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QUESTION 1

Which tool supports HPE 3PAR, EMC VMAX, and VNX arrays, and is used to identify customer storage needs?

A. HPE SPOCK
B. HPE NinjaSTARS
C. HPE Storage Sizer
D. HPE SAF Collector

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Which HPE tool combines performance metrics from multiple arrays?

A. NinjaStars
B. SAF Analyze
C. NinjaCrawler
D. SAF Collect

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

HOTSPOT

A customer wants to see how the HPE DL380 Gen10 servers have been placed in the rack you just configured in OCA Click on the exhibit where you would enable this feature in OCA.
Hot Area:

hp hpe0-s57 free dumps 3

Correct Answer:

hp hpe0-s57 free dumps 3-1

QUESTION 4

Which two metrics are key to guiding data placement decisions? (Choose two.)

A. capacity
B. cache utilization
C. power consumption
D. jitter
E. response time

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5

A customer is asking for the latest version of the HPE Nimble Storage Integration Guide. Where can the customer download the guide?

A. HPE SPOCK
B. HPE Product Bulletin
C. HPE InfoSight
D. HPE Information Library

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

A customer is planning a data center expansion consisting of 2,000 physical servers supporting up to 70 VMs per server. They require a modular networking solution that provides:

1. high bandwidth
2. high availability
3. high performance
4. the ability to scale beyond 2,000 servers Which HPE solution should you recommend?

A. HPE FlexFabric 12940E
B. HPE Aruba 5400
C. HPE FlexFabric 5940
D. HPE OfficeConnect 1950

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

You are creating a Bill of Materials with the HPE Synergy Planning Tool. The solution includes:

1. 30 Synergy 480 Compute Modules
2. 6 D3940 Storage Modules
3. 40 Gb uplink ports
4. 20 Gb downlink ports
5. Image Streamers for stateless computing

How many Composers and Image Streamers are needed in this solution?

A. 2 pairs of Composers / 2 pairs of Image Streamers
B. 1 pair of Composers / 2 pairs of Image Streamers
C. 1 pair of Composers / 1 pair of Image Streamers
D. 2 pairs of Composers / 1 pair of Image Streamers

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

A customer has an existing HPE MSA 2050 SAS. They need to add a DL380 GenlO server running VMware ESXi 6.7
The customer would also like to boot from shared storage with this new DL380 Gen10 server.
Which tool should you use to determine an appropriate DL380 Gen10 server HBA and its required firmware version to support boot from shared storage for this configuration\’?

A. HPE Single Point of Connectivity Knowledge
B. HPE Storage Sizer
C. HPE Product Bulletin
D. HPE One Config Advanced

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit.

hp hpe0-s57 free dumps 9

You are using NinjaStars to size a Nimble storage array to fulfill a customer’s requirements and you see the output shown in the exhibit. What should you change to make this a supported configuration?

A. Increase the SSD size to get a higher Flash-to-Disk ratio.
B. increase the size of selected disks to fulfill the requirement of 40 TB of capacity.
C. Increase the number of disks to fulfill the requirement of 40 TB of capacity.
D. Remove the 2-port 10 G based since the customer requires FC connectivity only

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

You are designing a solution for a data-intensive application running on a ProLiant DL380 Gen10 server, where performance will be critical. Which tool should you use to validate that your design meets the workload requirements?

A. HPE Server Memory Configurator
B. HPE Storage Sizer
C. HPE Solid-State Drive Selector Tool
D. HPE InfoSight

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

You are designing a highly-available SQL database solution, following HPE reference architectures for Microsoft SQL 2017 on Linux. Which HA design factors should be considered? (Choose two.)

A. Real-Time Operational Analytics
B. Transparent Data Encryption
C. Always On Failover Cluster Instance (FCI)
D. Read-Scale Availability Groups

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12

A customer requires a new backup solution for their VMware and Hyper-V environment, stored on a 3PAR 8400. They request a solution that will move the backup data across their storage network and allow for copying backup data to 3rd party cloud providers.
Which two components should you recommend? (Choose two.)

A. HPE StoreOnce 3640 with Catalyst
B. HPE Recovery Manager Central
C. Veeam Backup and Replication
D. Microsoft Data Protection Manager
E. Microsoft Storage Spaces Direct

Correct Answer: AC


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Designing Multi-Site HPE Storage Solutions Certification HPE0-J58 Free Dumps Are Below

1. A customer has started to load their HPE 3PAR 8450 with data but is not sure what data reduction they are achieving. They ask you to run an analysis and estimate the deduplication ratio of data currently on a virtual volume (VV). Which CLI command should you use to understand data reduction ratios?

A. showvv
B. tunevv
C. convertvv
D. checkvv

Reference: https://manualzz.com/doc/34471724/hpe-3par-adaptive-data-reduction

2. A customer has a Tier 1 application that has high bandwidth and is sensitive to latency. The customer needs a solution to support this application. The solution must support replication between two sites over dark fiber links and support an RPO of zero.

Which solution meets the customer requirements?

A. dual HPE 3PAR 9450 arrays with data replicated using RCFC
B. dual Nimble AF40 arrays with data replicated over FC
C. dual HPE 3PAR 8400 arrays with data replicated using iSCSI
D. dual Nimble HF20 arrays with data replicated over iSCSI

3. Refer to the Exhibit.

hpe0-j58 exam questions 3

A customer with an existing HPE Nimble installation sends you the output shown. The administrator who initially set up the replication has left the company. They ask you what the current RPO level for their replication is.

How should you respond?

A. They need to verify the RPO level from the host vc-ms-fileserver
B. They have an RPO of four minutes
C. They need to send a screenshot of the volumes tab
D. They have an RPO of two minutes

4. A customer has a requirement to provide Disaster Recovery for an application that is very sensitive to IO latency. The customer has specified an RPO of less than 3 minutes for this application.

How can HPE 3PAR Remote Copy help meet the customer’s specified requirements?

A. by using Asynchronous Streaming Replication
B. by using Synchronous Replication
C. by using Synchronous Long Distance Mode
D. by using Periodic Asynchronous Replication with an interval of 3 mins

5. A customer wants to implement a disaster recovery plan for their current HPE 3PAR array data. They have obtained a remote site 10km away from their primary site. They have performed bandwidth testing, and have confirmed their RTT is approximately 100ms. The customer needs to provide data replication to assure the best data availability they can achieve.

Which synchronization method meets their needs?

A. Asynchronous Streaming
B. Asynchronous Periodic Remote Copy
C. Synchronous Remote Copy
D. Peer Persistence

6. A customer needs a data recovery solution for their HPE 3PAR array. They have the following requirements: RPO needs to be within three hours RTO needs to be within three hours There is no need for an offsite data archive They will have a limited maintenance window.

Which solution meets all of the customer needs?

A. HPE 3PAR StoreServ with RMC
B. HPE StoreOnce
C. HPE StoreAll
D. HPE StoreEver

7. A customer needs to set up specific replication bandwidth requirements to limit the bandwidth between HPE Nimble Storage replication partners, which is different than the bandwidth requirements to another Replication Partner. Which Bandwidth parameter should the customer use?

A. Array-to-array Limit
B. Per-partner limit
C. Partner Maximum limit
D. Overall limit policy

8. How does the HPE Nimble Storage product strategy support a customer\’s investment protection requirements for today and the future?

A. by supporting replication with arrays from other vendors
B. by supporting the implementation of third party cache, spinning media, and flash media
C. by supporting replication between current and previous-generation array models
D. by supporting the repurposing of obsolete array controllers as high-density servers

9. You are proposing a replication solution to a customer. A competitor offers a solution based on storage virtualization appliances. What should you stress about an HPE 3PAR replication solution in regard to the competitor\’s proposal?

A. It will add on-the-fly encryption and compression to data being replicated outside the customer\’s DC
B. It means less overhead for management and monitoring
C. It offers best-in-class backup and restores capabilities
D. It offers superior virtualization of 3rd party storage arrays

10. A customer has a solution from another vendor. The customer ran into issues of a disproportionally high failure rate of media keeping log file data. The issue also appeared in the second array, to which the data is being replicated. The customer specifically asks you for a solution that will not have this same issue. Which feature of HPE 3PAR arrays should you emphasize?

A. creating snapshots on different physical disks
B. wide striping data across controllers and disks
C. ASIC accelerated thin provisioning
D. inline compression and data packing

11. Customer needs to replace their outdated storage arrays.

Which resource provides the necessary information to properly size a solution?

A. HPE NinjaCrawler
B. HPE Ninja Stars for Nimble
C. HPE Storage Sizer
D. HPE Storage Assessment Foundry

12. A customer wants to enable an automated failover for their two existing HPE 3PAR solutions, which are located in two different sites. Each solution has an All-inclusive Single-System Software license. Which component is required to enable this function?

A. All-inclusive Multi-System Software License
B. Fibre channel Bridges to connect the disk shelf
C. Additional HPE 3PAR system as a quorum witness
D. Dark fiber connection between the sites

Validation results:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12
DCBABABBBDDA

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TypeNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam code
Free12CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)CAS-004
QUESTION 1:

A security analyst receives an alert from the SIEM regarding unusual activity on an authorized public SSH jump server.

To further investigate, the analyst pulls the event logs directly from /var/log/auth.log: graphic.ssh_auth_log. Which of the following actions would BEST address the potential risks of the activity in the logs?

A. Alerting the misconfigured service account password

B. Modifying the AllowUsers configuration directive

C. Restricting external port 22 access

D. Implementing host-key preferences

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

Within change management, winch of the following ensures functions are earned out by multiple employees?

A. Least privilege

B. Mandatory vacation

C. Separator of duties

D. Job rotation

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

A security administrator configured the account policies per security implementation guidelines. However, the accounts still appear to be susceptible to brute-force attacks. The following settings meet the existing compliance guidelines:

1.
Must have a minimum of 15 characters
2.
Must use one number
3.
Must use one capital letter
4.

Must not be one of the last 12 passwords used

Which of the following policies should be added to provide additional security?

A. Shared accounts

B. Password complexity

C. Account lockout

D. Password history

E. Time-based logins

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/security-policy-settings/account-lockout-threshold

QUESTION 4:

A pharmaceutical company recently experienced a security breach within its customer-facing web portal. The attackers performed a SQL injection attack and exported tables from the company\’s managed database, exposing customer information.

The company hosts the application with a CSP utilizing the IaaS model. Which of the following parties is ultimately responsible for the breach?

A. The pharmaceutical company

B. The cloud software provider

C. The web portal software vendor

D. The database software vendor

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

Clients are reporting slowness when attempting to access a series of load-balanced APIs that do not require authentication. The servers that host the APIs are showing heavy CPU utilization. No alerts are found on the WAFs sitting in front of the APIs.

Which of the following should a security engineer recommend to BEST remedy the performance issues in a timely manner?

A. Implement rate limiting on the API.

B. Implement geoblocking on the WAF.

C. Implement OAuth 2.0 on the API.

D. Implement input validation on the API.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

A security architect for a large, multinational manufacturer needs to design and implement a security solution to monitor traffic.

When designing the solution, which of the following threats should the security architect focus on to prevent attacks against the ?? network?

A. Packets that are the wrong size or length

B. Use of any non-DNP3 communication on a DNP3 port

C. Multiple solicited responses over time

D. Application of an unsupported encryption algorithm

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7:

A company publishes several APIs for customers and is required to use keys to segregate customer data sets. Which of the following would be the BEST to use to store customer keys?

A. A trusted platform module

B. A hardware security module

C. A localized key store

D. A public key infrastructure

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8:

A security tester is performing a black-box assessment of an RFID access control system. The tester has a handful of RFID tags and is able to access the reader. However, the tester cannot disassemble the reader because it is in use by the company.

Which of the following shows the steps the tester should take to assess the RFID access control system in the correct order?

A.

1. Attempt to eavesdrop and replay RFID communications.
2. Determine the protocols being used between the tag and the reader.
3. Retrieve the RFID tag identifier and manufacturer details.
4. Take apart an RFID tag and analyze the chip.

B.

1. Determine the protocols being used between the tag and the reader.
2. Take apart an RFID tag and analyze the chip.
3. Retrieve the RFID tag identifier and manufacturer details.
4. Attempt to eavesdrop and replay RFID communications.

C.

1. Retrieve the RFID tag identifier and manufacturer details.

2. Determine the protocols being used between the tag and the reader.
3. Attempt to eavesdrop and replay RFID communications.

4. Take apart an RFID tag and analyze the chip.

D.

1. Take apart an RFID tag and analyze the chip.
2. Retrieve the RFID tag identifier and manufacturer details.
3. Determine the protocols being used between the tag and the reader.
4. Attempt to eavesdrop and replay RFID communications.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

A penetration tester obtained root access on a Windows server and, according to the rules of engagement, is permitted to perform post-exploitation for persistence. Which of the following techniques would BEST support this?

A. Configuring system services to run automatically at startup

B. Creating a backdoor

C. Exploiting an arbitrary code execution exploit

D. Moving laterally to a more authoritative server/service

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

A small company needs to reduce its operating costs. vendors have proposed solutions, which all focus on the management of the company\’s website and services. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) insists all available resources in the proposal must be dedicated, but managing a private cloud is not an option.

Which of the following is the BEST solution for this company?

A. Community cloud service model

B. Multinency SaaS

C. Single-tenancy SaaS

D. On-premises cloud service model

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11:

Which of the following represents the MOST significant benefit of implementing a passwordless authentication solution?

A. Biometric authenticators are immutable.

B. The likelihood of account compromise is reduced.

C. Zero trust is achieved.

D. Privacy risks are minimized.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://cloudworks.no/en/5-benefits-of-passwordless-authentication/

QUESTION 12:

A shipping company that is trying to eliminate entire classes of threats is developing an SELinux policy to ensure its custom Android devices are used exclusively for package tracking. After compiling and implementing the policy, in which of the following modes must the company ensure the devices are configured to run?

A. Protecting

B. Permissive

C. Enforcing

D. Mandatory

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://source.android.com/security/selinux/customize


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TypeNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam code
Free15Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR)350-701
QUESTION 1:

Which two features of Cisco DNA Center are used in a Software Defined Network solution? (Choose two)

A. accounting

B. assurance

C. automation

D. authentication

E. encryption

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/dna-center/nb-06-cisco-dna-center-aag-cte-en.html

QUESTION 2:

A network engineer is configuring DMVPN and entered the crypto is amp key cisc0380739941 address 0.0.0.0 command on host A The tunnel is not being established to host B.

What action is needed to authenticate the VPN?

A. Enter the same command on host B.

B. Enter the command with a different password on host B.

C. Change isakmp to ikev2 in the command on host A.

D. Change the password on host A to the default password.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

Which two features of Cisco Email Security can protect your organization against email threats? (Choose two)

A. Time-based one-time passwords

B. Data loss prevention

C. Heuristic-based filtering

D. Geolocation-based filtering

E. NetFlow

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa11-0/user_guide_fs/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_11_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_00.html

QUESTION 4:
latest 350-701 dumps questions 4

Refer to the exhibit. When configuring a remote access VPN solution terminating on the Cisco ASA, an administrator would like to utilize an external token authentication mechanism in conjunction with AAA authentication using machine certificates. Which configuration item must be modified to allow this?

A. Group Policy

B. Method

C. SAML Server

D. DHCP Servers

Correct Answer: B

In order to use AAA along with an external token authentication mechanism, set the “Method” as “Both” in the Authentication.

QUESTION 5:

What are two rootkit types? (Choose two)

A. registry

B. virtual

C. bootloader

D. user mode

E. buffer mode

Correct Answer: CD

The term rootkit\\' originally comes from the Unix world, where the wordroot\’ is used to describe a user with the highest possible level of access privileges, similar to a Administrator\\' in Windows. The wordkit\’ refers to thesoftware that grants root-level access to the machine. Put the two together and you get `rootkit\’, a program that gives someone? with legitimate or malicious intentions? privileged access to a computer. There are four main types of rootkits: Kernel rootkits, User mode rootkits, Bootloader rootkits, Memory rootkits

QUESTION 6:

Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two)

A. AES is less secure than 3DES.

B. AES is more secure than 3DES.

C. AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.

D. AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.

E. AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7:

A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface.

What is causing this problem?

A. DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.

B. The ip arp inspection limit command is applied on all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.

C. Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs

D. The no ip arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces

Correct Answer: D

Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network. It intercepts, logs, and discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings. This capability protects the network from certain man-in-the-middle attacks. After enabling DAI, all ports become untrusted ports.

QUESTION 8:

An engineer is configuring AMP for endpoints and wants to block certain files from executing. Which outbreak control method is used to accomplish this task?

A. device flow correlation

B. simple detections

C. application blocking list

D. advanced custom detections

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9:

A Cisco ESA network administrator has been tasked to use a newly installed service to help create policy based on the reputation verdict. During testing, it is discovered that the Cisco ESA is not dropping files that have an undetermined verdict.

What is causing this issue?

A. The policy was created to send a message to quarantine instead of drop

B. The file has a reputation score that is above the threshold

C. The file has a reputation score that is below the threshold

D. The policy was created to disable file analysis

Correct Answer: D

Maybe the “newly installed service” in this Qmentions about Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) can be used along with ESA. AMP allows superior protection across the attack continuum.+ File Reputation? captures a fingerprint of each file as it traverses the ESA and sends it to AMP\’s cloud-based intelligence network for a reputation verdict.

Given these results, you can automatically block malicious files and apply an administrator-defined policy.+ File Analysis? provides the ability to analyze unknown files that are traversing the ESA. A highly secure sandbox environment enables AMP to glean precise details about the file\’s behavior and to combine that data with detailed human and machine analysis to determine the file\’s threat level.

This disposition is then fed into AMP cloud-based intelligence network and used to dynamically update and expand the AMP cloud data set for enhanced protection

QUESTION 10:

A network engineer is deciding whether to use stateful or stateless failover when configuring two ASAs for high availability.

What is the connection status in both cases?

A. need to be re-established with stateful failover and preserved with stateless failover

B. preserved with stateful failover and need to be reestablished with stateless failover

C. preserved with both stateful and stateless failover

D. need to be re-established with both stateful and stateless failover

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11:

Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two)

A. Enable client-side scripts on a per-domain basis.

B. Incorporate contextual output encoding/escaping.

C. Disable cookie inspection in the HTML inspection engine.

D. Run untrusted HTML input through an HTML sanitization engine.

E. Same Site cookie attribute should not be used.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12:

Which type of encryption uses a public key and a private key?

A. Asymmetric

B. Symmetric

C. Linear

D. Nonlinear

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

Which two services must remain on-premises equipment when a hybrid email solution is deployed? (Choose two)

A. DDoS

B. antispam

C. antivirus

D. encryption

E. DLP

Correct Answer: DE

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/ces/overview_guide/Cisco_Cloud_Hyb
rid_Email_Security_Overview_Guide.pdf


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Latest updates Salesforce ADM-201 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following are setting options for the User Interface?
A. Enable Collapsible Sections
B. Show Quick Create
C. Show customer Sidebar Components on All Pages
D. Transfer all Open Opportunities E. Enable Drag-and-drop scheduling on List Views
Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 2
The Self Service Portal and Customer Portal are the same technology?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which is the new type of Dashboard Chart to make entry in Spring\\’11 Release?
A. Waterfall Chart
B. Scatter
C. Gauge
D. Metric
E. Organization Chart
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
True or False, Final reject actions in a workflow approval process can include actions such as email alerts.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
In List View Enhancements, users can export list results to CSV file
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Can you set Standard and Custom fields as unique or required using the Property feature?
Correct Answer: No, only custom fields.

QUESTION 7
History Tracking can be performed on the following Standard Objects Except Select the choice which is applicable.
A. Accounts
B. Forecasts
C. Contacts
D. Leads
E. Opportunities
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is NOT controlled by the Page Layout?
A. How detail and edit pages are organized
B. Field properties like visible, read-only and required
C. Controlling which fields, related lists, and Custom Links users sees
D. Page section customizations
E. Rollup summary
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Sharing rules can be formed on the following except:
A. Custom objects
B. Standard objects
C. Junction Objects
D. Objects on managed packages
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What is Salesforce.com Partner Portal? Choose 2 answers:
A. Use your company logo on a Partner Site
B. Develop Partner Application on Force.com Platform
C. Data goes into your Salesforce objects through a third party site
D. Create Interactive Communities
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
What should be the Advanced filter Conditions to meet the requirement “Find contacts owned by Poo that have a title of
CFO, functional role of CFO, or reports to the CFO?
1) Title equals CFO 2) Functional Role equals CFO 3) Reports To equals CFO 4) Contact Owner contains Poo
A. (1 OR 2 OR 3) AND 4
B. (4 AND (2 OR 3)) OR 1
C. (1 OR 2 OR (3 AND 4)
D. (1 AND (2 OR 3)) OR 4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Using the following hierarchy, if a sharing rule exists granting Operations Person Read/Write access to Sales
Management on the Account Object, what access does Operations Management have to Sales Management\\’s
accounts?
Default access for the Account object is Public Read Only. Executive Management Sales Management Sales Person
Operations Management Operations Person
A. None
B. Read Only
C. Read/Write
D. Read/Write/Transfer
Correct Answer: C
Read/Write is granted through role hierarchy permissions from the sharing rule. If the sharing rule referenced a sharing
group then the Grant Access Using Hierarchies would not apply. This could also be true for a custom object; all
standard objects require Grant Access Using Hierarchies.

QUESTION 13
What is the limit of Master-Detail Relationships per object?
A. 35
B. 25
C. 15
D. 3
E. 2
F. 8
Correct Answer: E

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TypeNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam code
Free12Fortinet NSE 4 – FortiOS 7.0NSE4_FGT-7.0
QUESTION 1:

Which two statements are true about collector agent standard access mode? (Choose two.)

A. Standard mode uses Windows convention-NetBios: Domain\Username.

B. Standard mode security profiles apply to organizational units (OU).

C. Standard mode security profiles apply to user groups.

D. Standard access mode supports nested groups.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.0.0/handbook/482937/agent-based-fsso

QUESTION 2:

What is the limitation of using a URL list and application control on the same firewall policy, in NGFW policy-based mode?

A. It limits the scope of application control to the browser-based technology category only.

B. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic based on application category only.

C. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic using parent signatures only

D. It limits the scope of application control to scan application traffic on DNS protocol only.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

Which two statements about SSL VPN between two FortiGate devices are true? (Choose two.)

A. The client FortiGate requires a client certificate signed by the CA on the server FortiGate.

B. The client FortiGate requires a manually added route to remote subnets.

C. The client FortiGate uses the SSL VPN tunnel interface type to connect to SSL VPN.

D. Server FortiGate requires a CA certificate to verify the client FortiGate certificate.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.9/cookbook/266506/ssl-vpn-with-certificateauthentication

QUESTION 4:

Which statement about video filtering on FortiGate is true?

A. Full SSL Inspection is not required.

B. It is available only on a proxy-based firewall policy.

C. It inspects video files hosted on file-sharing services.

D. Video filtering FortiGuard categories are based on web filter FortiGuard categories.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.0.0/new-features/190873/video-filtering

QUESTION 5:

Why does FortiGate keep TCP sessions in the session table for some seconds even after both sides (client and server) have terminated the session?

A. To remove the NAT operation.

B. To generate logs

C. To finish any inspection operations.

D. To allow for out-of-order packets that could arrive after the FIN/ACK packets.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

When a firewall policy is created, which attribute is added to the policy to support recording logs to a FortiAnalyzer or a FortiManager and improves functionality when a FortiGate is integrated with these devices?

A. Log ID

B. Universally Unique Identifier

C. Policy ID

D. Sequence ID

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.0.0/handbook/554066/firewall-policies

QUESTION 7:

Which two types of traffic are managed only by the management VDOM? (Choose two.)

A. FortiGuard web filter queries

B. PKI

C. Traffic shaping

D. DNS

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8:

Which three criteria can a FortiGate use to look for a matching firewall policy to process traffic? (Choose three.)

A. Source defined as Internet Services in the firewall policy.

B. Destination is defined as Internet Services in the firewall policy.

C. Highest to lowest priority defined in the firewall policy.

D. Services defined in the firewall policy.

E. Lowest to the highest policy ID number.

Correct Answer: ABD

Reference: https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD47435

QUESTION 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest NSE4_FGT-7.0 dumps questions 9

A network administrator is troubleshooting an IPsec tunnel between two FortiGate devices. The administrator has determined that phase 1 status is up. but phase 2 fails to come up. Based on the phase 2 configuration shown in the exhibit, what configuration change will bring phase 2 up?

A. On HQ-FortiGate, enable Auto-negotiate.

B. On Remote-FortiGate, set Seconds to 43200.

C. On HQ-FortiGate, enable Diffie-Hellman Group 2.

D. On HQ-FortiGate set Encryption to AES256.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/5.4.0/cookbook/168495

QUESTION 10:

An administrator does not want to report the logon events of service accounts to FortiGate. What setting on the collector agent is required to achieve this?

A. Add the support of NTLM authentication.

B. Add user accounts to Active Directory (AD).

C. Add user accounts to the FortiGate group fitter.

D. Add user accounts to the Ignore User List.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

Consider the topology: Application on a Windows machine FGT–> Telnet to Linux server. An administrator is investigating a problem where an application establishes a Telnet session to a Linux server over the SSL VPN through FortiGate and the idle session times out after about 90 minutes. The administrator would like to increase or disable this timeout.

The administrator has already verified that the issue is not caused by the application or Linux server. This issue does not happen when the application establishes a Telnet connection to the Linux server directly on the LAN. What two changes can the administrator make to resolve the issue without affecting services running through FortiGate? (Choose two.)

A. Set the maximum session TTL value for the TELNET service object.

B. Set the session TTL on the SSLVPN policy to the maximum, so the idle session timeout will not happen after 90 minutes.

C. Create a new service object for TELNET and set the maximum session TTL.

D. Create a new firewall policy and place it above the existing SSLVPN policy for the SSL VPN traffic, and set the new TELNET service object in the policy.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12:

In an explicit proxy setup, where are the authentication method and database configured?

A. Proxy Policy

B. Authentication Rule

C. Firewall Policy

D. Authentication scheme

Correct Answer: D


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TypeNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam code
Free12Troubleshooting Microsoft TeamsMS-740
QUESTION 1:

You need to resolve the partner company communication issue.

Which two PowerShell commands should you run? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Get-CsExternalAccessPolicy | Set-CsExternalAccessPolicy -EnableFederationAccess $True

B. Set-CsTenantFederationConfiguration -allowed domains

C. Set-CsAccessEdgeConfiguration -AllowFederatedUsers

D. New-CsAllowedDomain -identity

E. Get-CsOnlineUser | Set-CsExternalAccessPolicy -EnableFederationAccess $True

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/skype/set-csexternalaccesspolicy?view=skype-ps
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/skype/new-csalloweddomain?view=skype-ps

QUESTION 2:

You need to resolve the emergency address issue. What should you do?

A. Add only the IPv6 public relay IP address to the trusted IP address list for the tenant.

B. Add only the IPv4 public relay IP address to the trusted IP address list for the tenant.

C. Add the IPv4 and IPv6 public relay addresses to the trusted IP address list for the tenant.

D. Route HTTPS traffic to Microsoft Teams by using a proxy and the proxy IP address.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/configure-dynamic-emergency-calling

QUESTION 3:

You manage a company\’s Microsoft Teams environment.

Members of a team cannot send emails to a channel\’s email address.
You need to determine the cause of the issue.

What are two possible causes? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. The email has more than 10 file attachments.

B. The channel\’s associated SharePoint folder was renamed.

C. The channel email address is part of a distribution list.

D. Email integration is not enabled.

E. The email contains more than 25 inline images.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/send-an-email-to-a-channel-in-teams-
d91db004-d9d7-4a47-82e6-fb1b16dfd51e

QUESTION 4:

A manager wants to review Microsoft Teams call quality metrics for all prep away company employees.
You need to grant the manager access to the Microsoft Teams Call Quality Dashboard.

Which role should you assign to the manager?

A. Teams Communications Administrator

B. Teams Communications Support Specialist

C. Teams Communications Support Engineer

D. Teams Service Administrator

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/using-admin-roles

QUESTION 5:

A prepay company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements:

1.
Guest users from specific domains must be allowed to collaborate by using Microsoft Teams.

2.
Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests.

You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements.

What should you recommend?

A. Run the following PowerShell cmdlets: New-AzureADPolicy | Set-AzureADPolicy

B. From the Microsoft Teams admin center, modify external collaboration settings.

C. From Azure Active Directory, modify external collaboration settings.

D. From the Microsoft Teams admin center, modify the Communicate with Skype users option.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.thatlazyadmin.com/2019/07/09/how-to-prevent-microsoft-teams-guest-users-from-inviting-guests/

QUESTION 6:

HOTSPOT

A company uses Microsoft Teams. A user reports that they are unable to sign in to Teams. The user is able to reproduce the issue on multiple devices. The user provides you with the following screenshot that shows the error message.

latest MS-740 dumps questions 6

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

latest MS-740 dumps questions 6-1

Correct Answer:

latest MS-740 dumps answers 6

QUESTION 7:

An organization has E5 licenses without audio conferencing.

When a user sends a chat message from the Microsoft Teams desktop app the messages are not delivered to recipients. When the user sends a chat message by using the Teams mobile app the messages are delivered.

You need to resolve the issue.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Deactivate and reactivate the user\’s Teams license.

B. Update the Teams desktop app to the latest version.

C. Sign out of Teams and sign back into Teams.

D. Clear the Teams app local cache and the Windows credentials cache.

Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 8:

DRAG DROP

You manage the Microsoft Teams environment for a tenant.
Users report authentication issues. In the Azure AD admin center, you view many sign-in error codes.
You need to manually reset Seamless Single Sign-on (SSO).

Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

latest MS-740 dumps questions 8

Correct Answer:

latest MS-740 dumps answers 8

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/tshoot-connect-sso

QUESTION 9:

A prepay company uses Microsoft Teams.
You need to prevent users from using a specific app within Teams.

What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. On the Permission policies page of the Teams admin center, create a custom policy and assign the policy to users.

B. On the Enterprise applications page in the Azure Active Directory admin center, disable the app.

C. On the Users page of the Azure Active Directory admin center, disable the app.

D. On the Manage Apps page of the Teams admin center, disable the app.

E. On the Setup policies page of the Teams admin center, create a custom policy and assign the policy to users.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/manage-
apps#:~:text=In%20the%20left%20navigation%20of,(DoD)%20deployments%20of%20Teams
.

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/app-policies

QUESTION 10:

A prepay company limits users that are authorized to create Microsoft 365 groups.
A user reports that they do not have the option to create new teams in the Microsoft Teams app.
You need to ensure that the user can create teams.

What should you do?

A. Disable Conditional Access policies.

B. Clear the Teams cache for the user and restart the Microsoft Teams client app.

C. Add the user to a security group.

D. Add the user to a distribution group.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

You are an administrator in an organization. You share files in chats with other users.
The users report that they are unable to access the files. Users see an error message as shown in the image:

latest MS-740 dumps questions 11

You need to resolve the issue by updating the OneDrive for Business settings for the users. You navigate to the settings page for Team\’s SharePoint site collection. What should you do?

A. Enable Limited-access user permission lockdown mode.

B. Enable document sets.

C. Disable Limited-access user permission lockdown mode.

D. Disable site policy.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/troubleshoot/administration/access-denied-or-need-permission-error-sharepoint-online-or-onedrive-for-business

QUESTION 12:

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

A prepay company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
The company has a main office in one region. The company opens a new office in another region. You must relocate 400 users to the new office.

Solution: Create a configuration profile with the emergency address and assign the profile to the device for each user.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/assign-change-emergency-location-user


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QUESTION 1

A customer is looking to implement a Web-Based Health Check solution with the following requirements:
for the HR user\\’s client devices, check if a USB stick is mounted.
for the RandD user\\’s client devices, check if the hard disk is fully encrypted.
The Web-Based Health Check service has been configured but the customer it is not sure how to design the Profile
Policy.
How can be accomplished this customer request?

A. create two Posture Policies and customize the OnGuard Agent (Persistent or Dissolvable) to select the correct SHV
checks

B. create one Posture Policy and define Rules Conditions that will apply different Tokens for each SHV check condition

C. create two Posture Policies and use the Restrict by Roles option to filter for HR and RandD user roles and apply the
correct SHV checks

D. create one Posture Policy to check the HR users client devices and use the NAP Agent to check RandD users client
devices

 

QUESTION 2

A customer is complaining that some of the devices, in their manufacturing network, are not getting profiled while other loT devices from the same subnet have been correctly profiled. The network switches have been configured for DHCP IP helpers and IF-MAP has been configured on the Aruba Controllers. What can the customer do to discover those devices as well? (Select two.)

A. Update the Fingerprints Dictionary to the latest in case new devices have been added.
B. Open a TAC case to help you troubleshoot the DHCP device profile functionality.
C. Add the ClearPass Server IP as an IP helper address on the default gateway as well.
D. Allow time for IF-MAP service on the controller to discover the new devices as well.
E. Manually create a new device fingerprint for the devices that are not being profiled.

 

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit: The customer configured an 802.1x service with different enforcement actions for personal and
corporate laptops. The corporate laptops are always being redirected to the BYOD Portal. The customer has sent you
the above screenshots. How would you resolve the issue? (Select two)

HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q3 HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q3-1 HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q3-2

A. Modify the enforcement policy and change the rule evaluation algorithm to select first match
B. Modify the enforcement policy and re-order the condition with posture not_equals to healthy as the sixth condition
C. Modify the enforcement policy and re-order the EAP-PEAP with [user authenticated] rule to the last condition.
D. Modify the enforcement policy and re-order the condition with Posture – Unknown as the fifth condition
E. Remove the EAP-PEAP with [user authenticated] condition for Onboard and create another service

 

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit: The customer created a new enforcement policy condition to allow VIP Users access without
additional security compliance checks hut cannot gel it working. The customer has sent you the above screenshots.
How would you resolve the issue?

HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q4 HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q4-1 HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q4-2

A. Ask the VIP user to complete the one time web health check to get the VIP profile.
B. Set the Enforcement Policy rules evaluation algorithm to evaluate all.
C. Include VIP User role along with the Healthy posture enforcement condition.
D. Modify the Enforcement Policy and re-order the VIP user condition to the lop.

 

QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit:

HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q5 HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q5-1 HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q5-2

Your customer configured a ClearPass server to process the Guest and Secure SSIDs broadcasting from both Aruba
and Cisco WLAN controllers When an Employee connects to Aruba or Cisco secure SSID, the authentication hits the
guest service causing the client to fail the connection to the network.
What change can be implemented to make both the secure and guest services created for Aruba and Cisco devices to
work correctly?

A. Move the HS-Guest User Authentication with MAC Caching service to the first position.
B. Modify the service rule matching algorithm to ALL in HS-Guest User Authentication service.
C. Disable HS-Guest User Authentication service and move HS-Guest MAC Authentication to seventh position.
D. Move the HS_Building Aruba 802.1x service to the second position in the service order.

 

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit:

HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q6 HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q6-1 HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q6-2 HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q6-3 HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q6-4

You have configured Onboard and cannot get it working The customer has sent you the above screenshots. How would you resolve the issue?

A. Re-provision the client by running the QuickConnect application as Administrator
B. Install a public signed server authentication certificate on the ClearPass server for EAP
C. Reconnect the client and select the correct certificate when prompted
D. Copy the [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] authentication method and set the correct OCSP URL

 

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit: A customer has configured Onboard and Windows devices work as expected but cannot get the
Apple iOS devices to Onboard successfully. Where would you look to troubleshoot the Issued (Select two)

HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q7

A. Check if the ClearPass HTTPS server certificate installed in the server is issued by a trusted commercial certificate
authority.

B. Check if the customer installed the internal PKl Root certificate presented by the ClearPass during the provisioning
process.

C. Check if a DNS entry is available for the ClearPass hostname in the certificate, resolvable from the DNS server
assigned to the client.

D. Check if the customer has Instated a custom HTTPS certificate for IDS and another internal PKl HTTPS certificate for
other devices.

E. Check if the customer has installed the same internal PKl signed RADIUS server certificate as the HTTPS server
certificate.

 

QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit:

HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q8 HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q8-1 HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q8-2 HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q8-3 HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q8-4

You have configured an Onboard portal for single SSID provision. During testing you notice that the QuickConnect
Application did not display the “Connect” button, only the finish button. To get connected the test user had to manually connect to the secure-HS-5007 SSID but was prompted for a username and password.
Using the screenshots as a reference, how would you fix this issue?

A. Check the network settings for the correct SSID name spelling.
B. Change the network settings to use EAP-TLS for the authentication protocol.
C. Install a public signed HTTPs web server certificate on the ClearPass server.
D. Configure the SSID to support both EAP-PEAP and EAP-TLS authentication method.

 

QUESTION 9

A Customer has these requirements:
*
2.000 loT endpoints that use MAC authentication
*
6,000 endpoints using a mix of username/password and certificate (Corporate/BYOD) based authentication
*
1,000 guest endpoints at peak usage that use guest self-registration
*
1500 BYOD devices estimated as 3 devices per User (500 users)
*
2,500 endpoints that have OnGuard installed and connect on a daily basis
What licenses should be installed to meet customer requirements?

A. 11,500 Access, 500 Onboard, 2,500 Onguard
B. 13.000 Access, 1.500 Onboard, 2,500 Onguard
C. 11,500 Access, 1,500 Onboard, 2.500 Onguard
D. 9,000 Access, 500 Onboard. 2.500 Onguard

 

QUESTION 10

You have configured a Guest SSID with Captive-portal Web Authentication and MAC authentication The MAC caching
expiry time set to 12 hours and the Guest Account expiration time is set to 8 hours. What will happen if the guest were
to disconnect from the SSID and re-connect 9 hours later?

A. The client will tail the MAC authentication and be denied access to the Guest SSID.
B. The client will successfully pass the mac authentication until the mac caching time expires.
C. The client will successfully pass the MAC authentication but still be redirected to captive portal page.
D. The client will fail the MAC authentication and will be redirected to the Captive-portal login page.

 

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit: After the helpdesk revoked the certificate of a device reported to be lost oy an employee, the lost
device was seen as connected successfully to the secure network. Further testing has shown that device revocation is
not working. What steps should you follow to make device revocations work?

HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q11 HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q11-1 HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q11-2

A. Copy the default [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] authentication method and set The Verify certificate using OSCP
option as required then update the correct OSCP URL link of the OnBoard CA. Remove EAP-TLS and map the custom
created method to the OnBoard Authorization Service.

B. copy the default [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] authentication method and set the verify certificate using OSCP:
option as “required” then configure the correct OSCF URL link for the OnBoard CA. Remove EAP-TLS and map the
new [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] method to the 802 1X Radius Service.

C. Remove the EAP-TLS authentication method configuration changes are required and add “EAP-TLS with OCSP
Enabled” authentication method in the OnBoard Provisioning service. No other configuration changes are required.

D. Edit the default [EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] authentication method and set the Verify certificate using OSCP
option as required then update the correct OSCP URL link of the OnBoard CA Remove EAP-TLS and map the new
[EAP-TLS with OSCP Enabled] method to the OnBoard Provisioning Service.

 

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit: A customer has configured a Guest Self registration page for their Cisco Wireless network with the
settings shown. What should be changed in order to successfully authenticate guests users?

HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q12 HP hpe6-a77 exam questions q12-1

A. Secure Login should use HTTP
B. Change the Vendor Settings to Airespace Networks
C. Change \he IP Address to the Cisco Controller DNS name
D. Login Method should be Controller-initiated – using HTTPs form submit

 

QUESTION 13

A customer has created a Guest Sett-Registration page that they would like to use it as `template\\’ for all the new
pages that are going to be created from now on. Their goal is to ensure that the header and footer on every page are
the same, and any edits made to them are automatically reflected on every Self-Registration Page.
What should be configured in order to accomplish this request?

A. Save the “template” page as Master Self-Registration page
B. Create child pages when creating new Self-Registration pages and select the “template” as Parent
C. Save this “template” page as a new Skin to be used on other Self-Registration pages
D. Copy the “template” page and edit it each time a new Self-Registration Page is needed

Publish the answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
ADECDCAAACACCCCC

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HP HPE6-A72 exam questions online test

Participate in the HP HPE6-A72 online test to verify your strength, the answer will be announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

What are two primary concerns regarding layer two loops in a redundant topology? (Choose two.)

A. routing loops
B. costs associated with upgrading from copper to fiber
C. multiple frame copies leading to instability of the MAC address table
D. security issues with a redundant loop indicating to hackers that a back-door exists
E. broadcast storms

 

QUESTION 2

You have completed a successful VSF stack between two switches.
Without manually assigning a backup switch, what is the expected output when issuing a show vsf command?

hp hpe6-a72 exam questions q2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

 

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit.

hp hpe6-a72 exam questions q3

Which command produces the above output?

A. show interface port 1/1/10 trunk
B. show vlan port 1/1/10
C. show trunk port 1/1/10 extended
D. show interface port 1/1/10 switchport

 

QUESTION 4

What are two features in a 2-Tier design that are implemented at the Access layer? (Choose two.)

A. VPN access
B. WAN/MPLS connectivity
C. Endpoint Access
D. Deep packet inspection
E. Power over Ethernet

 

QUESTION 5

Which switches support Aruba Virtual Switching Extension (VSX)? (Choose two.)

A. Aruba 6405
B. Aruba 2930F
C. Aruba 8400
D. Aruba 5406R
E. Aruba 8350

 

QUESTION 6

What command displays information regarding the secondary image installed on an AOS-CX switch?

A. show secondary
B. show version detail
C. show version
D. show images

 

QUESTION 7

Which port or ports should be allowed through a firewall so that an AOS-CX switch can act as an SNMP Agent?

A. UDP 1812 and UDP 1813
B. UDP 161
C. TCP 443
D. UDP 162

 

QUESTION 8

DRAG DROP
Match each description to the correct management tool for Aruba AOS-CX.
Select and Place:

hp hpe6-a72 exam questions q8

Correct Answer:

hp hpe6-a72 exam questions q8-1

 

QUESTION 9

Which two options are considered the Layer 2 protocols? (Choose two.)

A. 802.1Q
B. IPSec
C. STP
D. RIP
E. 802.11af

 

QUESTION 10

What are two methods for remotely managing an Aruba AOS-CX switch? (Choose two.)

A. SNMPv2c
B. HTTPS
C. USB-C console
D. Telnet
E. SSH

Verify answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10
CDDCCEACDBIMAGEACBE

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The answer is announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

An administrator manages an AirWave Management Platform (AMP). The AMP server receives many SNMP traps from
managed devices, but no alerts are generated on the AMP for certain critical traps.
Which rule should the administrator create to cause the AMP server to generate an alert based on receipt of a critical
SNMP trap from an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC)?

A. AMON rule
B. SNMP trap rule
C. Trigger rule
D. Alert rule

QUESTION 2

An administrator wants to dynamically upgrade AppRF on Aruba Mobility Controllers (MC) in a cluster. The
administrator does not want to reboot the system at the time of the upgrade.
What should the administrator use for this upgrade?

A. Aruba image
B. Upgrade Profiles
C. Loadable Service Module (LSM)
D. Cluster Upgrade Manager

QUESTION 3

What is true about Aruba controllers under normal operations in a Mobility Master (MM)- Mobility Controller (MC)
architecture?

A. The Mobility Master can push a full configuration to a Mobility Controller.
B. ARM must be used to optimize wireless performance.
C. The APs can terminate on both Mobility Masters and Mobility Controllers.
D. Any controller can perform local configurations.

QUESTION 4

A guest establishes an authenticated wireless session to an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC). The controller uses a
ClearPass server for all AAA functions.
Which AAA component disconnects the user when the guest exceeds their allowed duration?

A. RADIUS Change of Authorization
B. Active Directory Session Limits
C. RADIUS Authorization Profile
D. SNMP Disconnect

QUESTION 5

A VIA client tries to initially connect to corporate office controller through an intermediate firewall. However, the VPN
connection fails. The administrator examines the firewall rules and determines that rules for UDP 4500 and UDP 500
are configured.
Which additional protocol must be allowed in the firewall rules to resolve this connection failure?

A. TCP 389
B. UDP 4500
C. UDP 8200
D. TCP 993

QUESTION 6

An administrator wants to implement AAA in an Aruba wireless environment that references two ClearPass servers for
redundancy. To use these servers, what must the administrator create that will be referenced in the AAA profile?

A. ClearPass Group
B. Server matching rules
C. Server Group
D. Server Load Balancing

QUESTION 7

An administrator needs to support Unified Communications and Collaboration (UCC) in a company\\’s network. The
network infrastructure requires the OpenFlow protocol to support SDN-capable applications. Which controller topology meets these requirements?

A. Zones
B. Standalone Mobility Controller
C. Mobility Master-Mobility Controller
D. Master-Local

QUESTION 8

An administrator configures a port on a RAP through the association of an AAA profile with 802.1X authentication to a
RAP Ethernet port. This port connects to a switch with user desktops attached. The administrator notices that when
users connect wirelessly to the RAP, a user role correctly restricts their traffic. But, when users connect with their wired
desktops, they are assigned an initial role and routed to a Captive Portal page.
What must the administrator do to enable desktop usage based on the user\\’s role assignment?

A. Implement ACLs on the RAP port.
B. Apply a server-derived role policy to the RAP port.
C. Identify the RAP port as untrusted.
D. Map the RAP port to an authentication profile.

QUESTION 9

An administrator enables AP load balancing for a cluster of Mobility Controllers (MCs). APs connected to the cluster
have an LMS IP address configured in their AP Group configuration. No other parameters are changed in the cluster.
If the two load AP thresholds are reached, what occurs?

A. The APs are rebalanced across the cluster.
B. The APs always stay connected to the LMS IP address configured in the AP Group profile.
C. The users are rebalanced across the cluster.
D. The users and APs are rebalanced across the cluster.

QUESTION 10

An administrator makes a configuration change on a Mobility Master (MM) that causes a Managed Controller to lose
connectivity with the MM. The MC attempts auto roll-back, but this fails.
How should the administrator recover from this problem?

A. Access the CLI of the MC and execute the no command to revert the changes.
B. Access the CLI of the MC and identify the previous configuration file the MC should use.
C. Reboot the MC to force auto-roll back to occur.
D. Access the CLI of the MC, execute the disaster-recovery command, and undo the changes.

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit.

hp hpe6-a71 exam questions q11

An administrator configures a policy for an AP Group. Port 3 of a RAP is a trunk that connects to a switch at a branch
office. VLAN 1 is untagged and VLANs 10 (for data) and 11 (for voice) are tagged. The administrator applies an ACL
inbound on Port 3 of the RAP.
How does this configuration affect traffic on Port 3?

A. It filters traffic from VLAN 10 and 11, but allows traffic from VLAN1.
B. It filters traffic form VLAN 1, but allows traffic from VLANs 10 and 11.
C. It allows all traffic form VLANs 1, 10, and 11.
D. It filters traffic from VLANs 1, 10, and 11.

QUESTION 12

An administrator implements the MultiZone feature and uses two clusters that utilize CPSec. A primary and a data zone
are created. MultiZone APs successfully build sessions to the primary cluster but fail to establish sessions to the data
zone cluster.
What must the administrator do to solve this problem?

A. Enable CPSec in the MultiZone profile for both the primary and data zone.
B. Enable MultiZone booting in the MultiZone AP apboot configuration mode.
C. Add the MultiZone APs to the data zone\\’s CPSec whitelist.
D. Use different AP Group names for the two zones.

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit.

hp hpe6-a71 exam questions q13

An administrator implements AP licensing on a Mobility Master (MM).
Network engineers at CampusA want to deploy an additional 100 APs. Currently all of the AP licenses in CampusA and
CampusB are allocated, but only 200 of the AP licenses in CampusC are allocated.
Each campus is responsible to purchase its own AP licenses. There are 900 AP licenses deployed in the global pool.
There are three dedicated pools.
From the global pool, 300 AP licenses are assigned to each dedicated pool.
What can the administrator do to add capacity for CampusA in alignment with campus policies?

A. Allow CampusA to share from the CampusC pool.
B. Add 100 more AP licenses and assign them to the CampusA pool.
C. Move 100 licenses from the CampusC pool to the global pool.
D. Add 100 more AP licenses to the global pool.

Verify the answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
CCAABCCCDDDCC

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