. Which concern must be addressed?

A. Some channels may not be available consistently across the organization.

B. Different RF policies per office are not available in this configuration.

C. Syslog must be configured to the time zone of the NMS platform.

D. Centralized controllers cannot uniformly authenticate global users.

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/technotes/86/b_Cisco_Wireless_LAN_ Controller_Configuration_Best_Practices.html

New Question 5:

An engineer must ensure that the new wireless LAN deployment can support seamless roaming between access points using a standard based on an amendment to the 802.11 protocol. Which protocol must the engineer select?

A. 802.11i

B. 802.11ac

C. 802.11r

D. 802.11e

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 5

New Question 6:

A high-density wireless network is designed. Which Cisco WLC configuration setting must be incorporated in the design to encourage clients to use the 5 GHz spectrum?

A. Band Select

B. RRM

C. Cisco Centralized Key Management

D. load balancing

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 6

New Question 7:

A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters. Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.)

A. Use a battery pack to power APs B. Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements.

C. Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput.

D. Use APs with directional antennas.

E. Use APs with external antennas.

F. Use APs with built-in antennas.

Correct Answer: ABF

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/technology/mesh/8-4/b_mesh_84/Site_Preparation_and_Planning.html#ID3405

New Question 8:

A wireless engineer must optimize RF performance for multiple buildings with multiple types of construction and user density. Which two actions must be taken? (Choose two.)

A. Configure Flexconnect groups for each building.

B. Configure WMM profiles for each building.

C. Configure AP groups for each area type.

D. Configure RF profiles for each area type.

E. Enable DTPC on the network.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-10/config-guide/b_cg810/configuring_ap_groups.html

New Question 9:

A wireless engineer is hired to design a network for a technology company. The company campus has four buildings and a warehouse with access points that provide full wireless coverage as well as a pair of WLCs located in the core of the network. Which type of wireless architecture is being used?

A. unified deployment

B. autonomous deployment

C. centralized deployment

D. distributed deployment

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 9

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 300-425 dumps questions 10

What is the main reason why the Wi-Fi design engineer took a different approach than installing the APs in the offices, even though that installation provides better coverage?

A. aesthetics

B. transmit power considerations

C. antenna gain

D. power supply considerations

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Mobility/emob30dg/RFDesign.html#wp10 00551

New Question 11:

Where must the APs be mounted when used in a high-density wireless network to provide 6 dB to 20 dB of attenuation to a cell?

A. in the aisle

B. under the seat

C. above the stage

D. under the stage

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 11

New Question 12:

A company wants to replace its existing PBX system with a new VoIP System that will include wireless IP phones. The CIO has concerns about whether the company\’s existing wireless network can support the new system. Which tool in Cisco Prime can help ensure that the current network will support the new phone system?

A. Location Readiness

B. Site Calibration

C. Map Editor

D. Voice Readiness

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 12

New Question 13:

A rapidly expanding company has tasked its network engineer with wirelessly connecting a new cubicle area with Cisco workgroup bridges until the wired network is complete. Each of the 42 new users has a computer and VoIP phone. How many APs for workgroup bridging must be ordered to keep costs at a minimum while connecting all devices?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 7

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 13

So, each AP will have 25 clients. A minimum of 4 APs is sufficient.

New Question 14:

An engineer is designing a wireless network that will support many different types of wireless clients. When conducting the survey, which client must be used to ensure a consistent experience for all of the wireless clients?

A. the client that has the highest RF properties

B. the client that is used most by the company

C. the client that is used least by the company

D. the client with the worst RF characteristics

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 14

https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/WiFi_Basics_and_Best_Practices/Conducting_Site_Surveys_ with_MR_Access_Points

New Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 300-425 dumps questions 15

A client roams between two APs that are registered to two different controllers, where each controller has an interface in the client subnet. Both controllers are running AireOS. Which scenario explains the client roaming behavior?

A. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database entry is moved from the original controller to the new controller.

B. Controllers do not exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database, entry is not moved from the original controller to the new controller.

C. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and a new client session is started with the new controller.

D. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database entry is tunneled from the original controller to the new controller.

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 15-1


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New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. Users in the branch network of 2001:db8:0:4::/64 report that they cannot access the Internet. Which command is issued in IPv6 router EIGRP 100 configuration mode to solve this issue?

A. Issue the eigrp stub command on R1.

B. Issue the no eigrp stub command on R1.

C. Issue the eigrp stub command on R2.

D. Issue the no eigrp stub command on R2.

Check answer

New Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration configures a policy on R1 to forward any traffic that is sourced from the 192.168.130.0/24 network to R2?

A. access-list 1 permit 192.168.130.0 0.0.0.255 ! interface Gi0/2 IP policy route-map test! route-map test permit 10 match IP address 1 set IP next-hop 172.20.20.2

B. access-list 1 permit 192.168.130.0 0.0.0.255 ! interface Gi0/1 IP policy route-map test! route-map test permit 10 match IP address 1 set IP next-hop 172.20.40.2

C. access-list 1 permit 192.168.130.0 0.0.0.255 ! interface Gi0/2 IP policy route-map test! r oute-map test permit 10 match IP address 1 set IP next-hop 172.20.20.1

D. access-list 1 permit 192.168.130.0 0.0.0.255 ! interface Gi0/1 IP policy route-map test! route-map test permit 10 match IP address 1 set IP next-hop 172.20.40.1

E. access-list 1 permit 192.168.130.0 0.0.0.255 ! interface Gi0/1 IP policy route-map test! route-map test permit 10 match IP address 1 set IP next-hop 172.20.20.1

Check answer

New Question 3:

R2 has a locally originated prefix 192.168.130.0/24 and has these configurations: What is the result when the route-map OUT command is applied toward an eBGP neighbor R1 (1.1.1.1) by using the neighbor 1.1.1.1 route-map OUT out command?

A. R1 sees 192.168.130.0/24 as two AS hops away instead of one AS hop away.

B. R1 does not accept any routes other than 192.168.130.0/24

C. R1 does not forward traffic that is destined for 192.168.30.0/24

D. Network 192.168.130.0/24 is not allowed in the R1 table

Check answer

New Question 4:

Which method changes the forwarding decision that a router makes without first changing the routing table or influencing the IP data plane?

A. nonbroadcast multiaccess

B. packet switching

C. policy-based routing

D. forwarding information base

Check answer

New Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. The output of the traceroute from R5 shows a loop in the network. Which configuration prevents this loop?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Check answer

New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures a static route on a router, but when the engineer checks the route to the destination, a different next hop is chosen. What is the reason for this?

A. Dynamic routing protocols always have priority over static routes.

B. The metric of the OSPF route is lower than the metric of the static route.

C. The configured AD for the static route is higher than the AD of OSPF.

D. The syntax of the static route is not valid, so the route is not considered.

Check answer

New Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to generate a summary route in OSPF for network 10.0.0.0/8, but the summary route does not show up in the routing table. Why is the summary route missing?

A. The summary-address command is used only for summarizing prefixes between areas.

B. The summary route is visible only in the OSPF database, not in the routing table.

C. There is no route for a subnet inside 10.0.0.0/8, so the summary route is not generated.

D. The summary route is not visible on this router, but it is visible on other OSPF routers in the same area.

Check answer

New Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to block the route to 192.168.2.2 from the routing table by using the configuration that is shown.

The route is still present in the routing table as an OSPF route. Which action blocks the route?

A. Use an extended access list instead of a standard access list.

B. Change sequence 10 in the route-map command from permit to deny.

C. Use a prefix list instead of an access list in the route map.

D. Add this statement to the route map: route-map RM-OSPF-DL deny 20.

Check answer

New Question 9:

What is a prerequisite for configuring BFD?

A. Jumbo frame support must be configured on the router that is using BFD.

B. All routers in the path between two BFD endpoints must have BFD enabled.

C. Cisco Express Forwarding must be enabled on all participating BFD endpoints.

D. To use BFD with BGP, the timers 3 9 command must first be configured in the BGP routing process.

Check answer

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. R2 is a route reflector, and R1 and R3 are route reflector clients. The route reflector learns the route to 172.16.25.0/24 from R1, but it does not advertise to R3. What is the reason the route is not advertised?

A. R2 does not have a route to the next hop, so R2 does not advertise the prefix to other clients.

B. Route reflector setup requires full IBGP mesh between the routers.

C. In route reflector setup, only classful prefixes are advertised to other clients.

D. In route reflector setups, prefixes are not advertised from one client to another.

Check answer

New Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to redistribute OSPF to BGP, but not all of the routes are redistributed. What is the reason for this issue?

A. By default, only internal routes and external type 1 routes are redistributed into BGP

B. Only classful networks are redistributed from OSPF to BGP

C. BGP convergence is slow, so the route will eventually be present in the BGP table

D. By default, only internal OSPF routes are redistributed into BGP

Check answer

New Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

In which circumstance does the BGP neighbor remain in the idle condition?

A. if prefixes are not received from the BGP peer

B. if prefixes reach the maximum limit

C. if a prefix list is applied in the inbound direction

D. if prefixes exceed the maximum limit

Check answer

New Question 13:

Which attribute eliminates LFAs that belong to protected paths in situations where links in a network are connected through a common fiber?

A. Shared Risk Link Group (SRLG)-disjoint

B. linecard-disjoint

C. lowest-repair-path-metric

D. interface-disjoint

Check answer

New Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is troubleshooting BGP on a device but discovers that the clock on the device does not correspond to the time stamp of the log entries. Which action ensures consistency between the two times?

A. Configure the service timestamps log uptime command in global configuration mode.

B. Configure the logging clock synchronize command in global configuration mode.

C. Configure the service timestamps log datetime localtime command in global configuration mode.

D. Make sure that the clock on the device is synchronized with an NTP server.

Check answer

New Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of applying this configuration?

A. The router can form BGP neighborships with any other device.

B. The router cannot form BGP neighborships with any other device.

C. The router cannot form BGP neighborships with any device that is matched by the access list named “BGP”.

D. The router can form BGP neighborships with any device that is matched by the access list named “BGP”.

Check answer

Publish the answer:

Questions:Answers:Explain:
Q1B
Q2E
Q3A
Q4C
Q5A
Q6CThe AD of the static route is manually configured to 130 which is higher than the AD of the OSPF router which is 110.
Q7CThe summary address is only used to create aggregate addresses for OSPF at an autonomous system boundary.

It means this command should only be used on the ASBR when you are trying to summarize externally redistributed routes from another protocol domain or you have an NSSA area. But a requirement to create a summarized route is:

The ASBR compares the summary route\’s range of addresses with all routes redistributed into OSPF on that ASBR to find any subordinate subnets (subnets that sit inside the summary route range). If at least one subordinate subnet exists, the ASBR advertises the summary route.
Q8B
Q9C
Q10A
Q11DIf you configure the redistribution of OSPF into BGP without keywords, only OSPF intra-area and inter-area routes are redistributed into BGP, by default.

You can redistribute both internal and external (type-1 and type-2) OSPF routes via this command:

Router(config-router)#redistribute ospf 1 match internal external 1 external 2
Q12D
Q13A
Q14CThe Time zone needs to be changed. default it UTC Central European Time (CET)
Q15C

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The latest update of Cisco 350-401 exam questions and answers and official exam information tips

QUESTION 1:

Which two operations are valid for RESTCONF? (Choose two.)

A. HEAD
B. REMOVE
C. PULL
D. PATCH
E. ADD
F. PUSH

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/166/b_166_programmability_cg/b_166_programmability_cg_chapter_01011.html

QUESTION 2:

What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution?

A. to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships
B. to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric
C. to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD-Access fabric.
D. to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN?

A. ISE server
B. local WLC
C. RADIUS server
D. anchor WLC

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4:

How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?

A. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions correct
B. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table
C. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices
D. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing before they are sent to the FIB

Correct Answer: A

The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table?CEF uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions.

The FIB is conceptually similar to a routing table or information base. It maintains a mirror image of the forwarding information contained in the IP routing table. When routing or topology changes occur in the network, the IP routing table is updated, and these changes are reflected in the FIB. The FIB maintains next-hop address information based on the information in the IP routing table.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/routers/12000-seriesrouters/47321-ciscoef.html

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the OPSF debug output is true?

A. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent to received on interface Fa0/1.
B. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on all interfaces.
C. The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent received on interface Fa0/1.
D. The output displays OSPF hello and LSACK messages which router R1 has sent or received.

Correct Answer: C

This combination of commands is known as “Conditional debug” and will filter the debug output based on your conditions. Each condition added, will behave like an `And\\’ operator in Boolean logic. Some examples of the “debug IP OSPF hello” are shown below:

QUESTION 6:

Which standard access control entry permits from odd-numbered hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet?

A. Permit 10.0.0.0.0.0.0.1
B. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.0
C. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.254
D. Permit 10.0.0.0.255.255.255.254

Correct Answer: C

Remember, for the wildcard mask, 1s are I DON\\’T CARE, and 0s are I CARE. So now let\\’s analyze a simple ACL:

access-list 1 permit 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255

Two first octets are all 0\\’s meaning that we care about the network 172.23.x.x. The third octet of the wildcard mask, 15 (0000 1111 in binary), means that we care about the first 4 bits but don\\’t care about the last 4 bits so we allow the third octet in the form of 0001xxxx (minimum:00010000 = 16; maximum: 0001111 = 31).

The fourth octet is 255 (all 1 bits) which means I don\\’t care. Therefore network 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255 ranges from 172.23.16.0 to 172.23.31.255. Now let\\’s consider the wildcard mask of 0.0.0.254 (four-octet: 254 = 1111 1110) which means we only care about the last bit.

Therefore if the last bit of the IP address is a “1” (0000 0001) then only odd numbers are allowed.

If the last bit of the IP address is a “0” (0000 0000) then only even numbers are allowed.
Note: In binary, odd numbers always end with a “1” while even numbers always end with a “0”.

Therefore in this question, only the statement “permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.254” will allow all odd-numbered
hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet.

QUESTION 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the network. Which COS to the DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly?

A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46
B. COS of 7 to DSCP 48
C. COS of 6 to DSCP 46
D. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure.
Which design facilitates migration from a traditional campus design to a programmable fabric design?

A. Layer 2 access
B. three-tier
C. two-tier
D. routed access

Correct Answer: C

Intent-based networking (IBN) transforms a hardware-centric, manual network into a controller-led network that captures business intent and translates it into policies that can be automated and applied consistently across the network. The goal is for the network to continuously monitor and adjust network performance to help assure desired business outcomes. IBN builds on software-defined networking (SDN). SDN usually uses spine-leaf architecture, which is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves (such as an access layer).

QUESTION 9:

An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.)

A. Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic
B. Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible
C. Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate
D. Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it
E. Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible

Correct Answer: CE

Traffic policing propagates bursts. When the traffic rate reaches the configured maximum rate (or committed information rate), excess traffic is dropped (or remarked). The result is an output rate that appears as a saw-tooth with crests and troughs.

Unlike traffic shaping, traffic policing does not cause delays. Classification (which includes traffic policing, traffic shaping, and queuing techniques) should take place at the network edge. It is recommended that classification occur as close to the source of the traffic as possible. Also according to this Cisco link, “policing traffic as close to the source as possible”.

QUESTION 10:

To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect?

A. Auto
B. Active
C. On
D. Passive

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-mobility-documents/lag-link-aggregation/ta-p/3128669

QUESTION 11:

Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12:

On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric?

A. LISP
B. IS-IS
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. VXLAN

Correct Answer: D

The tunneling technology used for the fabric data plane is based on Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN). VXLAN encapsulation is UDP-based, meaning that it can be forwarded by any IP-based network (legacy or third party) and creates the overlay network for the SD-Access fabric. Although LISP is the control plane for the SD-Access fabric, it does not use LISP data encapsulation for the data plane; instead, it uses VXLAN encapsulation because it is capable of encapsulating the original Ethernet header to perform MAC-in-IP encapsulation, while LISP does not.

Using VXLAN
allows the SD-Access fabric to support Layer 2 and Layer 3 virtual topologies (overlays) and the ability to operate over any IP-based network with built-in network segmentation (VRF instance/VN) and built-in group-based policy.

Reference:
CCNP and CCIE Enterprise Core ENCOR 350-401 Official Cert Guide

QUESTION 13:

Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall?

A. Passive
B. Tap
C. Inline tap
D. Inline

Correct Answer: D

Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) provides six interface modes which are: Routed, Switched, Inline Pair, Inline Pair with Tap, Passive, and Passive (ERSPAN). When Inline Pair Mode is in use, packets can be blocked since they are processed inline When you use Inline Pair mode, the packet goes mainly through the FTD Snort engine When Tap Mode is enabled, a copy of the packet is inspected and dropped internally while the actual traffic goes through FTD unmodified
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-ngfw/200924-configuringfirepower-threat-defenseint.html

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Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. A threat actor behind a single computer exploited a cloud-based application by sending multiple concurrent API requests. These requests made the application unresponsive. Which solution protects the application from being overloaded and ensures more equitable application access across the end-user community?

A. Limit the number of API calls that a single client is allowed to make

B. Add restrictions on the edge router on how often a single client can access the API

C. Reduce the amount of data that can be fetched from the total pool of active clients that call the API

D. Increase the application cache of the total pool of active clients that call the API

Correct Answer: A

 

Question 2:

A threat actor attacked an organization\’s Active Directory server from a remote location, and in a thirty-minute timeframe, stole the password for the administrator account and attempted to access 3 company servers. The threat actor successfully accessed the first server that contained sales data, but no files were downloaded. A second server was also accessed that contained marketing information and 11 files were downloaded. When the threat actor accessed the third server that contained corporate financial data, the session was disconnected, and the administrator\’s account was disabled.

Which activity triggered the behavior analytics tool?

A. accessing the Active Directory server

B. accessing the server with financial data

C. accessing multiple servers

D. downloading more than 10 files

Correct Answer: C

 

Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst needs to investigate a security incident involving several suspicious connections with a possible attacker. Which tool should the analyst use to identify the source IP of the offender?

A. packet sniffer

B. malware analysis

C. SIEM

D. firewall manager

Correct Answer: A

 

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop has automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine for further analysis. What should be concluded from this report?

A. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

B. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

C. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

D. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are low and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

Correct Answer: C

 

Question 5:

The physical security department received a report that an unauthorized person followed an authorized individual to enter a secured premises. The incident was documented and given to a security specialist to analyze. Which step should be taken at this stage?

A. Determine the assets to which the attacker has access

B. Identify assets the attacker handled or acquired

C. Change access controls to high-risk assets in the enterprise

D. Identify the movement of the attacker in the enterprise

Correct Answer: D

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The latest update of Cisco 350-201 exam questions and answers and official exam information tips

QUESTION 1:

cisco 350-201 q1

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop has automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine for further analysis. What should be concluded from this report?

A. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

B. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

C. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

D. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are low and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

Refer to the exhibit. Which command was executed in PowerShell to generate this log?cisco 350-201 q2

A. Get-EventLog -LogName*
B. Get-EventLog -List
C. Get-WinEvent -ListLog* -ComputerName localhost
D. Get-WinEvent -ListLog*

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://lists.xymon.com/archive/2019-March/046125.html

QUESTION 3:

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the threat from the left onto the scenario that introduces the threat on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

cisco 350-201 q3

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q3-1

QUESTION 4:

A SOC analyst is notified by the network monitoring tool that there are unusual types of internal traffic on the IP subnet 103.861.2117.0/24. The analyst discovers unexplained encrypted data files on a computer system that belongs on that specific subnet.
What is the cause of the issue?

A. DDoS attack
B. phishing attack
C. virus outbreak
D. malware outbreak

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit. Which asset has the highest risk value?cisco 350-201 q5

A. servers
B. website
C. payment process
D. secretary workstation

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

What is the principle of Infrastructure as Code?

A. System maintenance is delegated to software systems
B. Comprehensive initial designs support robust systems
C. Scripts and manual configurations work together to ensure repeatable routines
D. System downtime is grouped and scheduled across the infrastructure

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7:

An analyst is alerted to a malicious file hash. After analysis, the analyst determined that an internal workstation is communicating over port 80 with an external server and that the file hash is associated with Duqu malware. Which tactics, techniques, and procedures align with this analysis?

A. Command and Control, Application Layer Protocol, Duqu
B. Discovery, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
C. Lateral Movement, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
D. Discovery, System Network Configuration Discovery, Duqu

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

Refer to the exhibit. For IP 192.168.1.209, what are the risk level, activity, and next step?cisco 350-201 q8

A. high-risk level, anomalous periodic communication, quarantine with antivirus
B. critical risk level, malicious server IP, run in a sandboxed environment
C. critical risk level, data exfiltration, isolate the device
D. high-risk level, malicious host, investigate further

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

DRAG-DROPcisco 350-201 q9

Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Secure Network Analytics (Stealthwatch) console alerted with “New Malware Server Discovered” and the IOC indicates communication from an end-user desktop to a Zeus CandC Server. Drag and drop the actions that the analyst should take from the left into the order on the right to investigate and remediate this IOC.

Select and Place: cisco 350-201 q9-1

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q9-2

QUESTION 10:
cisco 350-201 q10

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine. What should be concluded from this report?

A. Threat scores are high, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified
B. Threat scores are low, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified
C. Threat scores are high, malicious activity is detected, but files have not been modified
D. Threat scores are low and no malicious file activity is detected

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11:

DRAG-DROP
An organization lost connectivity to critical servers, and users cannot access business applications and internal websites. An engineer checks the network devices to investigate the outage and determines that all devices are functioning. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to continue investigating this issue. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:cisco 350-201 q11

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q11-1

QUESTION 12:

An employee abused PowerShell commands and script interpreters, which lead to an indicator of compromise (IOC) trigger. The IOC event shows that a known malicious file has been executed, and there is an increased likelihood of a breach.
Which indicator generated this IOC event?

A. ExecutedMalware.ioc
B. Crossrider.ioc
C. ConnectToSuspiciousDomain.ioc
D. W32 AccesschkUtility.ioc

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13:

A threat actor used a phishing email to deliver a file with an embedded macro. The file was opened, and a remote code execution attack occurred in a company\\’s infrastructure. Which steps should an engineer take at the recovery stage?

A. Determine the systems involved and deploy available patches
B. Analyze event logs and restrict network access
C. Review access lists and require users to increase password complexity
D. Identify the attack vector and update the IDS signature list

Correct Answer: B

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Latest updates Cisco 300-815 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A support engineer is troubleshooting a voice network. When conducting a search for call setup details related to calling
search space issues, which trace files should be investigated?
A. CallManager traces
B. CTI Manager traces
C. Cisco IP Manager Assistant
D. Call logs
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-815 q2

Calls incoming from the provider are not working through newly set up Cisco Unified Border Element. Provider
engineers get the 404 Not Found SIP message. Incoming calls are coming from the provider with called number
“222333444” and Cisco Unified Communications Manager is expecting the called number to be delivered as
“444333222”. The administrator already verified that the IP address of the Cisco Unified CM is set up correctly and there are no dial peers configured other than those shown in the exhibit. Which action must the administrator take to fix the
issue?
A. Change the destination-pattern on the outgoing dial peer to match “444333222”.
B. Set up translation-profile on the incoming dial peer to match incoming traffic.
C. Create specific matching for “222333444” on the incoming dial peer.
D. Fix the voice translation-rule to match specifically number “222333444” and change it to “444333222”.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which IOS command creates a SIP-enabled dial peer?
A. voice dial-peer 20 sip
B. dial-peer voice 20 voip
C. dial-peer voice 20 pots
D. dial peer voice 20 sip
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=664148andseqNum=6

 

QUESTION 4
An administrator discovers that employees are making unauthorized long-distance and international calls from loggedoff Extension Mobility phones when the authorized users are away from their desks Which two configurations should the
administrator configure in the Cisco UCM to avoid this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions from the calling search space of the physical phone.
B. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the physical phone\\’s
directory number.
C. Remove the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions from the calling search space of the device profile.
D. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the physical phone.
E. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the device profile
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 5
A user in location X dials an extension at location Y. The call travels through a QoS-enabled WAN network, but the user
experiences choppy or clipped audio. What is the cause of this issue?
A. missing Call Admission Control
B. codec mismatch
C. ptime mismatch
D. phone class of service issue
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-815 q6

Users report that when they dial the emergency number 9911 from any internal phone, it takes a long time to connect
with the emergency operator. Which action resolves this issue?
A. Adjust the service parameter T302 timet to the desired value.
B. Adjust the service parameter T204 timer to the desired value.
C. Check the Urgent Priority check box under 9.911 pattern.
D. Point the emergency pattern directly to the PSTN gateway.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
What is first preference condition matched in a SIP-enabled incoming dial peer?
A. incoming uri
B. target carrier-id
C. answer-address
D. incoming called-number
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip-voip/211306-InDepthExplanation-of-Cisco-IOS-and-IO.html#anc8

 

QUESTION 8
An engineer must route all SIP calls in the form of @example.com to the SIP trunk gateway corporate local. Which two
SIP route patterns can be used to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. [email protected]
B. *@example.com
C. gateway.corporate.local
D. example.com
E. *.*
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-815 q9

An administrator is troubleshooting a situation where a call placed from a phone registered to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager does not complete. The administrator wants to use the Dialed Number Analyzer on Cisco
Unified CM to check which translation pattern the call is matching. However, when logging in to Cisco Unified
Serviceability there is no option for Dialed Number Analyzer under the tool menu. Which two steps must be performed
to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Restart the subscriber
B. Activate the Cisco Extended Functions service.
C. Activate the Cisco CallManager service.
D. Activate the Cisco Dialed Number Analyzer service.
E. Activate the Cisco Dialed Number Analyzer Server service.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 10
A user reports when they press the services key they do not receive a user ID and password prompt to assign the
phone extension. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Create the default device profiles for all phone models that are used.
B. Subscribe the phone to the Cisco Extension Mobility service.
C. Create the end user and associate it to the device profile.
D. Assign the extension as a mobile extension.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Which configuration must an administrator perform to display Translation Pattern operations in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager SDL traces?
A. Enable the Detailed Call Analysis option under Enterprise Parameters for Unified CM.
B. Set up the Digit Analysis Complexity in Service Parameters for Cisco Unified CM to
TranslationAndAlternatePatternAnalysis.
C. Check the Translation Patterns Analysis check box in Micro Traces on the Cisco Unified CM Serviceability page.
D. By default, the Translation Patterns operations are printed in SDL traces, so no additional configuration is necessary.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/taking-sip-call-trace-on-ciscounified-cm-usingrtmt/ta-p/3161200

 

QUESTION 12
A customer is using a SIP trunk to route calls to ITSP to decrease the possibility of downtime, the customer invested in
a failover device How does the customer ensure reachability to ITSP, so that if one device on ITSP fails, the calls will be
routed to another device?
A. Enable transmit security status on the SIP security profile
B. Enable ANAT on the SIP profile.
C. Monitor the link using network management toots, and if it fails, manually change the routing to another working
device.
D. Enable SIP Option Ping on the SIP profile.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Configure Call Queuing in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Where do you set the maximum number of callers
in the queue?
A. in the telephony service configuration
B. in the queuing configuration
C. in Cisco Unified CM Enterprise Parameters
D. in Cisco Unified CM Service Parameters
Correct Answer: B
Reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communicationsmanagercallmanager/200453-Configure-CUCM-Native-Call-Queuing-Featu.html

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QUESTION 1
DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the functionalities from the left onto the correct target fields on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
Which configuration modifies Local Packet Transport Services hardware policies?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/crs/software/crs_r4-1/addr_serv/command/reference/b_ipaddr_cr41crs/b_ipaddr_cr41crs_chapter_0111.html#wp1754734006

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is preparing to implement a data plane security configuration. Which statement about this
configuration is true?
A. Router 2 is the router receiving the DDoS attack.
B. Router 1 must be configured with uRPF for the RTBH implementation to be effective.
C. Router 1 is the trigger router in an RTBH implementation.
D. Router 2 must configure a route to null 0 for network 192.168.1.0/24 for the RTBH implementation to be complete.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which three OSPF parameters must match before two devices can establish an OSPF adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. subnet mask
C. interface cost
D. process ID
E. area number
F. hello timer setting
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 5
Which statement about segment routing prefix segments is true?
A. It is the longest path to a node.
B. It is linked to an adjacency SID that is globally unique within the router.
C. It is linked to a prefix SID that is globally unique within the segment routing domain.
D. It requires using EIGRP to operate.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/segment-routing/configuration/guide/b-segrouting-cg-asr9k/b-seg-routing-cg-asr9k_chapter_010.pdf

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement supports QPPB implementation?
A. QPPB policies affect only egress traffic.
B. QoS policies rely exclusively on BGP attributes to manipulate traffic.
C. QoS policies are identified in the MPLS forwarding table.
D. QoS policies use BGP to gain full coverage on the network.
Correct Answer: B
The QoS Policy Propagation via BGP feature allows you to classify packets by IP precedence based on the Border
Gateway Protocol (BGP) Attributes like community lists, BGP autonomous system paths, and access lists.

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration prevents the OSPF neighbor from establishing?
A. default-metric
B. duplex
C. network statement
D. MTU
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What are two factors to consider when implementing NSR High Availability on an MPLS PE router? (Choose two.)
A. It consumes more memory and CPU resources than NSF
B. It operates normally without NSR support on the PE peers.
C. It requires all PE-CE sessions to support NSR
D. It requires routing protocol extensions
E. It cannot sync state information across redundant RPs
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is implementing a BGP routing policy. Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. All traffic that matches acl10 is allowed without any change to its local preference.
B. All traffic that matches acl10 is dropped without any change to its local preference.
C. If traffic matches acl10, it is allowed and its local preference is set to 300.
D. All traffic is assigned a local preference of 300 regardless of its destination.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A network engineer is configuring a BGP route policy for the SUBNET prefix set. Matching traffic must be dropped, and
other traffic must have its MED value set to 400 and community 4:400 added to the route. Which configuration must an
engineer apply?
A. router-policy CISCO if destination in SUBNET then drop
else
set med 400
set community (4:400) additive
endif
end-policy
end
B. router-policy CISCO if destination in SUBNET then
drop
endif
set med 400
if community matches any SUBNET then
set local-preference 400
set med 500
set community (4:400) additive
endif
end-policy
end
C. router-policy SUBNET if destination in SUBNET then
drop
endif
set med 400
set local-preference 400
if community matches any SUBNET then
set community (4:400)
endif
end-policy
end
D. router-policy SUBNET if destination in BGP then drop
else
set med 400
set community (4:400)
endif
end-policy
end
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator working for a service provider with an employee id: 1234:56:789 applied this
configuration to a router.
Which additional step should the engineer use to enable LDP?
A. Enable MPLS LDP on the interface.
B. Disable Cisco Express Forwarding globally.
C. Delete the static router ID.
D. Configure both keywords to enable LDP globally.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

A network operator must configure CSR1 interlaces GigabitEihernet2 and GigabitEthemet to rewrite VLAN tags 12 and
21 for traffic between R1 and R2 respectively. Which configurator accomplishes this task?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
Correct Answer: C
IF bridge domain on both interfaces are 10

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit. Router 1 was experiencing a DDoS attack that was traced to interface gigabitethernet0/1. Which
statement about this configuration is true?
A. Router 1 accepts all traffic that ingresses and egresses interface gigabitethernet0/1.
B. Router 1 drops all traffic that ingresses interface gigabitethernet0/1 that has a FIB entry that exits a different
interface.
C. Router 1 accepts source addresses that have a match in the FIB that indicates it is reachable through a real
interface.
D. Router 1 accepts source addresses on interface gigabitethernet0/1 that are private addresses.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nxos/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_urpf.html

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QUESTION 1lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
A. 0
B. 110
C. 38443
D. 3184439
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q2

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with
IP address 10.20.20.1/24?lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q3

A. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1
255.255.255.0
B. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1
255.255.255.0
C. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
D. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q4-1

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to
interface FastEthernet 0/1?lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5

A. DHCP client
B. access point
C. router
D. PC
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibitlead4pass 200-301 exam questions q6

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers
must be able to access the web server.

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q6-1

Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
How can the Cisco Discovery Protocol be used?
A. to allow a switch to discover the devices that are connected to its ports
B. to determine the hardware platform of the device
C. to determine the IP addresses of connected Cisco devices
D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
A. 2000::/3
B. FC00::/7
C. FE80::/10
D. FF00::/8
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q9

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2. The configuration failed to work as intended.
Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while
still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two.)
A. Add a “permit ip any any” statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.
B. Add a “permit ip any any” statement to the beginning of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.
C. The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2.
D. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101.
E. The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 10
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?
A. collision
B. CRC
C. runt
D. late collision
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
A. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
B. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
C. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
A. 172.9.0.0/16
B. 172.28.0.0/16
C. 192.0.0.0/8
D. 209.165.201.0/24
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be
allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior?
(Choose two.)
A. The ACL is empty
B. A matching permit statement is too broadly defined
C. The packets fail to match any permit statement
D. A matching deny statement is too high in the access list
E. A matching permit statement is too high in the access list
Correct Answer: BE

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QUESTION 1
Which type of data collection requires the largest amount of storage space?
A. alert data
B. transaction data
C. session data
D. full packet capture
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
What does cyber attribution identity in an investigation?
A. cause of an attack
B. exploit of an attack
C. vulnerabilities exploited
D. threat actors of an attack
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3lead4pass 200-201 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. This request was sent to a web application server driven by a database.
Which type of web server attack is represented?
A. parameter manipulation
B. heap memory corruption
C. command injection
D. blind SQL injection
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
What is the benefit of agent-based protection when compared to agentless protection?
A. It lowers maintenance costs
B. It provides a centralized platform
C. It collects and detects all traffic locally
D. It manages numerous devices simultaneously
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
What is the difference between statistical detection and rule-based detection models?
A. Rule-based detection involves the collection of data in relation to the behavior of legitimate users over a period of
time
B. Statistical detection defines legitimate data of users over a period of time and rule-based detection defines it on an
IF/THEN basis
C. Statistical detection involves the evaluation of an object on its intended actions before it executes that behavior
D. Rule-based detection defines legitimate data of users over a period of time and statistical detection defines it on an
IF/THEN basis
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6lead4pass 200-201 exam questions q6

Refer to the exhibit. What information is depicted?
A. IIS data
B. NetFlow data
C. network discovery event
D. IPS event data
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
How does an attacker observe network traffic exchanged between two users?
A. port scanning
B. man-in-the-middle
C. command injection
D. denial of service
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8lead4pass 200-201 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. What is the expected result when the “Allow subdissector to reassemble TCP streams” feature is
enabled?
A. insert TCP subdissectors
B. extract a file from a packet capture
C. disable TCP streams
D. unfragment TCP
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation and traffic mirroring?
A. Inline inspection acts on the original traffic data flow
B. Traffic mirroring passes live traffic to a tool for blocking
C. Traffic mirroring inspects live traffic for analysis and mitigation
D. Inline traffic copies packets for analysis and security
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
What causes events on a Windows system to show Event Code 4625 in the log messages?
A. The system detected an XSS attack
B. Someone is trying a brute force attack on the network
C. Another device is gaining root access to the system
D. A privileged user successfully logged into the system
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?
A. SSL interception
B. packet header size
C. signature detection time
D. encryption
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12lead4pass 200-201 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. Which application protocol is in this PCAP file?
A. SSH
B. TCP
C. TLS
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its
integrity?
A. examination
B. investigation
C. collection
D. reporting
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What is the benefit of the application-aware firewall?
A. It blocks traffic by MAC address
B. It blocks traffic by MTU of the packet.
C. It blocks traffic by application.
D. It blocks encrypted traffic
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_data_zbf/configuration/xe-16-9/sec-data-zbf-xe-16-9-book/secdata-zbf-xe-16-9-book_chapter_0100100.html

 

QUESTION 2
When redistribution is configured between OMP and BGP at two Data Center sites that have Direct Connection interlink,
which step avoids learning the same routes on WAN Edge routers of the DCs from LAN?
A. Define different VRFs on both DCs
B. Set the same overlay AS on both DC WAN Edge routers
C. Set down-bit on Edge routers on DC1
D. Set OMP admin distance lower than BGP admin distance
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which on-the-box security feature k supported by the Cisco ISR 4451 SD-WAN device and not on vEdge?
A. Cloud Express service
B. Enterprise Firewall with Application Awareness
C. reverse proxy
D. IPsec/GRE cloud proxy
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Which logs verify when a device was upgraded?
A. Audit
B. Email
C. ACL
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which template configures the out-of-band management VPN?lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q5 lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q5-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
On which device Is a service FW address configured to Insert firewall service at the hub?
A. vEdge at the branch
B. vSmart at the hub
C. vEdge at the hub
D. vSmart at the branch
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/Software_Features/Release_18.4/07Policy_Applications/02Service_Chaining/Service_Chaining_Configuration_Examples

 

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco SD-WAN WAN Edge platform supports LTE and Wi-Fi?
A. vEdge2000
B. ASR1001
C. CSR 1000v
D. ISR 1101
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the vManage policy configuration procedures from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q8-1

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/vedge/policies-book/datapolicies.html

 

QUESTION 9
Which alarm setting is configured to monitor serious events that affect but do not shut down, the operation of a network
function?
A. Minor
B. Major
C. Medium
D. Critical
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/vManage_HowTos/Troubleshooting/Monitor_Alarms

 

QUESTION 10
A policy is created to influence routing in the network using a group of prefixes. What policy application will achieve this goal when applied to a site list?
A. Vpn-membership policy
B. Control-policy
C. cflowd-template
D. App-route policy
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
What are the two advantages of deploying cloud-based Cisco SD-WAN controllers? (Choose two.)
A. centralized control and data plane
B. distributed authentication policies
C. management of SLA
D. infrastructure as a service
E. centralized raid storage of data
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
Which value is verified in the certificates to confirm the identity of the physical WAN Edge device?
A. Serial Number
B. OTP
C. System-IP
D. Chassis-ID
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which command displays BFD session summary information per TLOC on vEdge routers?
A. show bfd history
B. show bfd summary
C. show BFD sessions
D. show BFD tloc-summary-list
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/command/sdwan-cr-book/sdwan-cr-book_chapter_0100.html

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