350-701 exam

Lead4pass 350-701 dumps consist of 598 up-to-date exam questions and answers specifically designed for the Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR) exam.

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Practice some 350-701 dumps exam questions online

FromNumber of exam questionsLast updatedExam name
Lead4Pass15350-701 dumpsImplementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR)
Question 1:

Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two)

A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.

B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.

C. C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.

D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.

E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona

Correct Answer: BD

Does the profiling service issue the change of authorization in the following cases:?Endpoint deleted–When an endpoint is deleted from the Endpoints page and the endpoint is disconnected or removed from the network.

An exception action is configured–If you have an exception action configured per profile that leads to an unusual or unacceptable event from that endpoint. The profiling service moves the endpoint to the corresponding static profile by issuing a CoA.

An endpoint is profiled for the first time–When an endpoint is not statically assigned and profiled for the first time; for example, the profile changes from an unknown to a known profile.+ An endpoint identity group has changed–When an endpoint is added or removed from an endpoint identity group that is used by an authorization policy.

The profiling service issues a CoA when there is any change in an endpoint identity group, and the endpoint identity group is used in the authorization policy for the following:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2- 1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_010100.html

Question 2:

Which Cisco platform onboards the endpoint and can issue a CA-signed certificate while also automatically configuring endpoint network settings to use the signed endpoint certificate, allowing the endpoint to gain network access?

A. Cisco ISE

B. Cisco NAC

C. Cisco TACACS+

D. Cisco WSA

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

Which two features of Cisco DNA Center are used in a Software Defined Network solution? (Choose two)

A. accounting

B. assurance

C. automation

D. authentication

E. encryption

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems- management/dna-center/nb-06- cisco-dna-center-aag-cte-en.html

Question 4:

Which Cisco security solution determines if an endpoint has the latest OS updates and patches installed on the system?

A. Cisco Endpoint Security Analytics

B. Cisco AMP for Endpoints

C. Endpoint Compliance Scanner

D. Security Posture Assessment Service

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

Latest 350-701 exam questions 5

What does the API key do while working with https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/computers?

A. displays client ID

B. HTTP authorization

C. Imports requests

D. HTTP authentication

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

What is the function of the Context Directory Agent?

A. maintains users\’ group memberships

B. relays user authentication requests from Web Security Appliance to Active Directory

C. reads the Active Directory logs to map IP addresses to usernames

D. accepts user authentication requests on behalf of Web Security Appliance for user identification

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ibf/cda_10/Install_Config_guide/cda10/cda_ oveviw.html

Question 7:

An engineer is configuring web filtering for a network using Cisco Umbrella Secure Internet Gateway.

The requirement is that all traffic needs to be filtered. Using the SSL decryption feature, which type of certificate should be presented to the end user to accomplish this goal?

A. third-party

B. self-signed

C. organization owned root

D. SubCA

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

A network security engineer must export packet captures from the Cisco FMC web browser while troubleshooting an issue. When navigating to the address https:///capure/CAPI/pcap/test.pcap, an error 403: Forbidden is given instead of the PCAP file. Which action must the engineer take to resolve this issue?

A. Disable the proxy setting on the browser

B. Disable the HTTPS server and use HTTP instead

C. Use the Cisco FTD IP address as the proxy server setting on the browser

D. Enable the HTTPS server for the device platform policy

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

An organization must add new firewalls to its infrastructure and wants to use Cisco ASA or Cisco FTD.

The chosen firewalls must provide methods of blocking traffic that includes offering the user the option to bypass the block for certain sites after displaying a warning page and resetting the connection.

Which solution should the organization choose?

A. Cisco FTD because it supports system rate level traffic blocking, whereas Cisco ASA does not

B. Cisco ASA because it allows for interactive blocking and blocking with reset to be configured via the GUI, whereas Cisco FTD does not.

C. Cisco FTD because it enables interactive blocking and blocking with reset natively, whereas Cisco ASA does not

D. Cisco ASA because it has an additional module that can be installed to provide multiple blocking capabilities, whereas Cisco FTD does not.

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

Which security solution is used for posture assessment of the endpoints in a BYOD solution?

A. Cisco FTD

B. Cisco ASA

C. Cisco Umbrella

D. Cisco ISE

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:

An engineer is deploying Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints and wants to create a policy that prevents users from executing a file named abc424952615.exe without quarantining that file.

What type of Outbreak Control list must the SHA.-256 hash value for the file be added to in order to accomplish this?

A. Advanced Custom Detection

B. Blocked Application

C. Isolation

D. Simple Custom Detection

Correct Answer: B

Question 12:

A company recently discovered an attack propagating throughout their Windows network via a file named abc428565580xyz exe The malicious file was uploaded to a Simple Custom Detection list in the AMP for Endpoints Portal and the currently applied policy for the Windows clients was updated to reference the detection list Verification testing scans on known infected systems shows that AMP for Endpoints is not detecting the presence of this file as an indicator of compromise.

What must be performed to ensure the detection of the malicious file?

A. Upload the malicious file to the Blocked Application Control List

B. Use an Advanced Custom Detection List instead of a Simple Custom Detection List

C. Check the box in the policy configuration to send the file to Cisco Threat Grid for dynamic analysis

D. Upload the SHA-256 hash for the file to the Simple Custom Detection List

Correct Answer: D

Question 13:

Which Cisco platform provides an agentless solution to provide visibility across the network including encrypted traffic analytics to detect malware in encrypted traffic without the need for decryption?

A. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection

B. Cisco Stealthwatch

C. Cisco Identity Services Engine

D. Cisco AnyConnect

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

Which security solution protects users leveraging DNS-layer security?

A. Cisco ISE

B. Cisco FTD

C. Cisco Umbrella

D. Cisco ASA

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

What are two ways that the Cisco Container Platform provides value to customers who utilize cloud service providers? (Choose two.)

A. Allows developers to create code once and deploy it to multiple clouds

B. helps maintain source code for cloud deployments

C. manages Docker containers

D. manages Kubernetes clusters

E. Creates complex tasks for managing code

Correct Answer: AE


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200-301 ccna 2022-2023

CCNA 200-301 dumps contain 1017 exam questions and answers covering actual CCNA 200-301 certification exams and labs to prepare for the 2022-2023 CCNA certification.

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Try a free CCNA 200-301 exam questions and answers online (Include Labs):

Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2. Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

ccna 200-301 questions 1

A. Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on Swrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B. Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C. Switch1{config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D. Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

A. enable AAA override

B. enable RX-SOP

C. enable DTIM

D. enable Band Select

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right

Select and Place:

ccna 200-301 questions 3

Correct Answer:

ccna 200-301 questions 3-1

Question 4:

An engineer is configuring SSH version 2 exclusively on the R1 router. What is the minimum configuration required to permit remote management using the cryptographic protocol?

A. hostname R1 IP domain name cisco crypto key generate RSA general-keys modulus 1024

username cisco privilege 15 password 0 cisco123

IP ssh version 2

line vty 0 15

transport input ssh

login local

B. hostname R1 crypto key generate RSA general-keys modulus 1024 username cisco privilege 15 password 0 cisco123 IP ssh version 2 line vty 0 15 transport input all login local

C. hostname R1 service password-encryption crypto key generate RSA general-keys modulus 1024 username cisco privilege 15 password O cisco123 IP ssh version 2 line vty 0 15 transport input ssh login local

D. hostname R1 IP domain name cisco crypto key generate RSA general-keys modulus 1024 username cisco privilege 15 password 0 cisco123 IP ssh version 2 line vty 0 15 transport input all login local

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

Drag and drop each broadcast IP address on the left to the Broadcast Address column on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

ccna 200-301 questions 5

Correct Answer:

ccna 200-301 questions 5-1

Question 6:

Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?

A. bridge

B. route

C. autonomous

D. lightweight

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?

A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table.

B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to the CPU for destination MAC address learning.

C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.

D. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.

Correct Answer: C

If the destination MAC address is not in the CAM table (unknown destination MAC address), the switch sends the frame out to all other ports that are in the same VLAN as the received frame. This is called flooding. It does not flood the frame out of the same port on which the frame was received.

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance?

ccna 200-301 questions 8

A. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1

B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5

C. router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2

D. router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2

Correct Answer: B

The default AD of the static route is 1 so we need to configure another number for the static route.

Question 9:

What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

A. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet

B. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts

C. to pass traffic between different networks

D. forward traffic within the same broadcast domain

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages onto the server?

A. a DHCP Relay Agent

B. DHCP Binding

C. a DHCP Pool

D. DHCP Snooping

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exceed the desired bit rate of traffic flow?

A. shaping

B. policing

C. CBWFQ

D. LLQ

Correct Answer: B

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

ccna 200-301 questions 12

A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?

ccna 200-301 questions 12-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?

ccna 200-301 questions 13

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

What are network endpoints?

A. act as routers to connect a user to the service prowler network

B. a threat to the network if they are compromised

C. support inter-VLAN connectivity

D. enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the internet

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two.)

A. when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

B. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

C. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

D. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

E. when the cable length limits are exceeded

Correct Answer: BE

A late collision is defined as any collision that occurs after the first 512 bits (or 64th bytes) of the frame have been transmitted. The usual possible causes are full-duplex/half-duplex mismatch, exceeded Ethernet cable length limits, or defective

hardware such as incorrect cabling, a non-compliant number of hubs in the network, or a bad NIC.

Late collisions should never occur in a properly designed Ethernet network. They usually occur when Ethernet cables are too long or when there are too many repeaters in the network.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/internetworking/troubleshooting/guide/tr1904.html

Total Questions: 1017 Q&A (Include Newest Simulation Labs)


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The latest updated Lead4Pass 500-220 dumps contain 57 exam questions and answers, verified by the Cisco professional team, and corrected the past exam questions and answers to ensure that candidates can successfully pass the 500-220 Cisco Meraki Solutions Specialist certification exam.

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Verify some latest 500-220 Dumps exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease time
15Cisco Meraki Solutions SpecialistLead4PassDec 02, 2022
New Question 1:

Which Cisco Meraki best practice method preserves complete historical network event logs?

A. Configuring the preserved event number to maximize logging.

B. Configuring the preserved event period to unlimited.

C. Configuring a syslog server for the network.

D. Configuring Dashboard logging to preserve only certain event types.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 2:

Which two features and functions are supported when using an MX appliance in Passthrough mode? (Choose two.)

A. intrusion prevention

B. site-to-site VPN

C. secondary uplinks

D. DHCP

E. high availability

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MX/Networks_and_Routing/Passthrough_Mode_on_the_MX_Security_Appliance_and_Z-series_Teleworker_Gateway

New Question 3:

A customer requires a hub-and-spoke Auto VPN deployment with two NAT-mode hubs with dual uplink connections and 50 remote sites with a single uplink connection. How many tunnels does each hub need to support?

A. 52

B. 54

C. 100

D. 104

Correct Answer: C

New Question 4:
new 500-220 dumps questions 4

Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions are required to optimize load balancing asymmetrically with a 4:1 ratio between links? (Choose two.)

A. Change the primary uplink to “none”.

B. Add an internet traffic preference that defines the load-balancing ratio as 4:1.

C. Enable load balancing.

D. Set the speed of the cellular uplink to zero.

E. Change the assigned speeds of WAN 1 and WAN 2 so that the ratio is 4:1.

Correct Answer: BC

New Question 5:

What are the two roles of the network and device tags in a Dashboard? (Choose two.)

A. Tags enable administrators to configure a combination of network and device-specific tags to create summary reports filtered for specific devices across multiple networks.

B. Network tags can be used to assign networks to separate Auto VPN domains in an Organization with many networks.

C. Network tags can be used to simplify the assignment of network-level permissions in an Organization with many networks.

D. Device tags can be used to simplify the assignment of device-level permissions in an Organization with many administrators.

E. Device tags can be assigned to MR APs to influence the gateway selection for repeaters in a mesh wireless network.

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Organizations_and_Networks/Organization_Menu/Manage_Tags

New Question 6:

Which two actions can extend the video retention of a Cisco Meraki MV Smart Camera? (Choose two.)

A. enabling audio compression

B. installing an SSD memory extension

C. enabling motion-based retention

D. enabling maximum retention limit

E. configuring a recording schedule

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MV/Initial_Configuration/Video_Retention

New Question 7:
new 500-220 dumps questions 7

Refer to the exhibit. What is the advantage of implementing inter-VLAN routing on an MX Security Appliance rather than performing inter-VLAN routing on an MS Series Switch?

A. The MX appliance performs IDS/IPS for inter-VLAN traffic.

B. The MX appliance performs AMP for inter-VLAN traffic.

C. The MX appliance performs data encryption for inter-VLAN traffic.

D. The MX appliance performs content filtering for inter-VLAN traffic.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 8:

Which requirement is needed to implement Fast Lane on Cisco Meraki APs?

A. wireless profile installed on an Apple iOS device

B. wireless profile installed on a Cisco iOS access point

C. adaptive 802.11r disabled

D. traffic shaping rule tagging traffic with a DSCP value of 46 to Apple.com

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/WiFi_Basics_and_Best_Practices/Wireless_QoS_and_Fast_Lane

New Question 9:

Which three verbs of request are available in the Cisco Meraki API? (Choose three.)

A. SET

B. PUT

C. PATCH

D. ADD

E. POST

F. GET

Correct Answer: BEF

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Other_Topics/Cisco_Meraki_Dashboard_API

New Question 10:

In an organization that uses the Co-Termination licensing model, which two operations enable licenses to be applied? (Choose two.)

A. Renew the Dashboard license.

B. License a network.

C. License more devices.

D. Call Meraki support.

E. Wait for the devices to auto-renew.

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Licensing/Meraki_Co-Termination_Licensing_Overview

New Question 11:

One thousand concurrent users stream video to their laptops. A 30/70 split between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz is used. Based on the client count, how many APs (rounded to the nearest whole number) are needed?

A. 26

B. 28

C. 30

D. 32

Correct Answer: C

New Question 12:

For which two reasons can an organization become “Out of License”? (Choose two.)

A. licenses that are in the wrong network

B. more hardware devices than device licenses

C. expired device license

D. licenses that do not match the serial numbers in the organization

E. MR licenses that do not match the MR models in the organization

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Licensing/Meraki_Licensing_FAQs

New Question 13:

Which Meraki Dashboard menu section is accessed to enable Sentry enrollment on an SSID?

A. Wireless > Configure > Access Control

B. Wireless > Configure > Splash page

C. Wireless > Configure > Firewall and Traffic Shaping

D. Wireless > Configure > SSIDs

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/MR_Splash_Page/Systems_Manager_Sentry_Enrollment

New Question 14:

What is the best practice Systems Manager enrollment method when deploying corporate-owned iOS devices?

A. manual

B. Apple Configurator

C. Sentry enrollment

D. DEP

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://meraki.cisco.com/lib/pdf/meraki_whitepaper_ios.pdf

New Question 15:

A Cisco Meraki MV camera is monitoring an office and its field of vision currently captures work desks and employee computer screens. However, recording employee computer screens is prohibited by local regulations.

Which feature in the Dashboard can be used to preserve the current position of the camera while also meeting regulation requirements?

A. zone exclusion

B. privacy window

C. area or interest

D. sensor crop

E. restricted mode

Correct Answer: E


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3. If your study focus focuses on an understanding of enterprise infrastructure, including dual stack (IPv4 and IPv6) architecture, virtualization, infrastructure, network assurance, security, and automation, then you are right to take the 300-425 ENWLSD exam.

About Cisco Enterprise Wireless Network:

About Cisco Enterprise Wireless Network

Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networking includes two important certification exam options:

300-425 ENWLSD Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD)

300-430 ENWLSI Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSI)

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Latest updated 300-425 Dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

Which UDP port numbers are used for exchanging mobility packets in an AireOS wireless deployment?

A. UDP 16666 for the control plane, EoIP (IP protocol 97) for the data plane

B. UDP 16668 for the control plane, UDP 16667 for the data plane

C. UDP 16667 for the control plane, UDP 16666 for the data plane

D. UDP 16666 for the control plane, UDP 16667 for the data plane

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 1

New Question 2:

An engineer is designing a wireless deployment for a university auditorium. Which two features can be used to help deal with the issues introduced by high AP count? (Choose two.)

A. TSPEC

B. RXSOP

C. TPC

D. LSS

E. DFS

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/80211/200069-Overview-on-802-11h-Transmit-Power-Cont.html

New Question 3:

A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network to support real-time applications over wireless. Which IEEE protocol must the engineer enable on the WLC so that the number of packets that are exchanged between an access point and client is reduced and fast roaming occurs?

A. 802.11w

B. 802.11r

C. 802.11i

D. 802.11k

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 3

New Question 4:

A network administrator of a global organization is collapsing all controllers into a single cluster located in central Europe. Which concern must be addressed?

A. Some channels may not be available consistently across the organization.

B. Different RF policies per office are not available in this configuration.

C. Syslog must be configured to the time zone of the NMS platform.

D. Centralized controllers cannot uniformly authenticate global users.

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/technotes/86/b_Cisco_Wireless_LAN_ Controller_Configuration_Best_Practices.html

New Question 5:

An engineer must ensure that the new wireless LAN deployment can support seamless roaming between access points using a standard based on an amendment to the 802.11 protocol. Which protocol must the engineer select?

A. 802.11i

B. 802.11ac

C. 802.11r

D. 802.11e

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 5

New Question 6:

A high-density wireless network is designed. Which Cisco WLC configuration setting must be incorporated in the design to encourage clients to use the 5 GHz spectrum?

A. Band Select

B. RRM

C. Cisco Centralized Key Management

D. load balancing

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 6

New Question 7:

A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters. Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.)

A. Use a battery pack to power APs B. Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements.

C. Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput.

D. Use APs with directional antennas.

E. Use APs with external antennas.

F. Use APs with built-in antennas.

Correct Answer: ABF

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/technology/mesh/8-4/b_mesh_84/Site_Preparation_and_Planning.html#ID3405

New Question 8:

A wireless engineer must optimize RF performance for multiple buildings with multiple types of construction and user density. Which two actions must be taken? (Choose two.)

A. Configure Flexconnect groups for each building.

B. Configure WMM profiles for each building.

C. Configure AP groups for each area type.

D. Configure RF profiles for each area type.

E. Enable DTPC on the network.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-10/config-guide/b_cg810/configuring_ap_groups.html

New Question 9:

A wireless engineer is hired to design a network for a technology company. The company campus has four buildings and a warehouse with access points that provide full wireless coverage as well as a pair of WLCs located in the core of the network. Which type of wireless architecture is being used?

A. unified deployment

B. autonomous deployment

C. centralized deployment

D. distributed deployment

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 9

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 300-425 dumps questions 10

What is the main reason why the Wi-Fi design engineer took a different approach than installing the APs in the offices, even though that installation provides better coverage?

A. aesthetics

B. transmit power considerations

C. antenna gain

D. power supply considerations

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Mobility/emob30dg/RFDesign.html#wp10 00551

New Question 11:

Where must the APs be mounted when used in a high-density wireless network to provide 6 dB to 20 dB of attenuation to a cell?

A. in the aisle

B. under the seat

C. above the stage

D. under the stage

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 11

New Question 12:

A company wants to replace its existing PBX system with a new VoIP System that will include wireless IP phones. The CIO has concerns about whether the company\’s existing wireless network can support the new system. Which tool in Cisco Prime can help ensure that the current network will support the new phone system?

A. Location Readiness

B. Site Calibration

C. Map Editor

D. Voice Readiness

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 12

New Question 13:

A rapidly expanding company has tasked its network engineer with wirelessly connecting a new cubicle area with Cisco workgroup bridges until the wired network is complete. Each of the 42 new users has a computer and VoIP phone. How many APs for workgroup bridging must be ordered to keep costs at a minimum while connecting all devices?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 7

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 13

So, each AP will have 25 clients. A minimum of 4 APs is sufficient.

New Question 14:

An engineer is designing a wireless network that will support many different types of wireless clients. When conducting the survey, which client must be used to ensure a consistent experience for all of the wireless clients?

A. the client that has the highest RF properties

B. the client that is used most by the company

C. the client that is used least by the company

D. the client with the worst RF characteristics

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 14

https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/WiFi_Basics_and_Best_Practices/Conducting_Site_Surveys_ with_MR_Access_Points

New Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 300-425 dumps questions 15

A client roams between two APs that are registered to two different controllers, where each controller has an interface in the client subnet. Both controllers are running AireOS. Which scenario explains the client roaming behavior?

A. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database entry is moved from the original controller to the new controller.

B. Controllers do not exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database, entry is not moved from the original controller to the new controller.

C. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and a new client session is started with the new controller.

D. Controllers exchange mobility control messages (over UDP port 16666) and the client database entry is tunneled from the original controller to the new controller.

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

new 300-425 dumps questions 15-1


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New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. Users in the branch network of 2001:db8:0:4::/64 report that they cannot access the Internet. Which command is issued in IPv6 router EIGRP 100 configuration mode to solve this issue?

A. Issue the eigrp stub command on R1.

B. Issue the no eigrp stub command on R1.

C. Issue the eigrp stub command on R2.

D. Issue the no eigrp stub command on R2.

Check answer

New Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration configures a policy on R1 to forward any traffic that is sourced from the 192.168.130.0/24 network to R2?

A. access-list 1 permit 192.168.130.0 0.0.0.255 ! interface Gi0/2 IP policy route-map test! route-map test permit 10 match IP address 1 set IP next-hop 172.20.20.2

B. access-list 1 permit 192.168.130.0 0.0.0.255 ! interface Gi0/1 IP policy route-map test! route-map test permit 10 match IP address 1 set IP next-hop 172.20.40.2

C. access-list 1 permit 192.168.130.0 0.0.0.255 ! interface Gi0/2 IP policy route-map test! r oute-map test permit 10 match IP address 1 set IP next-hop 172.20.20.1

D. access-list 1 permit 192.168.130.0 0.0.0.255 ! interface Gi0/1 IP policy route-map test! route-map test permit 10 match IP address 1 set IP next-hop 172.20.40.1

E. access-list 1 permit 192.168.130.0 0.0.0.255 ! interface Gi0/1 IP policy route-map test! route-map test permit 10 match IP address 1 set IP next-hop 172.20.20.1

Check answer

New Question 3:

R2 has a locally originated prefix 192.168.130.0/24 and has these configurations: What is the result when the route-map OUT command is applied toward an eBGP neighbor R1 (1.1.1.1) by using the neighbor 1.1.1.1 route-map OUT out command?

A. R1 sees 192.168.130.0/24 as two AS hops away instead of one AS hop away.

B. R1 does not accept any routes other than 192.168.130.0/24

C. R1 does not forward traffic that is destined for 192.168.30.0/24

D. Network 192.168.130.0/24 is not allowed in the R1 table

Check answer

New Question 4:

Which method changes the forwarding decision that a router makes without first changing the routing table or influencing the IP data plane?

A. nonbroadcast multiaccess

B. packet switching

C. policy-based routing

D. forwarding information base

Check answer

New Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. The output of the traceroute from R5 shows a loop in the network. Which configuration prevents this loop?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Check answer

New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures a static route on a router, but when the engineer checks the route to the destination, a different next hop is chosen. What is the reason for this?

A. Dynamic routing protocols always have priority over static routes.

B. The metric of the OSPF route is lower than the metric of the static route.

C. The configured AD for the static route is higher than the AD of OSPF.

D. The syntax of the static route is not valid, so the route is not considered.

Check answer

New Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to generate a summary route in OSPF for network 10.0.0.0/8, but the summary route does not show up in the routing table. Why is the summary route missing?

A. The summary-address command is used only for summarizing prefixes between areas.

B. The summary route is visible only in the OSPF database, not in the routing table.

C. There is no route for a subnet inside 10.0.0.0/8, so the summary route is not generated.

D. The summary route is not visible on this router, but it is visible on other OSPF routers in the same area.

Check answer

New Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to block the route to 192.168.2.2 from the routing table by using the configuration that is shown.

The route is still present in the routing table as an OSPF route. Which action blocks the route?

A. Use an extended access list instead of a standard access list.

B. Change sequence 10 in the route-map command from permit to deny.

C. Use a prefix list instead of an access list in the route map.

D. Add this statement to the route map: route-map RM-OSPF-DL deny 20.

Check answer

New Question 9:

What is a prerequisite for configuring BFD?

A. Jumbo frame support must be configured on the router that is using BFD.

B. All routers in the path between two BFD endpoints must have BFD enabled.

C. Cisco Express Forwarding must be enabled on all participating BFD endpoints.

D. To use BFD with BGP, the timers 3 9 command must first be configured in the BGP routing process.

Check answer

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. R2 is a route reflector, and R1 and R3 are route reflector clients. The route reflector learns the route to 172.16.25.0/24 from R1, but it does not advertise to R3. What is the reason the route is not advertised?

A. R2 does not have a route to the next hop, so R2 does not advertise the prefix to other clients.

B. Route reflector setup requires full IBGP mesh between the routers.

C. In route reflector setup, only classful prefixes are advertised to other clients.

D. In route reflector setups, prefixes are not advertised from one client to another.

Check answer

New Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to redistribute OSPF to BGP, but not all of the routes are redistributed. What is the reason for this issue?

A. By default, only internal routes and external type 1 routes are redistributed into BGP

B. Only classful networks are redistributed from OSPF to BGP

C. BGP convergence is slow, so the route will eventually be present in the BGP table

D. By default, only internal OSPF routes are redistributed into BGP

Check answer

New Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

In which circumstance does the BGP neighbor remain in the idle condition?

A. if prefixes are not received from the BGP peer

B. if prefixes reach the maximum limit

C. if a prefix list is applied in the inbound direction

D. if prefixes exceed the maximum limit

Check answer

New Question 13:

Which attribute eliminates LFAs that belong to protected paths in situations where links in a network are connected through a common fiber?

A. Shared Risk Link Group (SRLG)-disjoint

B. linecard-disjoint

C. lowest-repair-path-metric

D. interface-disjoint

Check answer

New Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is troubleshooting BGP on a device but discovers that the clock on the device does not correspond to the time stamp of the log entries. Which action ensures consistency between the two times?

A. Configure the service timestamps log uptime command in global configuration mode.

B. Configure the logging clock synchronize command in global configuration mode.

C. Configure the service timestamps log datetime localtime command in global configuration mode.

D. Make sure that the clock on the device is synchronized with an NTP server.

Check answer

New Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of applying this configuration?

A. The router can form BGP neighborships with any other device.

B. The router cannot form BGP neighborships with any other device.

C. The router cannot form BGP neighborships with any device that is matched by the access list named “BGP”.

D. The router can form BGP neighborships with any device that is matched by the access list named “BGP”.

Check answer

Publish the answer:

Questions:Answers:Explain:
Q1B
Q2E
Q3A
Q4C
Q5A
Q6CThe AD of the static route is manually configured to 130 which is higher than the AD of the OSPF router which is 110.
Q7CThe summary address is only used to create aggregate addresses for OSPF at an autonomous system boundary.

It means this command should only be used on the ASBR when you are trying to summarize externally redistributed routes from another protocol domain or you have an NSSA area. But a requirement to create a summarized route is:

The ASBR compares the summary route\’s range of addresses with all routes redistributed into OSPF on that ASBR to find any subordinate subnets (subnets that sit inside the summary route range). If at least one subordinate subnet exists, the ASBR advertises the summary route.
Q8B
Q9C
Q10A
Q11DIf you configure the redistribution of OSPF into BGP without keywords, only OSPF intra-area and inter-area routes are redistributed into BGP, by default.

You can redistribute both internal and external (type-1 and type-2) OSPF routes via this command:

Router(config-router)#redistribute ospf 1 match internal external 1 external 2
Q12D
Q13A
Q14CThe Time zone needs to be changed. default it UTC Central European Time (CET)
Q15C

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The latest update of Cisco 350-401 exam questions and answers and official exam information tips

QUESTION 1:

Which two operations are valid for RESTCONF? (Choose two.)

A. HEAD
B. REMOVE
C. PULL
D. PATCH
E. ADD
F. PUSH

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/166/b_166_programmability_cg/b_166_programmability_cg_chapter_01011.html

QUESTION 2:

What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution?

A. to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships
B. to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric
C. to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD-Access fabric.
D. to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN?

A. ISE server
B. local WLC
C. RADIUS server
D. anchor WLC

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4:

How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?

A. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions correct
B. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table
C. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices
D. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing before they are sent to the FIB

Correct Answer: A

The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table?CEF uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions.

The FIB is conceptually similar to a routing table or information base. It maintains a mirror image of the forwarding information contained in the IP routing table. When routing or topology changes occur in the network, the IP routing table is updated, and these changes are reflected in the FIB. The FIB maintains next-hop address information based on the information in the IP routing table.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/routers/12000-seriesrouters/47321-ciscoef.html

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the OPSF debug output is true?

A. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent to received on interface Fa0/1.
B. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on all interfaces.
C. The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent received on interface Fa0/1.
D. The output displays OSPF hello and LSACK messages which router R1 has sent or received.

Correct Answer: C

This combination of commands is known as “Conditional debug” and will filter the debug output based on your conditions. Each condition added, will behave like an `And\\’ operator in Boolean logic. Some examples of the “debug IP OSPF hello” are shown below:

QUESTION 6:

Which standard access control entry permits from odd-numbered hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet?

A. Permit 10.0.0.0.0.0.0.1
B. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.0
C. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.254
D. Permit 10.0.0.0.255.255.255.254

Correct Answer: C

Remember, for the wildcard mask, 1s are I DON\\’T CARE, and 0s are I CARE. So now let\\’s analyze a simple ACL:

access-list 1 permit 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255

Two first octets are all 0\\’s meaning that we care about the network 172.23.x.x. The third octet of the wildcard mask, 15 (0000 1111 in binary), means that we care about the first 4 bits but don\\’t care about the last 4 bits so we allow the third octet in the form of 0001xxxx (minimum:00010000 = 16; maximum: 0001111 = 31).

The fourth octet is 255 (all 1 bits) which means I don\\’t care. Therefore network 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255 ranges from 172.23.16.0 to 172.23.31.255. Now let\\’s consider the wildcard mask of 0.0.0.254 (four-octet: 254 = 1111 1110) which means we only care about the last bit.

Therefore if the last bit of the IP address is a “1” (0000 0001) then only odd numbers are allowed.

If the last bit of the IP address is a “0” (0000 0000) then only even numbers are allowed.
Note: In binary, odd numbers always end with a “1” while even numbers always end with a “0”.

Therefore in this question, only the statement “permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.254” will allow all odd-numbered
hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet.

QUESTION 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the network. Which COS to the DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly?

A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46
B. COS of 7 to DSCP 48
C. COS of 6 to DSCP 46
D. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure.
Which design facilitates migration from a traditional campus design to a programmable fabric design?

A. Layer 2 access
B. three-tier
C. two-tier
D. routed access

Correct Answer: C

Intent-based networking (IBN) transforms a hardware-centric, manual network into a controller-led network that captures business intent and translates it into policies that can be automated and applied consistently across the network. The goal is for the network to continuously monitor and adjust network performance to help assure desired business outcomes. IBN builds on software-defined networking (SDN). SDN usually uses spine-leaf architecture, which is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves (such as an access layer).

QUESTION 9:

An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.)

A. Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic
B. Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible
C. Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate
D. Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it
E. Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible

Correct Answer: CE

Traffic policing propagates bursts. When the traffic rate reaches the configured maximum rate (or committed information rate), excess traffic is dropped (or remarked). The result is an output rate that appears as a saw-tooth with crests and troughs.

Unlike traffic shaping, traffic policing does not cause delays. Classification (which includes traffic policing, traffic shaping, and queuing techniques) should take place at the network edge. It is recommended that classification occur as close to the source of the traffic as possible. Also according to this Cisco link, “policing traffic as close to the source as possible”.

QUESTION 10:

To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect?

A. Auto
B. Active
C. On
D. Passive

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-mobility-documents/lag-link-aggregation/ta-p/3128669

QUESTION 11:

Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12:

On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric?

A. LISP
B. IS-IS
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. VXLAN

Correct Answer: D

The tunneling technology used for the fabric data plane is based on Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN). VXLAN encapsulation is UDP-based, meaning that it can be forwarded by any IP-based network (legacy or third party) and creates the overlay network for the SD-Access fabric. Although LISP is the control plane for the SD-Access fabric, it does not use LISP data encapsulation for the data plane; instead, it uses VXLAN encapsulation because it is capable of encapsulating the original Ethernet header to perform MAC-in-IP encapsulation, while LISP does not.

Using VXLAN
allows the SD-Access fabric to support Layer 2 and Layer 3 virtual topologies (overlays) and the ability to operate over any IP-based network with built-in network segmentation (VRF instance/VN) and built-in group-based policy.

Reference:
CCNP and CCIE Enterprise Core ENCOR 350-401 Official Cert Guide

QUESTION 13:

Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall?

A. Passive
B. Tap
C. Inline tap
D. Inline

Correct Answer: D

Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) provides six interface modes which are: Routed, Switched, Inline Pair, Inline Pair with Tap, Passive, and Passive (ERSPAN). When Inline Pair Mode is in use, packets can be blocked since they are processed inline When you use Inline Pair mode, the packet goes mainly through the FTD Snort engine When Tap Mode is enabled, a copy of the packet is inspected and dropped internally while the actual traffic goes through FTD unmodified
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-ngfw/200924-configuringfirepower-threat-defenseint.html

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[Updated 2022] Latest Cisco 350-201 dumps exam questions Free sharing

Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. A threat actor behind a single computer exploited a cloud-based application by sending multiple concurrent API requests. These requests made the application unresponsive. Which solution protects the application from being overloaded and ensures more equitable application access across the end-user community?

A. Limit the number of API calls that a single client is allowed to make

B. Add restrictions on the edge router on how often a single client can access the API

C. Reduce the amount of data that can be fetched from the total pool of active clients that call the API

D. Increase the application cache of the total pool of active clients that call the API

Correct Answer: A

 

Question 2:

A threat actor attacked an organization\’s Active Directory server from a remote location, and in a thirty-minute timeframe, stole the password for the administrator account and attempted to access 3 company servers. The threat actor successfully accessed the first server that contained sales data, but no files were downloaded. A second server was also accessed that contained marketing information and 11 files were downloaded. When the threat actor accessed the third server that contained corporate financial data, the session was disconnected, and the administrator\’s account was disabled.

Which activity triggered the behavior analytics tool?

A. accessing the Active Directory server

B. accessing the server with financial data

C. accessing multiple servers

D. downloading more than 10 files

Correct Answer: C

 

Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst needs to investigate a security incident involving several suspicious connections with a possible attacker. Which tool should the analyst use to identify the source IP of the offender?

A. packet sniffer

B. malware analysis

C. SIEM

D. firewall manager

Correct Answer: A

 

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop has automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine for further analysis. What should be concluded from this report?

A. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

B. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

C. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

D. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are low and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

Correct Answer: C

 

Question 5:

The physical security department received a report that an unauthorized person followed an authorized individual to enter a secured premises. The incident was documented and given to a security specialist to analyze. Which step should be taken at this stage?

A. Determine the assets to which the attacker has access

B. Identify assets the attacker handled or acquired

C. Change access controls to high-risk assets in the enterprise

D. Identify the movement of the attacker in the enterprise

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1:

cisco 350-201 q1

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop has automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine for further analysis. What should be concluded from this report?

A. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

B. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

C. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

D. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are low and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

Refer to the exhibit. Which command was executed in PowerShell to generate this log?cisco 350-201 q2

A. Get-EventLog -LogName*
B. Get-EventLog -List
C. Get-WinEvent -ListLog* -ComputerName localhost
D. Get-WinEvent -ListLog*

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://lists.xymon.com/archive/2019-March/046125.html

QUESTION 3:

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the threat from the left onto the scenario that introduces the threat on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

cisco 350-201 q3

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q3-1

QUESTION 4:

A SOC analyst is notified by the network monitoring tool that there are unusual types of internal traffic on the IP subnet 103.861.2117.0/24. The analyst discovers unexplained encrypted data files on a computer system that belongs on that specific subnet.
What is the cause of the issue?

A. DDoS attack
B. phishing attack
C. virus outbreak
D. malware outbreak

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit. Which asset has the highest risk value?cisco 350-201 q5

A. servers
B. website
C. payment process
D. secretary workstation

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

What is the principle of Infrastructure as Code?

A. System maintenance is delegated to software systems
B. Comprehensive initial designs support robust systems
C. Scripts and manual configurations work together to ensure repeatable routines
D. System downtime is grouped and scheduled across the infrastructure

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7:

An analyst is alerted to a malicious file hash. After analysis, the analyst determined that an internal workstation is communicating over port 80 with an external server and that the file hash is associated with Duqu malware. Which tactics, techniques, and procedures align with this analysis?

A. Command and Control, Application Layer Protocol, Duqu
B. Discovery, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
C. Lateral Movement, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
D. Discovery, System Network Configuration Discovery, Duqu

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

Refer to the exhibit. For IP 192.168.1.209, what are the risk level, activity, and next step?cisco 350-201 q8

A. high-risk level, anomalous periodic communication, quarantine with antivirus
B. critical risk level, malicious server IP, run in a sandboxed environment
C. critical risk level, data exfiltration, isolate the device
D. high-risk level, malicious host, investigate further

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

DRAG-DROPcisco 350-201 q9

Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Secure Network Analytics (Stealthwatch) console alerted with “New Malware Server Discovered” and the IOC indicates communication from an end-user desktop to a Zeus CandC Server. Drag and drop the actions that the analyst should take from the left into the order on the right to investigate and remediate this IOC.

Select and Place: cisco 350-201 q9-1

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q9-2

QUESTION 10:
cisco 350-201 q10

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine. What should be concluded from this report?

A. Threat scores are high, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified
B. Threat scores are low, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified
C. Threat scores are high, malicious activity is detected, but files have not been modified
D. Threat scores are low and no malicious file activity is detected

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11:

DRAG-DROP
An organization lost connectivity to critical servers, and users cannot access business applications and internal websites. An engineer checks the network devices to investigate the outage and determines that all devices are functioning. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to continue investigating this issue. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:cisco 350-201 q11

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q11-1

QUESTION 12:

An employee abused PowerShell commands and script interpreters, which lead to an indicator of compromise (IOC) trigger. The IOC event shows that a known malicious file has been executed, and there is an increased likelihood of a breach.
Which indicator generated this IOC event?

A. ExecutedMalware.ioc
B. Crossrider.ioc
C. ConnectToSuspiciousDomain.ioc
D. W32 AccesschkUtility.ioc

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13:

A threat actor used a phishing email to deliver a file with an embedded macro. The file was opened, and a remote code execution attack occurred in a company\\’s infrastructure. Which steps should an engineer take at the recovery stage?

A. Determine the systems involved and deploy available patches
B. Analyze event logs and restrict network access
C. Review access lists and require users to increase password complexity
D. Identify the attack vector and update the IDS signature list

Correct Answer: B

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TypeNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam code
Free15Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR)350-701
QUESTION 1:

Which two features of Cisco DNA Center are used in a Software Defined Network solution? (Choose two)

A. accounting

B. assurance

C. automation

D. authentication

E. encryption

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/dna-center/nb-06-cisco-dna-center-aag-cte-en.html

QUESTION 2:

A network engineer is configuring DMVPN and entered the crypto is amp key cisc0380739941 address 0.0.0.0 command on host A The tunnel is not being established to host B.

What action is needed to authenticate the VPN?

A. Enter the same command on host B.

B. Enter the command with a different password on host B.

C. Change isakmp to ikev2 in the command on host A.

D. Change the password on host A to the default password.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

Which two features of Cisco Email Security can protect your organization against email threats? (Choose two)

A. Time-based one-time passwords

B. Data loss prevention

C. Heuristic-based filtering

D. Geolocation-based filtering

E. NetFlow

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa11-0/user_guide_fs/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_11_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_00.html

QUESTION 4:
latest 350-701 dumps questions 4

Refer to the exhibit. When configuring a remote access VPN solution terminating on the Cisco ASA, an administrator would like to utilize an external token authentication mechanism in conjunction with AAA authentication using machine certificates. Which configuration item must be modified to allow this?

A. Group Policy

B. Method

C. SAML Server

D. DHCP Servers

Correct Answer: B

In order to use AAA along with an external token authentication mechanism, set the “Method” as “Both” in the Authentication.

QUESTION 5:

What are two rootkit types? (Choose two)

A. registry

B. virtual

C. bootloader

D. user mode

E. buffer mode

Correct Answer: CD

The term rootkit\\' originally comes from the Unix world, where the wordroot\’ is used to describe a user with the highest possible level of access privileges, similar to a Administrator\\' in Windows. The wordkit\’ refers to thesoftware that grants root-level access to the machine. Put the two together and you get `rootkit\’, a program that gives someone? with legitimate or malicious intentions? privileged access to a computer. There are four main types of rootkits: Kernel rootkits, User mode rootkits, Bootloader rootkits, Memory rootkits

QUESTION 6:

Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two)

A. AES is less secure than 3DES.

B. AES is more secure than 3DES.

C. AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.

D. AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.

E. AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7:

A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface.

What is causing this problem?

A. DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.

B. The ip arp inspection limit command is applied on all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.

C. Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs

D. The no ip arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces

Correct Answer: D

Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network. It intercepts, logs, and discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings. This capability protects the network from certain man-in-the-middle attacks. After enabling DAI, all ports become untrusted ports.

QUESTION 8:

An engineer is configuring AMP for endpoints and wants to block certain files from executing. Which outbreak control method is used to accomplish this task?

A. device flow correlation

B. simple detections

C. application blocking list

D. advanced custom detections

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9:

A Cisco ESA network administrator has been tasked to use a newly installed service to help create policy based on the reputation verdict. During testing, it is discovered that the Cisco ESA is not dropping files that have an undetermined verdict.

What is causing this issue?

A. The policy was created to send a message to quarantine instead of drop

B. The file has a reputation score that is above the threshold

C. The file has a reputation score that is below the threshold

D. The policy was created to disable file analysis

Correct Answer: D

Maybe the “newly installed service” in this Qmentions about Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) can be used along with ESA. AMP allows superior protection across the attack continuum.+ File Reputation? captures a fingerprint of each file as it traverses the ESA and sends it to AMP\’s cloud-based intelligence network for a reputation verdict.

Given these results, you can automatically block malicious files and apply an administrator-defined policy.+ File Analysis? provides the ability to analyze unknown files that are traversing the ESA. A highly secure sandbox environment enables AMP to glean precise details about the file\’s behavior and to combine that data with detailed human and machine analysis to determine the file\’s threat level.

This disposition is then fed into AMP cloud-based intelligence network and used to dynamically update and expand the AMP cloud data set for enhanced protection

QUESTION 10:

A network engineer is deciding whether to use stateful or stateless failover when configuring two ASAs for high availability.

What is the connection status in both cases?

A. need to be re-established with stateful failover and preserved with stateless failover

B. preserved with stateful failover and need to be reestablished with stateless failover

C. preserved with both stateful and stateless failover

D. need to be re-established with both stateful and stateless failover

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11:

Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two)

A. Enable client-side scripts on a per-domain basis.

B. Incorporate contextual output encoding/escaping.

C. Disable cookie inspection in the HTML inspection engine.

D. Run untrusted HTML input through an HTML sanitization engine.

E. Same Site cookie attribute should not be used.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12:

Which type of encryption uses a public key and a private key?

A. Asymmetric

B. Symmetric

C. Linear

D. Nonlinear

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

Which two services must remain on-premises equipment when a hybrid email solution is deployed? (Choose two)

A. DDoS

B. antispam

C. antivirus

D. encryption

E. DLP

Correct Answer: DE

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/ces/overview_guide/Cisco_Cloud_Hyb
rid_Email_Security_Overview_Guide.pdf


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Latest updates Cisco 300-815 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A support engineer is troubleshooting a voice network. When conducting a search for call setup details related to calling
search space issues, which trace files should be investigated?
A. CallManager traces
B. CTI Manager traces
C. Cisco IP Manager Assistant
D. Call logs
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-815 q2

Calls incoming from the provider are not working through newly set up Cisco Unified Border Element. Provider
engineers get the 404 Not Found SIP message. Incoming calls are coming from the provider with called number
“222333444” and Cisco Unified Communications Manager is expecting the called number to be delivered as
“444333222”. The administrator already verified that the IP address of the Cisco Unified CM is set up correctly and there are no dial peers configured other than those shown in the exhibit. Which action must the administrator take to fix the
issue?
A. Change the destination-pattern on the outgoing dial peer to match “444333222”.
B. Set up translation-profile on the incoming dial peer to match incoming traffic.
C. Create specific matching for “222333444” on the incoming dial peer.
D. Fix the voice translation-rule to match specifically number “222333444” and change it to “444333222”.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which IOS command creates a SIP-enabled dial peer?
A. voice dial-peer 20 sip
B. dial-peer voice 20 voip
C. dial-peer voice 20 pots
D. dial peer voice 20 sip
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=664148andseqNum=6

 

QUESTION 4
An administrator discovers that employees are making unauthorized long-distance and international calls from loggedoff Extension Mobility phones when the authorized users are away from their desks Which two configurations should the
administrator configure in the Cisco UCM to avoid this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions from the calling search space of the physical phone.
B. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the physical phone\\’s
directory number.
C. Remove the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions from the calling search space of the device profile.
D. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the physical phone.
E. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the device profile
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 5
A user in location X dials an extension at location Y. The call travels through a QoS-enabled WAN network, but the user
experiences choppy or clipped audio. What is the cause of this issue?
A. missing Call Admission Control
B. codec mismatch
C. ptime mismatch
D. phone class of service issue
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-815 q6

Users report that when they dial the emergency number 9911 from any internal phone, it takes a long time to connect
with the emergency operator. Which action resolves this issue?
A. Adjust the service parameter T302 timet to the desired value.
B. Adjust the service parameter T204 timer to the desired value.
C. Check the Urgent Priority check box under 9.911 pattern.
D. Point the emergency pattern directly to the PSTN gateway.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
What is first preference condition matched in a SIP-enabled incoming dial peer?
A. incoming uri
B. target carrier-id
C. answer-address
D. incoming called-number
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip-voip/211306-InDepthExplanation-of-Cisco-IOS-and-IO.html#anc8

 

QUESTION 8
An engineer must route all SIP calls in the form of @example.com to the SIP trunk gateway corporate local. Which two
SIP route patterns can be used to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. [email protected]
B. *@example.com
C. gateway.corporate.local
D. example.com
E. *.*
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-815 q9

An administrator is troubleshooting a situation where a call placed from a phone registered to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager does not complete. The administrator wants to use the Dialed Number Analyzer on Cisco
Unified CM to check which translation pattern the call is matching. However, when logging in to Cisco Unified
Serviceability there is no option for Dialed Number Analyzer under the tool menu. Which two steps must be performed
to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Restart the subscriber
B. Activate the Cisco Extended Functions service.
C. Activate the Cisco CallManager service.
D. Activate the Cisco Dialed Number Analyzer service.
E. Activate the Cisco Dialed Number Analyzer Server service.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 10
A user reports when they press the services key they do not receive a user ID and password prompt to assign the
phone extension. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Create the default device profiles for all phone models that are used.
B. Subscribe the phone to the Cisco Extension Mobility service.
C. Create the end user and associate it to the device profile.
D. Assign the extension as a mobile extension.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Which configuration must an administrator perform to display Translation Pattern operations in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager SDL traces?
A. Enable the Detailed Call Analysis option under Enterprise Parameters for Unified CM.
B. Set up the Digit Analysis Complexity in Service Parameters for Cisco Unified CM to
TranslationAndAlternatePatternAnalysis.
C. Check the Translation Patterns Analysis check box in Micro Traces on the Cisco Unified CM Serviceability page.
D. By default, the Translation Patterns operations are printed in SDL traces, so no additional configuration is necessary.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/taking-sip-call-trace-on-ciscounified-cm-usingrtmt/ta-p/3161200

 

QUESTION 12
A customer is using a SIP trunk to route calls to ITSP to decrease the possibility of downtime, the customer invested in
a failover device How does the customer ensure reachability to ITSP, so that if one device on ITSP fails, the calls will be
routed to another device?
A. Enable transmit security status on the SIP security profile
B. Enable ANAT on the SIP profile.
C. Monitor the link using network management toots, and if it fails, manually change the routing to another working
device.
D. Enable SIP Option Ping on the SIP profile.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Configure Call Queuing in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Where do you set the maximum number of callers
in the queue?
A. in the telephony service configuration
B. in the queuing configuration
C. in Cisco Unified CM Enterprise Parameters
D. in Cisco Unified CM Service Parameters
Correct Answer: B
Reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communicationsmanagercallmanager/200453-Configure-CUCM-Native-Call-Queuing-Featu.html

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QUESTION 1
DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the functionalities from the left onto the correct target fields on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
Which configuration modifies Local Packet Transport Services hardware policies?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/crs/software/crs_r4-1/addr_serv/command/reference/b_ipaddr_cr41crs/b_ipaddr_cr41crs_chapter_0111.html#wp1754734006

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is preparing to implement a data plane security configuration. Which statement about this
configuration is true?
A. Router 2 is the router receiving the DDoS attack.
B. Router 1 must be configured with uRPF for the RTBH implementation to be effective.
C. Router 1 is the trigger router in an RTBH implementation.
D. Router 2 must configure a route to null 0 for network 192.168.1.0/24 for the RTBH implementation to be complete.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which three OSPF parameters must match before two devices can establish an OSPF adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. subnet mask
C. interface cost
D. process ID
E. area number
F. hello timer setting
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 5
Which statement about segment routing prefix segments is true?
A. It is the longest path to a node.
B. It is linked to an adjacency SID that is globally unique within the router.
C. It is linked to a prefix SID that is globally unique within the segment routing domain.
D. It requires using EIGRP to operate.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/segment-routing/configuration/guide/b-segrouting-cg-asr9k/b-seg-routing-cg-asr9k_chapter_010.pdf

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement supports QPPB implementation?
A. QPPB policies affect only egress traffic.
B. QoS policies rely exclusively on BGP attributes to manipulate traffic.
C. QoS policies are identified in the MPLS forwarding table.
D. QoS policies use BGP to gain full coverage on the network.
Correct Answer: B
The QoS Policy Propagation via BGP feature allows you to classify packets by IP precedence based on the Border
Gateway Protocol (BGP) Attributes like community lists, BGP autonomous system paths, and access lists.

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration prevents the OSPF neighbor from establishing?
A. default-metric
B. duplex
C. network statement
D. MTU
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What are two factors to consider when implementing NSR High Availability on an MPLS PE router? (Choose two.)
A. It consumes more memory and CPU resources than NSF
B. It operates normally without NSR support on the PE peers.
C. It requires all PE-CE sessions to support NSR
D. It requires routing protocol extensions
E. It cannot sync state information across redundant RPs
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is implementing a BGP routing policy. Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. All traffic that matches acl10 is allowed without any change to its local preference.
B. All traffic that matches acl10 is dropped without any change to its local preference.
C. If traffic matches acl10, it is allowed and its local preference is set to 300.
D. All traffic is assigned a local preference of 300 regardless of its destination.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A network engineer is configuring a BGP route policy for the SUBNET prefix set. Matching traffic must be dropped, and
other traffic must have its MED value set to 400 and community 4:400 added to the route. Which configuration must an
engineer apply?
A. router-policy CISCO if destination in SUBNET then drop
else
set med 400
set community (4:400) additive
endif
end-policy
end
B. router-policy CISCO if destination in SUBNET then
drop
endif
set med 400
if community matches any SUBNET then
set local-preference 400
set med 500
set community (4:400) additive
endif
end-policy
end
C. router-policy SUBNET if destination in SUBNET then
drop
endif
set med 400
set local-preference 400
if community matches any SUBNET then
set community (4:400)
endif
end-policy
end
D. router-policy SUBNET if destination in BGP then drop
else
set med 400
set community (4:400)
endif
end-policy
end
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator working for a service provider with an employee id: 1234:56:789 applied this
configuration to a router.
Which additional step should the engineer use to enable LDP?
A. Enable MPLS LDP on the interface.
B. Disable Cisco Express Forwarding globally.
C. Delete the static router ID.
D. Configure both keywords to enable LDP globally.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

A network operator must configure CSR1 interlaces GigabitEihernet2 and GigabitEthemet to rewrite VLAN tags 12 and
21 for traffic between R1 and R2 respectively. Which configurator accomplishes this task?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
Correct Answer: C
IF bridge domain on both interfaces are 10

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit. Router 1 was experiencing a DDoS attack that was traced to interface gigabitethernet0/1. Which
statement about this configuration is true?
A. Router 1 accepts all traffic that ingresses and egresses interface gigabitethernet0/1.
B. Router 1 drops all traffic that ingresses interface gigabitethernet0/1 that has a FIB entry that exits a different
interface.
C. Router 1 accepts source addresses that have a match in the FIB that indicates it is reachable through a real
interface.
D. Router 1 accepts source addresses on interface gigabitethernet0/1 that are private addresses.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nxos/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_urpf.html

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