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Cisco 200-301 Practice testing questions from Youtube

latest updated Cisco 200-301 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
A. 0
B. 110
C. 38443
D. 3184439
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q2

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with
IP address 10.20.20.1/24?lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q3

A. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1
255.255.255.0
B. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1
255.255.255.0
C. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
D. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q4-1

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to
interface FastEthernet 0/1?lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q5

A. DHCP client
B. access point
C. router
D. PC
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibitlead4pass 200-301 exam questions q6

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers
must be able to access the web server.

lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q6-1

Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
How can the Cisco Discovery Protocol be used?
A. to allow a switch to discover the devices that are connected to its ports
B. to determine the hardware platform of the device
C. to determine the IP addresses of connected Cisco devices
D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
A. 2000::/3
B. FC00::/7
C. FE80::/10
D. FF00::/8
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-301 exam questions q9

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2. The configuration failed to work as intended.
Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while
still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two.)
A. Add a “permit ip any any” statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.
B. Add a “permit ip any any” statement to the beginning of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.
C. The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2.
D. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101.
E. The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 10
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?
A. collision
B. CRC
C. runt
D. late collision
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
A. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
B. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
C. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
A. 172.9.0.0/16
B. 172.28.0.0/16
C. 192.0.0.0/8
D. 209.165.201.0/24
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be
allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior?
(Choose two.)
A. The ACL is empty
B. A matching permit statement is too broadly defined
C. The packets fail to match any permit statement
D. A matching deny statement is too high in the access list
E. A matching permit statement is too high in the access list
Correct Answer: BE

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Cisco 200-201 Practice testing questions from Youtube

latest updated Cisco 200-201 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which type of data collection requires the largest amount of storage space?
A. alert data
B. transaction data
C. session data
D. full packet capture
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
What does cyber attribution identity in an investigation?
A. cause of an attack
B. exploit of an attack
C. vulnerabilities exploited
D. threat actors of an attack
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3lead4pass 200-201 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. This request was sent to a web application server driven by a database.
Which type of web server attack is represented?
A. parameter manipulation
B. heap memory corruption
C. command injection
D. blind SQL injection
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
What is the benefit of agent-based protection when compared to agentless protection?
A. It lowers maintenance costs
B. It provides a centralized platform
C. It collects and detects all traffic locally
D. It manages numerous devices simultaneously
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
What is the difference between statistical detection and rule-based detection models?
A. Rule-based detection involves the collection of data in relation to the behavior of legitimate users over a period of
time
B. Statistical detection defines legitimate data of users over a period of time and rule-based detection defines it on an
IF/THEN basis
C. Statistical detection involves the evaluation of an object on its intended actions before it executes that behavior
D. Rule-based detection defines legitimate data of users over a period of time and statistical detection defines it on an
IF/THEN basis
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6lead4pass 200-201 exam questions q6

Refer to the exhibit. What information is depicted?
A. IIS data
B. NetFlow data
C. network discovery event
D. IPS event data
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
How does an attacker observe network traffic exchanged between two users?
A. port scanning
B. man-in-the-middle
C. command injection
D. denial of service
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8lead4pass 200-201 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. What is the expected result when the “Allow subdissector to reassemble TCP streams” feature is
enabled?
A. insert TCP subdissectors
B. extract a file from a packet capture
C. disable TCP streams
D. unfragment TCP
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation and traffic mirroring?
A. Inline inspection acts on the original traffic data flow
B. Traffic mirroring passes live traffic to a tool for blocking
C. Traffic mirroring inspects live traffic for analysis and mitigation
D. Inline traffic copies packets for analysis and security
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
What causes events on a Windows system to show Event Code 4625 in the log messages?
A. The system detected an XSS attack
B. Someone is trying a brute force attack on the network
C. Another device is gaining root access to the system
D. A privileged user successfully logged into the system
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?
A. SSL interception
B. packet header size
C. signature detection time
D. encryption
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12lead4pass 200-201 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. Which application protocol is in this PCAP file?
A. SSH
B. TCP
C. TLS
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its
integrity?
A. examination
B. investigation
C. collection
D. reporting
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What is the benefit of the application-aware firewall?
A. It blocks traffic by MAC address
B. It blocks traffic by MTU of the packet.
C. It blocks traffic by application.
D. It blocks encrypted traffic
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_data_zbf/configuration/xe-16-9/sec-data-zbf-xe-16-9-book/secdata-zbf-xe-16-9-book_chapter_0100100.html

 

QUESTION 2
When redistribution is configured between OMP and BGP at two Data Center sites that have Direct Connection interlink,
which step avoids learning the same routes on WAN Edge routers of the DCs from LAN?
A. Define different VRFs on both DCs
B. Set the same overlay AS on both DC WAN Edge routers
C. Set down-bit on Edge routers on DC1
D. Set OMP admin distance lower than BGP admin distance
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which on-the-box security feature k supported by the Cisco ISR 4451 SD-WAN device and not on vEdge?
A. Cloud Express service
B. Enterprise Firewall with Application Awareness
C. reverse proxy
D. IPsec/GRE cloud proxy
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Which logs verify when a device was upgraded?
A. Audit
B. Email
C. ACL
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which template configures the out-of-band management VPN?lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q5 lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q5-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
On which device Is a service FW address configured to Insert firewall service at the hub?
A. vEdge at the branch
B. vSmart at the hub
C. vEdge at the hub
D. vSmart at the branch
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/Software_Features/Release_18.4/07Policy_Applications/02Service_Chaining/Service_Chaining_Configuration_Examples

 

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco SD-WAN WAN Edge platform supports LTE and Wi-Fi?
A. vEdge2000
B. ASR1001
C. CSR 1000v
D. ISR 1101
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the vManage policy configuration procedures from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-415 exam questions q8-1

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/vedge/policies-book/datapolicies.html

 

QUESTION 9
Which alarm setting is configured to monitor serious events that affect but do not shut down, the operation of a network
function?
A. Minor
B. Major
C. Medium
D. Critical
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/vManage_HowTos/Troubleshooting/Monitor_Alarms

 

QUESTION 10
A policy is created to influence routing in the network using a group of prefixes. What policy application will achieve this goal when applied to a site list?
A. Vpn-membership policy
B. Control-policy
C. cflowd-template
D. App-route policy
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
What are the two advantages of deploying cloud-based Cisco SD-WAN controllers? (Choose two.)
A. centralized control and data plane
B. distributed authentication policies
C. management of SLA
D. infrastructure as a service
E. centralized raid storage of data
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
Which value is verified in the certificates to confirm the identity of the physical WAN Edge device?
A. Serial Number
B. OTP
C. System-IP
D. Chassis-ID
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which command displays BFD session summary information per TLOC on vEdge routers?
A. show bfd history
B. show bfd summary
C. show BFD sessions
D. show BFD tloc-summary-list
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/command/sdwan-cr-book/sdwan-cr-book_chapter_0100.html

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the SNMP attributes in Cisco IOS devices from the left onto the correct SNMPv2c or SNMPV3 categories
on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco VPN technology can use the multipoint tunnel, resulting in a single GRE tunnel interface on the hub, to support
multiple connections from multiple spoke devices?
A. DMVPN
B. GETVPN
C. Cisco Easy VPN
D. FlexVPN
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which next hop is going to be used for 172.17.1.0/24?lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q3

A. 10.0.0.1
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 10.0.0.2
D. 192.168.3.2
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which label operations are performed by a label edge router?
A. SWAP and POP
B. SWAP and PUSH
C. PUSH and PHP
D. PUSH and POP
Correct Answer: D
A label edge router (LER, also known as edge LSR) is a router that operates at the edge of an MPLS network and acts
as the entry and exit points for the network. LERs push an MPLS label onto an incoming packet and pop it off an
outgoing
packet.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nxos/mpls/configuration/guide/mpls_cg/mp_mpls_overview.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the OSPF adjacency states from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q5-1 lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q5-2

Down This is the first OSPF neighbor state. It means that no information (hellos) has been received from this neighbor,
but hello packets can still be sent to the neighbor in this state. During the fully adjacent neighbor state, if a router
doesn\\’t receive a hello packet from a neighbor within the Router Dead Interval time (RouterDeadInterval =
4*HelloInterval by default) or if the manually configured neighbor is being removed from the configuration, then the
neighbor state changes from Full to Down.
Attempt This state is only valid for manually configured neighbors in an NBMA environment. In an Attempt state, the router
sends unicast hello packets every poll interval to the neighbor, from which hellos have not been received within the
dead interval. Init This state specifies that the router has received a hello packet from its neighbor, but the receiving
router\\’s ID was not included in the Hello packet. When a router receives a hello packet from a neighbor, it should list
the sender\\’s router ID in its hello packet as an acknowledgment that it received a valid hello packet.
2-Way This state designates that bi-directional communication has been established between two routers. Bi-directional
means that each router has seen the other\\’s hello packet. This state is attained when the router receiving the hello
packet sees its own Router ID within the received hello packet\\’s neighbor field. At this state, a router decides whether
to become adjacent to this neighbor. On broadcast media and non-broadcast multiaccess networks, a router becomes
full only with the designated router (DR) and the backup designated router (BDR); it stays in the 2-way state with all
other neighbors. On Point-to-point and Point-to-multipoint networks, a router becomes full with all connected routers. At
the end of this stage, the DR and BDR for broadcast and non-broadcast multiaccess networks are elected. For more
information on the DR election process, refer to DR Election. Note: Receiving a Database Descriptor (DBD) packet from
a neighbor in the init state will also cause a transition to a 2-way state.
Exstart Once the DR and BDR are elected, the actual process of exchanging link-state information can start between
the routers and their DR and BDR. (ie. Shared or NBMA networks). In this state, the routers and their DR and BDR
establish a master-slave relationship and choose the initial sequence number for adjacency formation. The router with
the higher router ID becomes the master and starts the exchange, and as such, is the only router that can increment the
sequence number. Note that one would logically conclude that the DR/BDR with the highest router ID will become the
master during this process of master-slave relation. Remember that the DR/BDR election might be purely by virtue of a
higher priority configured on the router instead of the highest router ID. Thus, it is possible that DR plays the role of a slave.
And also note that the master/slave election is on a per-neighbor basis.
Exchange In the exchange state, OSPF routers exchange database descriptor (DBD) packets. Database descriptors
contain link-state advertisement (LSA) headers only and describe the contents of the entire link-state database. Each
DBD packet has a sequence number that can be incremented only by the master which is explicitly acknowledged by the slave. Routers also send link-state request packets and link-state update packets (which contain the entire LSA) in this
state. The contents of the DBD received are compared to the information contained in the routers link-state database to
check if new or more current link-state information is available with the neighbor.
Loading In this state, the actual exchange of link-state information occurs. Based on the information provided by the
DBDs, routers send link-state request packets. The neighbor then provides the requested link-state information in link state update packets. During the adjacency, if a router receives an outdated or missing LSA, it requests that LSA by
sending a link-state request packet. All link-state update packets are acknowledged.
Full In this state, routers are fully adjacent to each other. All the router and network LSAs are exchanged and the
routers\\’ databases are fully synchronized. Full is the normal state for an OSPF router. If a router is stuck in another
state, it is an indication that there are problems in forming adjacencies. The only exception to this is the 2-way state,
which is normal in a broadcast network. Routers achieve the FULL state with their DR and BDR in NBMA/broadcast
media and FULL state with every neighbor in the remaining media such as point-to-point and point-to-multipoint. Note:
The DR and BDR that achieve a FULL state with every router on the segment will display FULL/BROTHER when you
enter the show IP OSPF neighbor command on either a DR or BDR. This simply means that the neighbor is not a DR or
BDR, but since the router on which the command was entered is either a DR or BDR, this shows the neighbor as
FULL/BROTHER.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html
+
Each router compares the DBD packets that were received from the other router: Exchange
+
Routers exchange information with other routers in the multiaccess network: Exstart
+
The neighboring router requests the other routers to send missing entries: Loading
+
The network has already elected a DR and a backup BDR: 2-way
+
The OSPF router ID of the receiving router was not contained in the hello message: Init
+
No hellos have been received from a neighbor router: Down
When OSPF adjacency is formed, a router goes through several state changes before it becomes fully adjacent with its
neighbor.
The states are Down -> Attempt (optional) -> Init -> 2-Way -> Exstart -> Exchange -> Loading -> Full. Short descriptions
about these states are listed below:
Down: no information (hellos) has been received from this neighbor. Attempt: only valid for manually configured
neighbors in an NBMA environment. In Attempt state, the router sends unicast hello packets every poll interval to the
neighbor,
from which hellos have not been received within the dead interval.
Init: specifies that the router has received a hello packet from its neighbor, but the receiving router\\’s ID was not
included in the hello packet
2-Way: indicates bi-directional communication has been established between two routers. Extract: Once the DR and
BDR is elected, the actual process of exchanging link-state information can start between the routers and their DR
and
BDR.
Exchange: OSPF routers exchange and compare database descriptor (DBD) packets Loading: In this state, the actual
exchange of link-state information occurs. Outdated or missing entries are also requested to be resent.
Full: routers are fully adjacent with each other
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080093f0e.shtml
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer executes the show ipv6 OSPF database command and is presented with the
output that is shown. Which flooding scope is referenced in the link-state type?lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q6

A. link-local
B. area
C. As (OSPF domain)
D. reserved
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. During troubleshooting, it was discovered that the device is not reachable using a secure web
browser. What is needed to fix the problem?
A. permit TCP port 443
B. permit UDP port 465
C. permit TCP port 465
D. permit TCP port 22
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. In which circumstance does the BGP neighbor remain in the idle condition?
A. if prefixes are not received from the BGP peer
B. if prefixes reach the maximum limit
C. if a prefix list is applied in the inbound direction
D. if prefixes exceed the maximum limit
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to block the route to 192.168.2.2 from the routing table by using the
configuration that is shown. The route is still present in the routing table as an OSPF route. Which action blocks the
route?lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q9

A. Use an extended access list instead of a standard access list.
B. Change sequence 10 in the route-map command from permit to deny.
C. Use a prefix-list instead of an access list in the route map.
D. Add this statement to the route map: route-map RM-OSPF-DL denies 20.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
While working with software images, an engineer observes that Cisco DNA Center cannot upload its software image
directly from the device. Why is the image not uploading?
A. The device must be resynced to Cisco DNA Center.
B. The software image for the device is in install mode.
C. The device has lost connectivity to Cisco DNA Center.
D. The software image for the device is in bundle mode
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-and/management/dna-center/1-2-10/user_guide/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_1_2_10/b_dnac_ug_1_2_10_chapter_0100.html

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q11

A company is evaluating multiple network management system tools. Trending graphs generated by SNMP data are
returned by the NMS and appear to have multiple gaps. While troubleshooting the issue, an engineer noticed the
relevant output.
What solves the gaps in the graphs?
A. Remove the exceed-rate command in the class map.
B. Remove the class-map NMS from being part of control plane policing.
C. Configure the CIR rate to a lower value that accommodates all the NMS tools
D. Separate the NMS class-map into multiple class maps based on the specific protocols with appropriate CoPP actions
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/copp_best_practices

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the following output:
Router#show ip nhrp detail
1.1.2/8 via 10.2.1.2, Tunnel1 created 00:00:12, expire 01:59:47 TypE. dynamic, Flags: authoritative unique nat
registered used NBMA address:
10.12.1.2
What does the authoritative flag mean in regards to the NHRP information?
A. It was obtained directly from the next-hop server.
B. Data packets are process switches for this mapping entry.
C. NHRP mapping is for networks that are local to this router.
D. The mapping entry was created in response to an NHRP registration request.
E. The NHRP mapping entry cannot be overwritten
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Drag and drop the operations from the left onto the locations where the operations are performed on the right. Drag
each definition on the left to the matching term on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q13

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-410 exam questions q13-1

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Latest updates Cisco 500-450 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which tool is available to expand the size of Cisco Unified ICM databases?
A. Microsoft SQL Studio
B. DBExpand
C. database sizing utility
D. ICMDBA
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which batch script can be used to view VXML application states and port count for a Cisco Unified CVP VXML server?
A. getVersions.bat
B. status.bat
C. updateApp.bat
D. displayApp.bat
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
What must be enabled when configuring voice gateways to support SIP dialers?
A. 100rel
B. signaling forward unconditional
C. 200rel
D. signaling forward 100
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 500-450 exam questions q4

In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise 10.0 Outbound Option with SIP Dialer, you check the status of the Dialer
process from Diagnostic Framework Portico. What does the circled message “R” represent?
A. customer instance name
B. telephony port status
C. configured ports
D. ready ports
E. reserved ports
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which three objects are created by the Domain Manager tool in the Cisco Unified ICM? (Choose three.)
A. ICM Organizational Unit
B. ICM facility
C. ICM User Group policy
D. ICM Security policy
E. ICM instance
F. ICM agent users
Correct Answer: ABE

 

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum number of agents that can be configured within Cisco Packaged Contact Center Enterprise up to
release 10.5?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 2000
D. 6000
E. 76,000
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
When performing an upgrade to Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, which components do not need to be
upgraded together during the same maintenance window?
A. Cisco Unified ICM call router and logger
B. Cisco Unified ICM call router and administrative workstation
C. Cisco Unified ICM call router and peripheral gateway
D. administrative workstation and HDS-DDS
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which statement about administrative scripts in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution is true?
A. Administrative scripts can run more than one time per second.
B. Administrative scripts must be associated with a call type.
C. Administrative scripts can use a DB Lookup node.
D. Administrative scripts can use an ICM Gateway node.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable?
A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could
increment from 151191 to 151192.
B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could advance
from “Monday” to “Tuesday”.
C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example: at midnight it would
reset to zero.
D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call.
E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution with SIP Dialer, which option lists the correct order to set up the
components (assuming the agent peripheral gateway host already exists)?
A. configure media routing peripheral gateway, dialer; install media routing peripheral gateway, dialer
B. configure dialer, port map, media routing peripheral gateway; install dialer, media routing peripheral gateway
C. install dialer, media routing peripheral gateway; configure dialer, port map, media routing peripheral gateway
D. install media routing peripheral gateway, dialer; configure media routing peripheral gateway, dialer
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 500-450 exam questions q11

The Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal post-call survey is enabled on OAMP. Which option describes what the survey
Does the dialed number pattern represent?
A. dial-peer configured for survey DN
B. dialed number configured for UCCE scripts
C. route pattern configured for survey DN
D. dial-peer configured for survey DN and dialed number configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise scripts
E. dial-peer and route pattern configured for survey DN and dialed number configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center
Enterprise scripts
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
In the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution, which process is responsible for peer-to-peer synchronization?
A. ccagent
B. MDS
C. router
D. OPC
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
When configuring the Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Courtesy Callback feature in the ingress and VXML gateway,
which configuration is needed to ensure that SIP is set up to forward SIP INFO messaging?
A. signaling sip forward unconditional
B. signaling forward conditional
C. signaling forward unconditional
D. signaling forward unconditional sip info
E. signaling forward conditional sip info
Correct Answer: C

 

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Latest updates Cisco 500-440 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Studio scripts are allowed to be modified for the Courtesy Callback
feature?
A. BillingQueue, Callback Engine, CallbackEntry, CallbackQueue, CallbackWait
B. Billing, Callback Engine, CallbackEntry, CallbackQueue, CallbackWait
C. BillingQueue, Callback Engine, CallbackEntry, CallbackBilling, CallbackWait
D. BillingQueue, CallbackEntry, CallbackWait
E. BillingQueue, Callback Engine, CallbackEntry
F. Billing, CallbackEntry, CallbackWait
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement about using agent targeting rules in Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is true?
A. Agent device targets must be created for each phone that is used by an agent.
B. Agent labels must be created for each routing client that can route calls to an agent.
C. Agent extensions can be defined as a range, without having to build each device target.
D. Agent targeting rules are not allowed with translation routes.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
The JTAPI communications between the Cisco Unified Communication Manager cluster and Cisco Unified Contact
Center Enterprise includes three distinct types of messaging. Which two options are those messages? (Choose two.)
A. devise and call monitoring
B. SIP call control messages
C. service control
D. single sign-on messages
E. routing control (Cisco Unified CM cluster request instructions from Cisco Unified CCE)
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 4
A customer has a remote site with 100 agents, and the remote site only has SRST for E.911. 50% of the supervisors are
located at HQ where the data center is. The agents to supervisor ratio is 10%. The customer requires that supervisors
from any remote site can record and silent monitor active calls. With BW design consideration, how many minimum RTP
streams are needed between the data center and agent remote sites?
A. 300 RTP streams
B. 150 RTP streams
C. 110 RTP streams
D. 120 RTP streams
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, primary and secondary nodes can be installed on separate domains. Which two
requirements must be met for the pair to work properly? (Choose two.)
A. Each Cisco Finesse server should be able to perform a DNS lookup of the other server using a fully qualified domain
name.
B. Primary and secondary Cisco Finesse servers should only communicate with IP addresses.
C. All Cisco Finesse clients should be able to perform DNS lookups of the Cisco Finesse servers using the FQDN.
D. All Cisco Finesse clients should connect to the server with IP address.
E. All Cisco Finesse clients should be local to the Cisco Finesse servers.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 6
Which three statements about the high availability of the Cisco Unified Intelligent Contact Management central controller are
valid? (Choose three.)
A. If one ICM call router of a duplex pair of Cisco Unified ICM call routers fails, the surviving ICM call router recognizes
the failure when it receives no response to heartbeats over the private LAN.
B. During Cisco Unified ICM call router failover processing, calls in progress in Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal are
disconnected, but all new calls are processed successfully.
C. If ICM Logger Side A fails, the impact of call processing is limited to ICM call router side A.
D. If ICM Logger Side A fails, router side B cannot send historical info to ICM Logger side A and is limited to ICM Logger
side B.
E. There is no impact on call processing during a Cisco Unified ICM Logger failure.
F. If the private LAN fails, the peripheral gateways are used to help determine the active call router side of the duplex
pair.
G. If ICM Logger Side B fails, the ICM Router side B cannot send real-time and historical info to logger side A.
Correct Answer: AEF

 

QUESTION 7
Erlang calculations are used to size contact center resources. Which two resources are sized by using Erlang-B?
(Choose two.)
A. reporting ports
B. estimated wait times
C. PSTN gateway trunks
D. agents
E. IVR ports
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 8
When using micro-apps, which core components are required for calls that originate from Cisco Unified Communications
Manager to Cisco Unified CVP using Comprehensive mode?
A. CUCM: CTI Route Port, SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU, CUBE, VXML Gateway
B. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway
C. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway
D. CUCM: CTI Route Port and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about combining IP telephony and Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Extensions on the
same IP phone are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified CCE supports only one agent ACD line on the IP phone.
B. The ACD line on the IP phone may have voicemail or call forwarding defined.
C. In a typical call center, the ACD line is the first line on the phone to make it easier for the agent to forward inbound
ACD calls.
D. The agent state changes based on the activity of the ACD line.
E. If the agent picks up the phone to place a call, the agent is put into ready mode.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 10
Which three benefits does a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise centralized deployment with small agents branch
provide? (Choose three.)
A. It requires only a small data switch and router, IP phones, and agent desktops at remote sites for a few agents.
B. It requires only a limited system and network management skills at remote sites.
C. Small remote branches require PSTN and SIP trunks, in addition to the ones needed for local POTS lines for
emergency services (911) in the event of a WAN link loss.
D. PSTN trunks for incoming traffic connect to data centers for efficiency.
E. It does not use VoIP WAN bandwidth when an agent is answering the call.
F. Calls extend over the WAN only while calls are in the queue.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 11
Which two features does the Cisco Unified Border Element provide when Cisco Unified CCE and Cisco Unified Customer
Voice Portals are used? (Choose two.)
A. load-balancing outbound calls
B. secure communication using flow around mode
C. normalize SIP messages using SIP profiles
D. Silent Monitor inbound voice calls
E. record calls by forking the media
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
Which three WAN/MAN configurations are valid in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise clustering over the WAN
deployment model? (Choose three.)
A. A highly available visible network WAN/MAN/DWDM and a dedicated private network WAN.
B. A highly available MPLS WAN shared by the visible and private networks with a 2 second convergence time.
C. A highly available MPLS WAN shared by the visible and private networks where the private network is pinned to a
single path and the visible network aligned to an alternate path failing to the private network path as a redundant link with
QoS and bandwidth provisioning.
D. A highly available DWDM/CWDM network shared by the visible and private networks with a sub-500 ms convergence
time.
E. All traffic is converged on a single MPLS network by using appropriate QoS markings and settings to ensure latency
and bandwidth requirements.
F. A highly available DWDM/CWDM network shared by the visible and private networks with 1500 ms convergence
time.
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 500-440 exam questions q13

Which includes three inbound call flows with their respective average handle times. The deployment includes Cisco
Unified Contact Center Enterprise, Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal, Cisco Unified Communication Manager, and
Cisco Unified Border Element. The customer needs to record all agent conversations with callers. What is the minimum
average handle time needed to determine how many recording ports are required?
A. 290.0 seconds
B. 259.5 seconds
C. 146.9 seconds
D. 117.5 seconds
Correct Answer: C

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300-465 CLDDES – Cisco:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/clddes.html

This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and ability to:

  • translate requirements into cloud/automation process designs
  • design Private Cloud infrastructures
  • design Public Cloud infrastructures
  • design Cloud Security Policies
  • design Virtualization and Virtual Network Services

Latest updates Cisco 300-465 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

A customer wants to interconnect two geographically separated private clouds. A V-Block design is running in both

locations. The customer wants to provide IP connectivity between remote data center sites via the MPLS core of their

ISP. The connection must meet these requirements: 

Maintain loop prevention 

Ensure that storage and data center traffic are load-balanced between both locations 

Ensure that disaster recovery is easily managed and implemented at Layer 2 and Layer 3 throughput. 

Which DCI technology satisfies these requirements? 

A. PVC 

B. IPsec VPN 

C. SSL VPN 

D. L2VPN 

E. OTV 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 2

A cloud administrator is designing security policies for a hybrid cloud using Cisco Intercloud Fabric. 

Which two security capabilities does Intercloud Fabric provide for hybrid clouds. (Choose two.) 

A. open access cloud VMs 

B. Encrypted VM to VM communication 

C. open access site-to-site communication 

D. role-based access control on cloud resources 

Correct Answer: BD 

 

QUESTION 3

Which protocol is used to extend Layer 2 for long-distance bridging? 

A. OTV 

B. VXLAN 

C. LISP 

D. VPN 

E. NvGRE 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 4

A cloud administrator is designing security policies for the control plane of a private Cloud. Which two statements about

control plane Cloud Security are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The dynamic control plane is not required to have visibility to all traffic between the user and the applications. 

B. The dynamic control plane does not require visibility into the data plane and all components that operate within the

data plane. 

C. A dynamic control plane must be able to intercept traffic as it traverses the cloud, interpret the data, and instruct the

cloud architecture on how to efficiently connect the user to the appropriate application instance. 

D. Dynamic control plane elements are a requirement at every layer of the cloud architecture for cloud environments to

be operationally efficient and on demand. 

Correct Answer: AD 

 

QUESTION 5

To best leverage Cisco UCS stateless computing, the server manager has decided to boot from an existing storage

array. 

Which type of storage must be provisioned for the boot LUNs? 

A. block 

B. hybrid 

C. object 

D. file 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 6

Which hypervisor supports VM Lockstep Protection? 

A. VMWare 

B. HyperV 

C. Oracle 

D. Citrix 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 7

Which three components are involved in the design of Cisco Secure cloud extension? (Choose three) 

A. Intercloud Fabric Extender 

B. Amazon Hybrid Cloud 

C. third party firewall to secure the connection 

D. Amazon Web Services 

E. TLS tunnel, to extend the VLAN 

F. Intercloud Fabric Switch 

Correct Answer: ACF 

 

QUESTION 8

For which three entities can the prime service catalog be integrated with Cisco UCS Director to discover and create

orderable services? (Choose three.) 

A. fenced templates, fenced catalogs 

B. advanced catalog 

C. VACS templates, VACS containers, VACS catalogs 

D. hybrid cloud catalog 

E. fenced container templates, fenced container catalogs 

F. standard catalog 

Correct Answer: BDF 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/datacenter_mgmt/intel_auto/service_portal/v_11_0/admin-o

perate/guide/CiscoPrimeServiceCatalog-11-0-AdministrationandOperationGuide/CiscoPrimeServiceCatalog-11-0AdministrationandOperationGuide_chapter_0111.html 

 

QUESTION 9

Which two options are Cisco Intercloud Fabric use cases? (Choose two.) 

A. development and testing 

B. capacity reduction 

C. legal compliance 

D. secure administrative access 

E. shadow IT control 

Correct Answer: AE 

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Hybrid_Cloud/Intercloud/Intercloud_Fabric/Intercloud_Fabric_1.html 

 

QUESTION 10

Which two scenarios require Cisco Prime Service Catalog as a front-end to Cisco UCS Director? (Choose two.) 

A. The Stack View is leveraged for improved visibility 

B. Developers must be able to create a three-tier architecture using Stack Designer 

C. VACS has been implemented for deploying a containerized model 

D. The self-service model is also used to order phone services 

E. An advanced workflow is required for IT automation 

Correct Answer: CE 

 

QUESTION 11

Which two of the following describe how isolation can be achieved for VMDC data center security? (Choose two.) 

A. intrusion prevention appliances that inspect traffic and detect security events on a per-VLAN basis 

B. role-based access and authentication 

C. virtual routing and forwarding tables 

D. proper infrastructure hardening 

E. application redundancy 

F. policy enforcement and access control 

Correct Answer: AC 

 

QUESTION 12

An engineer is constructing a hybrid cloud solution for a customer and wants to ensure cloud visibility. Which two

components are part of identification? (Choose two.) 

A. network management 

B. firewall/deep packet inspection 

C. event analysis and correlation 

D. digital certificates 

E. network flow data collection 

Correct Answer: BC 

 

QUESTION 13

A UCS Director administrator must migrate a VM from a hypervisor to a pubic cloud. In which two ways can this task be

accomplished? (Choose two) 

A. You can perform vMotion and Storage VMotion simultaneously on a running VM. 

B. VM Migration can occur using the Migrate VM wizard. 

C. You can add the Migrate VM task from the Cisco UCS Director task library to a workflow for migration. 

D. vMotion or Storage vMotion can be triggered through Virtual > Migration menu. 

Correct Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1
A client has an MPLS inter-AS implementation that is required to have QoS deployed between ASBRs based on IP
packet. At the same time, the client requires minimization of the routing configuration between ASBRs for better
scalability. Which MPLS inter-AS option can achieve this goal?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option AB
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
A NOC engineer is troubleshooting an issue on a customer\\’s server that is connected to a switch port in the data
center. The engineer has a packet analyzer that is connected to a test port in the NOC. A core network exists between
the NOC and the data center
Which two configuration steps should the NOC engineer apply for the port in the NOC and the customer\\’s switch port
in the data center? (Choose Two)
A. Configure ERSPAN between the NOC test port and customer\\’s switch port
B. Enable an MPLS pseusdowire that is destined to the NOC and used by the mirrored customer traffic to cross
network
C. Enable GRE encapsulation that is destined to the NOC and supply by the mirrored customer traffic to cross the
network
D. Enable an MPLS TE tunnel that is destined to the NOC and used by the mirrored customer traffic to cross the core
network
E. Configure RSPAN between the NOC test port and customer\\’s switch port
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 3
Process-level redundancy is implemented by a system manager process that creates the standby process. What two
functions are provided by the system-level process called Qnet Symlink Manager (QSM)? (Choose two.)
A. backing up the information for the broken connections
B. provides common information for connecting processes and services
C. detection of a failed connection
D. provides an abstract name for a process or service
E. distribution of symbolic link information
Correct Answer: DE
1.4. SP high end product
1.4.01. IOS-XR structure Process-Level Redundancy Process-level redundancy is implemented by a system manager
process creating the standby process. Because the active process created the standby process, the active process has
all the information that it needs to communicate with the standby process. The active process uses a checkpoint
database to share running state with the standby process. Symbolic links and abstract names are used to identify the
processes. Clients do not see the standby process until the active goes away. If a process fails and it has created a
standby process, a system-level process called QNet Symlink Manager (QSM) and a library called Event Connection
Manager (ECM) are used to re-establish links from the clients to the processes.
QSM provides:
Distribution of symbolic link information
Abstract name for a process or service
ECM provides:
Common information for connecting processes and services Detection of broken connections
Only processes considered essential by development engineers are designated to support process-level redundancy.
This is not a user-configurable option. Clients have to reconnect to the “new” active process (the “original” standby
process) when they detect that the active process has failed. Clients can connect to it using the symbolic links and
abstract names. The new active process creates a new standby process.
The general steps in process redundancy are:
The active process dies.
The standby process becomes the active process.
A new standby process starts.
The new active process begins sending updates to the new standby process. Clients begin using the new active
process through the symbolic links and abstract names.

 

QUESTION 4
In which modes does selective packet discard (SPD) operate? (Choose three.)
A. discard
B. random
C. normal
D. full
E. select
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 5
Which two components are shared across secure domain routers? (Choose two)
A. Fabric
B. CPU
C. Memory
D. Fans
E. Forwarding engine
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 6
Drag the MPLS label element on the left to the correct length on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 400-201 exam question q6

 

QUESTION 7
In which way does the DS-Lite IPv6 transitioning mechanism differ from IPv6 Dual-Stack?
A. DS-Lite is a combination of tunnel and translation technologies.
B. DS-Lite is a transition technology that gives full IPv6 connectivity for IPv6 capable hosts that are on the IPv4 Internet
but have no native connection to an IPv6 network.
C. DS-Lite is an automatic tunnel where the tunnel destination is determined by the IPv4 address extracted from the
IPv6 address that starts with the prefix 2002::/16.
D. DS-Lite is a stateless tunneling mechanism with a lightweight and secure manner without requiring upgrades to
existing IPv4 access network infrastructure.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
In a segment routing-enabled network, which two protocols perform label distribution? (Choose two)
A. IS-IS
B. LDP
C. BGP
D. OSPF
E. RSVP-TE
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about IEEE 802.1ah Provider Backbone Bridge are true? (Choose two.)
A. IEEE 802.1ah enables geographically separated LAN segments to be interconnected as a single bridged domain
over an MPLS network, knowing all the customer MAC addresses.
B. IEEE 802.1ah provides the same Ethernet Layer 2 network services as VLAN does, but with greater extensibility and
flexibility by overlay scheme over a Layer 3 network.
C. IEEE 802.1ah allows a fewer number of pseudowires in the IP/MPLS core to transport a large number of customer
services.
D. IEEE 802.1ah redefines the flooding and forwarding behavior to avoid loops by not flooding frames received from one
member to other members of the same group.
E. IEEE 802.1ah provides a means for interconnecting multiple provider bridged to build a large-scale, end-to-end,
Layer 2 provider bridged network.
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/asr9k-r6-4/lxvpn/configuration/guide/b-l2vpn-cg-asr9000-64x/b-l2vpn-cg-asr9000-64x_chapter_0111.pdf

 

QUESTION 10
Which two BGP mechanisms solve the BGP full-mesh paradigm? (Choose two.)
A. BGP link state
B. MPLS VPN
C. route reflectors
D. hierarchical VPLS
E. confederation
F. route policy filtering
G. community SOO
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 11
A service provider has a requirements to deploy a virtual router in its network to handle high-performance data plane
service up to 20Gbps. Which Cisco solution fulfills this requirement?
A. Cisco 7600
B. Cisco ASR 9000
C. Cisco NCS 6000
D. Cisco CSR 1000v
E. Cisco nexus 9000v
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which timing over packet solution provides only accurate frequency synchronization, but does not provide time/phase
synchronization?
A. Timing over IP connection and transfer of clock BOF
B. Precision time protocol
C. Network time protocol
D. Synchronous Ethernet
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question q13

Which attached circuit interface shown uses VC Type 4?
A. Gi8/0/1
B. AT1/0
C. Se5/0
D. ATM2/0
E. Gi4/0.1
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s discovery process? (Choose two.)
A. Establishing credibility with the customer
B. Working with the customer to develop a reference architecture
C. Referencing the PPDIOO model to effectively facilitate the discussion
D. Gathering information about the current state of the customer\\’s network environment
E. Mapping Cisco innovation to customer\\’s needs
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 2
What is the easiest way to enable SD-Access for all your remote site after you have your campus SD-Access fabric up
and running?
A. Treat all the sites as one fabric domain and use the traditional physical network as the underlay
B. Use a separate fabric domain for each site and use SD-WAN as the underlay
C. Use a separate fabric domain for each site and use the traditional physical network as the underlay
D. Treat all the sites as one fabric domain and use SD-WAN as the underlay
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which node enables Cisco ISE to share contextual information on a device with Cisco Stealth watch?
A. Monitoring and Troubleshooting
B. pXGrid Controller
C. Policy Administration Node
D. Inline Posture Node
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which are two Cisco recommendations that demonstrates SDA? (Choose two.)
A. Use the CLI to perform as much of the configuration as possible
B. Show lite customer how to integrate ISL into DMA Center at the end of the demo
C. Focus on business benefits
D. Keep the demo at a high level
E. Be sure you explain the major technologies such as VXLAN and LISP in depth
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 5
Which two Cisco ISE use cases typically involve the highest level of implementation complexity? (Choose two.)
A. Guest and wireless access
B. Software defined access
C. Device management
D. Asset visibility
E. Software defined segmentation
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 6
Which are two advantages of a “one switch at a tune\\’ approach to integrating SD-Access into an existing brownfield
environment? (Choose two.)
A. appropriate for campus and remote site environments
B. allows simplified testing prior to cutover
C. deal for protecting recent investments while upgrading legacy hardware
D. involves the least risk of all approaches
E. opens up many new design and deployment opportunities
F. allows simplified roll back
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 7
Which three ways are SD-Access and ACI Fabric similar? (Choose three.)
A. use of overlays
B. use of Virtual Network IDs
C. focus on user endpoints
D. use of group policy
E. use of Endpoint Groups
F. use of Scalable Group Tags
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 8
Which two statements are true regarding SD-WAN demonstrations? (Choose two.)
A. As a Cisco SD-WAN SF, you should you should spend your time learning about the technology rather than
contributing to demo innovation
B. Use demonstrations primarily for large opportunities and competitive situations
C. During a demo, you should demonstrate and discuss what the team considers important details
D. There is a big difference between demos that use a top down approach and demos that use a bottom up approach
E. During a demo you should consider the target audience and the desired outcome
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 9
Which are two Cisco ISE that benefits our customers ? (Choose two.)
A. provides network access controller
B. helps them stop and contain real time threats
C. enables them to set traffic priorities across the network
D. helps them accelerate application deployment and delivery
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 10
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s demo process? (Choose two.)
A. determining whether the customer would like to drive deeper during a follow up
B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you
C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration
D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case.
E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and
complexity
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 11
Which Cisco vEdge route offers 20 Gb of encrypted throughput?
A. Cisco vEdge 5000
B. Cisco vEdge 1000
C. Cisco vEdge 2000
D. Cisco vEdge 100
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT traversal?
A. vBond orchestrator
B. vManage
C. vSmart controller
D. vEdge
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which is a function of lite Proactive Insights feature of Cisco DNA Center Assurance\\’?
A. pointing out where the most serious issues are happening in the network
B. generating synthetic traffic to perform tests that raise awareness of potential network issues
C. enabling you to quickly view all of the contextual information related to the end application
D. enabling you to see the complete path of packets from the client to the end application
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?
A. MDS 9513
B. MDS 9509
C. MDS 9506
D. MDS 9250i
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum distance that the 40GBASE-LR4 Ethernet standard can span?
A. 550 m
B. 10 km
C. 40 km
D. 80 km
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q3

Which call-out accurately shows the currently running version of the Cisco UCS Manager management software?
A. A – UCS Manager running version 1.4(1m)
B. B – IO Module 1 running version 1.4(1m)
C. C – Interface Card 1 running version 1.4(1m)
D. D – Kernel running version 4.2(1)N(1.4m)
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q4

Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server?
A. A is a power button and power status LED; B is the identification button and LED; C is system status LED; D is a network link
activity LED.
B. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification
button and LED.
C. A is system status LED; B is network link activity LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification
button and LED.
D. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is an identification button and LED; D is power button and
power status LED.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Up to what speed can Category 5e UTP cable transmit data?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Up to what speed can Category 5 UTP cable transmit data?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which type of optics module is supported by a 6-port 40 GE Cisco Nexus 7000 M2 Series I/O module?
A. CPAK
B. QSFP+
C. SFP/SFP+
D. CFP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)
A. Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B. Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C. Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
D. Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 9
Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?
A. dual-mode
B. single-mode
C. straight-mode
D. multi-mode
E. subscriber-mode
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
When the Cisco UCS Manager is used to verify the B- or C-Series device, which two types of Overall Status are
acceptable and do not indicate a failure? (Choose two.)
A. Online
B. OK
C. Unassociated
D. Active
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 11
If the Overall Status for a Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server indicates a failure in the Cisco UCS Manager, such as
discovery-failed, which statement is true?
A. The server shuts down.
B. The server automatically reboots reboot in 3 minutes.
C. The endpoints on that server cannot be upgraded.
D. The server is online, but the administrator cannot assign a service profile to that blade.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q12

Where is the best place to see whether the system is ready for a Fabric Interconnect failover?
A. A – Overall Status operable
B. B – L1 Connection
C. C – Part Details
D. D – Access
E. E – High Availability Details
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 13
Which tool does a network administrator not need when installing hardware?
A. cable tester
B. wrench set
C. cable wraps
D. needle-nose pliers
E. PCMCIA memory
F. soldering iron with a grounded tip
Correct Answer: F

 

QUESTION 14
Which two Cisco Nexus switches provide the foundation of the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7718 switch
B. Cisco Nexus 9508 switch
C. Cisco Nexus 7710 switch
D. Cisco Nexus 93128TX switch
E. Cisco Nexus 6004 switch
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q15

Which item does F represent?
A. HDD 1
B. SFP Module
C. SuperCap Module
D. CPU 2
E. CMOS Battery
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 16
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?
A. Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B. Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C. Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D. Use the Cisco UCS Manager.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 17
Which three statements about powering down a Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Server to perform maintenance or
replacement are true? (Choose three.)
A. Standby power mode: Power is supplied only to the service processor and the cooling fans, and it is safe to power off
the server from this mode.
B. Power status LED. Green indicates that the server is in main power mode and can be safely powered off.
C. Graceful shutdown: Press and release the power button. The operating system performs a graceful shutdown, and
the server goes to standby mode, which is indicated by an amber power status LED.
D. Disconnect the power cords from the power supplies in your server to completely power off the server.
E. Only an emergency shutdown can be performed using the power button on the server front panel.
F. The Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Server has only one power mode.
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 18
Which three steps do you perform to troubleshoot when a rack server powers on with no video? (Choose three.)
A. Check that the front I/O dongle is properly seated.
B. Check the front I/O cable connection to the motherboard.
C. Check for memory subsystem failure.
D. Verify the power source for equipment.
E. Reseat the DIMMs, CPU, and PCI cards.
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q19

This image shows a CPU Pick-and-Place tool and a CPU Socket Protective Cap Removal tool.
Which types of Cisco UCS servers and Intel Xeon processors do these tools support?
A. Cisco UCS B22 Blade Server, C22 Rack Server, and C24 Rack Server with Intel Xeon E5- 2400 Series processors
B. Cisco UCS B22 Blade Server, C22 Rack Server, and C24 Rack Server with Intel Xeon E5- 2600 Series processors
C. Cisco UCS B200 M3 Blade Server, B420 M3 Blade Server, C220 Rack Server, C240 Rack Server, and C420 Rack
Sever with Intel Xeon E5-2400 Series processors
D. Cisco UCS B200 M3 Blade Server, B420 M3 Blade Server, C220 Rack Server, C240 Rack Server, and C420 Rack
Sever with Intel Xeon E5-2600 Series processors
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 20
Drag the password recovery procedures on a Cisco NX-OS switch from the left to the right and place them in order.
Select and Place:lead4pass 010-151 exam question q20

Select and Place:

lead4pass 010-151 exam question q20-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 010-151 exam question q20-2

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