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200-310 dumps
QUESTION 1
In the traditional hierarchical LAN design,Which two statement about the distribution layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. It typically is connected directly to the internet It provides users direct access to the network
B. It uses Layer 2 switching only
C. It aggregates data from the access layer
D. Policy is implemented at this layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the HSRP active moves to the right distribution, and the STP root remains on the left distribution?
A. The STP root becomes the gateway
B. The interdistribution link is used for transit
C. The HSRP standby becomes the gateway
D. The interaccess link is used for transit
E. Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Why would an engineer implement variable length subnet masks?
A. To make a subnet public
B. To prevent wasting IP addresses
C. To make a subnet its own VLAN
D. To expand an existing subnet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which command is correct for creating a virtual interface on Cisco wireless controller?
A. config create interface
B. tag interface
C. config interface address
D. untag interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two design decision can improve network resiliency? 200-310 dumps (you have to chose 2 answers)
A. Implement redundant link
B. Increase data plane bandwidth
C. Implement serial device connection
D. Reduce network size
E. Implement redundant topology
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
A network design engineer is seeking a dynamic routing protocol that supports fast convergence in a Cisco environment.
What protocol allows for this?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
DataQuirk is a web-based medical transcription company for exotic-animal veterinarians. The company recently added a third ISP for international business. They are organizing the enterprise network into a fully operational Enterprise Edge.
To which two modules will the three ISPs be directly related? (Choose two.)
A. PSTN
B. E-Commerce
C. WAN/MAN
D. Edge Distribution
E. Internet Connectivity
F. Remote Access VPN
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
What network virtualization technology can be leveraged within the data center to reduce the number of physical devices?
A. VLANs
B. VPLS
C. VDC
D. VSS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network should these services be provisioned?
A. Core
B. Aggregation
C. Layer 3 access
D. Distribution
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What three design requirements are key to design a Campus Core?
A. Low latency
B. Access control
C. Traffic filtering
D. High speed
E. Redundant links
F. QoS tagging
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 11
A network engineer is following the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model. 200-310 dumps To which network layer would a branch office connect to using a private VLAN?
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. SP Edge Premise
D. Remote Module
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An application uses broadcast traffic to send data to IPv4 hosts. How can the application communicate using IPv6?
A. Anycast
B. Unicast
C. Broadcast
D. Multicast
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which effect do thery have on the routing table?
A. Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is added
B. Only the route with the highest administrative distance is added
C. Both routes are added
D. Neither route is added, and a loop is formed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which two Cisco data center can participate in Cisco FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
When considering the three VoIP design models – single site, centralized multisite, and distributed multisite – which question would help to eliminate one of the options?
A. Will the witches be required to provide inline power?
B. Will users need to make offsite calls, beyond the enterprise?
C. Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response?
D. Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN?
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCIE
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam
Exam Code: 400-101
Total Questions: 828 Q&As
400-101 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about the max-age time in IS-IS are true? (Choose two.)
A. The IS-IS max-age time is 20 minutes by default.
B. The IS-IS max-age time is 60 minutes by default.
C. The IS-IS max-age time increments from zero to max-age.
D. The IS-IS max-age time decrements from max-age to zero.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs. You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to enable the routers to exchange routes?
A. Change the corresponding loopback address.
B. Change the router ID on R2.
C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship.
D. Clear the EIGRP process.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about OSPF route filtering are true? (Choose two)
A. It can be based on the source router ID.
B. It can be based on the external route tag.
C. It affects LSA flooding.
D. It can be based on the as-path.
E. It can be based on distance.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about IS-IS? 400-101 dumps (Choose two.)
A. IS-IS DIS election is nondeterministic.
B. IS-IS SPF calculation is performed in three phases.
C. IS-IS works over the data link layer, which does not provide for fragmentation and reassembly.
D. IS-IS can never be routed beyond the immediate next hop.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about PIM-DM are true? (Choose two.)
A. It forwards multicast packets on a source tree.
B. It requires an RP.
C. It forwards multicast packets on a shared distribution tree.
D. It floods multicast packets to neighbors that have requested the data.
E. It floods multicast packets throughout the network.
F. It forwards multicast packets to neighbors that have requested the data.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Which BGP feature allows R1 to instruct R2 which prefixes it is allowed to advertise to R1?
A. route refresh
B. Prefix-Based Outbound Route Filtering
C. distribute lists
D. prefix lists
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three capabilities are provided by MLD snooping? (Choose three.)
A. dynamic port learning
B. IPv6 multicast router discovery
C. user-configured ports age out automatically
D. a 5-minute aging timer
E. flooding control packets to the egress VLAN
F. a 60-second aging timer
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
Which option describes a limitation of Embedded Packet Capture?
A. It can capture data only on physical interfaces and subinterfaces.
B. It can store only packet data.
C. It can capture multicast packets only on ingress.
D. It can capture multicast packets only on egress.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about IGPs are true? 400-101 dumps (Choose Two)
A. RIPv2 and IS-IS calculate the metric of a link based on the bandwidth of a link.
B. OSPF and IS-IS are classless protocols.
C. OSPF and EIGRP have high resource usage.D. RiPv2 and EIGRP support VLSM.
E. RIPv2 and OSPF are distance vector protocols.
F. IS-IS and EIGRP are link-state protocols.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
In which type of EIGRP configuration is EIGRP IPv6 VRF-Lite available?
A. stub
B. named mode
C. classic mode
D. passive
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
According to RFC 4577, OSPF for BGP/MPLS IP VPNs, when must the down bit be set?
A. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 LSAs
B. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 5 LSAs
C. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for Type 3 and Type 5 LSAs
D. when an OSPF route is distributed from the PE to the CE, for all types of LSAs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about the BGP community attribute are true? (Choose two.)
A. Routers send the community attribute to all BGP neighbors automatically.
B. A router can change a received community attribute before advertising it to peers.
C. It is a well-known, discretionary BGP attribute.
D. It is an optional transitive BGP attribute.
E. A prefix can support only one community attribute.
Correct Answer: BD

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 310 Q&As
lead4pass 210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HTTP GET requests during normal operations? (Choose three).
A. when matching NAT entries are configured
B. when matching ACL entries are configured
C. when the firewall receives a SYN-ACK packet
D. when the firewall receives a SYN packet
E. when the firewall requires HTTP inspection
F. when the firewall requires strict HTTP inspection
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 3
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to the destination
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose three.)
A. BOOTP
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. MAB
E. HTTP
F. 802.1x
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 8
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A specific URL has been identified as containing malware. What action can you take to block users from accidentally visiting the URL and becoming infected with malware.
A. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to block to the router’s local URL list.
B. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter firewall and add the URLs you want to allow to the router’s local URL list.
C. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to allow to the firewall’s local URL list.
D. Create a blacklist that contains the URL you want to block and activate the blacklist on the perimeter router.
E. Create a whitelist that contains the URLs you want to allow and activate the whitelist on the perimeter router.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
How can the administrator enable permanent client installation in a Cisco AnyConnect VPN firewall configuration?
A. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
B. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed in the global configuration
C. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed under the group policy or username webvpn mode
D. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Some routers have been configured with default routes. 100-105 dumps What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 8
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. 100-105 dumps What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?
A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
A. shutdown
B. protect
C. shutdown vlan
D. restrict
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: EXIN
Certifications: EXIN ITIL
Exam Name: ITIL Foundation (syllabus 2011)
Exam Code: EX0-001
Total Questions: 425 Q&As
EX0-001 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term service management?
A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
B. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose
C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?
A. To prevent problems and their resultant Incidents
B. To manage problems throughout their lifecycle
C. To restore service to a user
D. To eliminate recurring incidents
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following is an objective of service catalogue management?
A. Negotiating and agreeing service level agreement
B. Negotiating and agreeing operational level agreements
C. Ensuring that the service catalogue is made available to those approved to access it
D. Only ensuring that adequate technical resources are available
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of release and deployment management? EX0-001 dumps
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by service design
B. To ensure that each release package specified by service design consists of a set of related assets and service components
C. To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriate
D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which one of the following activities are carried out during the “Where do we want to be?” step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
A. Implementing service and process improvements
B. Reviewing measurements and metrics
C. Creating a baseline
D. Defining measurable targets
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?
A. Definitive media library (DML)
B. Configuration management system (CMS)
C. Statement of requirements (SOR)
D. Standard operating procedures (SOP)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
The effective management of risk requires specific types of action. Which of the following pairs of actions would be BEST to manage risk?
A. Training in risk management for all staff and identification of risks
B. Identification of risk, analysis and management of the exposure to risk
C. Control of exposure to risk and investment of capital
D. Training of all staff and investment of capital
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?
A. Standards
B. Technology
C. Academic research
D. Internal experience
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Service design emphasizes the importance of the “Four Ps”. These “Four Ps” include Partners, People, Processes and one other “P”. EX0-001 dumps Which of the following is the additional “P”?
A. Profit
B. Preparation
C. Products
D. Potential
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of service design?
A. The design of the service portfolio, including the service catalogue
B. The design of new or changed services
C. The design of market spaces
D. The design of the technology architectures
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?
A. A service level agreement (SLA)
B. A request for change (RFC)
C. The service portfolio
D. A service description
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?
1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customer’s successful
2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment
3. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
What are the categories of event described in the ITIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
A process owner is responsible for which of the following?
1. Defining the process strategy
2. Assisting with process design
3. Improving the process
4. Performing all activities involved in a process
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction? EX0-001 dumps
A. Capacity management
B. Governance
C. Service design
D. Service level management
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. extends the network to remote users
B. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
C. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
D. reduces the number of physical connections
E. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access model in the data center?
A. It supports NIC teaming.
B. It removes STP dependency.
C. It increases scalability.
D. It improves convergence time.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
WAN backup over the Internet is often used to provide primary connection redundancy. Which is the most important consideration when passing corporate traffic over the public Internet?
A. security
B. static versus dynamic routing
C. bandwidth
D. QoS
E. latency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. 200-105 dumps
200-105 dumps
Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network should these services be provisioned?
A. core
B. aggregation
C. Layer 3 access
D. distribution
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? 200-105 dumps (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
A. The router will drop the packet.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
D. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the AcmeB router. What action does the router take?
A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces, 200-105 dumps customized according to interface, with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which statement is true about the Cisco NAC Appliance?
A. recognizes users, their devices, and their roles in the network
B. does not offer audit and reporting features
C. must be placed inline with other network devices
D. does not recognize guest users
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A data center is being deployed, and one design requirement is to be able to readily scale server virtualization. Which IETF standard technology can provide this requirement?
A. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links
B. Cisco FabricPath
C. data center bridging
D. Cisco Unified Fabric
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Exam Code: 70-412
Total Questions: 424 Q&As
70-412 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. Contoso.com contains one domain. Adatum.com contains a child domain named child.adatum.- com.
Contoso.com has a one-way forest trust to adatum.com. Selective authentication is enabled on the forest trust.
Several user accounts are migrated from child.adatum.com to adatum.com. Users report that after the migration, they fail to access resources in contoso.com. The users suc- cessfully accessed the resources in contoso.com before the accounts were migrated.
You need to ensure that the migrated users can access the resources in contoso.com.
What should you do?
A. Replace the existing forest trust with an external trust.
B. Run netdom and specify the /quarantine attribute.
C. Disable SID filtering on the existing forest trust.
D. Disable selective authentication on the existing forest trust.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Your network contains two servers named HV1 and HV2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have the Hyper-V server role installed.
HV1 hosts 25 virtual machines. The virtual machine configuration files and the virtual hard disks are stored in D:\VM.
You shut down all of the virtual machines on HV1.
You copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2.
You need to start all of the virtual machines on HV2. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the Import-VMInitialReplication cmdlet.
B. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and over- write the existing files. On HV2, run the Import Virtual Machine wizard.
C. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and over- write the existing files. On HV2, run the New Virtual Machine wizard.
D. Run the Import-VM cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your network contains two Web servers named Server1 and Server2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster. 70-412 dumps The NLB cluster contains an application named App1 that is accessed by using the URL http://app1.contoso.com.
You plan to perform maintenance on Server1.
You need to ensure that all new connections to App1 are directed to Server2. The solution must not disconnect the existing connections to Server1.
What should you run?
A. The Set-NlbCluster cmdlet
B. The Set-NlbClusterNode cmdlet
C. The Stop-NlbCluster cmdlet
D. The Stop-NlbClusterNode cmdlet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that has the Active Directory Federation Services server role in- stalled. All servers run Windows Server 2012.d
You complete the Active Directory Federation Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
You need to ensure that client devices on the internal network can use Workplace Join.
Which two actions should you perform on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the so- lution. Choose two.)
A. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration -PrepareActiveDirectory.
B. Edit the multi-factor authentication global authentication policy settings.
C. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration.
D. Run Set-AdfsProxyProperties HttpPort 80.
E. Edit the primary authentication global authentication policy settings.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and childl.contoso.com. The domains contain three domain con- trollers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-412 dumps
You need to ensure that the KDC support for claims, compound authentication, and kerberos ar- moring setting is enforced in the child1.contoso.com domain.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
B. Upgrade DC11 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
C. Raise the domain functional level of childl.contoso.com.
D. Raise the domain functional level of contoso.com.
E. Raise the forest functional level of contoso.com.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
A previous administrator implemented a Proof of Concept installation of Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS)
After the proof of concept was complete, the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role was removed.
You attempt to deploy AD RMS.
During the configuration of AD RMS, you receive an error message indicating that an existing AD RMS Service Connection Point (SCP) was found.
You need to remove the existing AD RMS SCP.
Which tool should you use?
A. Active Directory Users and Computers
B. Authorization Manager
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. Active Directory Sites and Services
E: Active Directory Rights Management Services
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains two domain controllers. 70-412 dumps
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-412 dumps
You configure a user named User1 as a delegated administrator of DC10.
You need to ensure that User1 can log on to DC10 if the network link between the Main site and the Branch site fails.
What should you do?
A. Add User1 to the Domain Admins group.
B. On DC10, modify the User Rights Assignment in Local Policies.
C. Run repadmin and specify the /prp parameter.
D. On DC10, run ntdsutil and configure the settings in the Roles context.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Your network contains a perimeter network and an internal network. The internal network con- tains an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.1 infrastructure. The infrastructure uses Active Directory as the attribute store.
You plan to deploy a federation server proxy to a server named Server2 in the perimeter net- work.
You need to identify which value must be included in the certificate that is deployed to Server2.
What should you identify?
A. The FQDN of the AD FS server
B. The name of the Federation Service
C. The name of the Active Directory domain
D. The public IP address of Server2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 have the Failover Clustering feature installed. The servers are configured as nodes in a failover cluster named Cluster1. Cluster1 contains a cluster disk resource.
A developer creates an application named App1. App1 is NOT a cluster-aware application. App1 runs as a service. App1 stores date on the cluster disk resource.
You need to ensure that App1 runs in Cluster1. The solution must minimize development effort.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-ClusterGenericServiceRole
B. Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole
C. Add-ClusterScaleOutFileServerRole
D. Add-ClusterServerRole
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your company has offices in Montreal, New York, and Amsterdam. The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. An Active Directory site exists for each office. All of the sites connect to each other by using the DEFAULTIPSITELINK site link. 70-412 dumps
You need to ensure that only between 20:00 and 08:00, the domain controllers in the Montreal office replicate the Active Directory changes to the domain controllers in the Amsterdam office.
The solution must ensure that the domain controllers in the Montreal and the New York offices can replicate the Active Directory changes any time of day.
What should you do?
A. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Remove Amsterdam from DEFAULTIPSITE1INK. Modify the schedule of DEFAULTIPSITE1INK.
B. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Create a new site link bridge. Modify the schedule of DEFAU LTIPSITE1INK.
C. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Remove Amsterdam from DEFAULTIPSITELINK. Modify the schedule of the new site link.
D. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Create a new site link bridge. Modify the schedule of the new site link.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains three domains.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The forest has a two-way realm trust to a Kerberos realm named adatum.com.
You discover that users in adatum.com can only access resources in the root domain of contoso.- com.
You need to ensure that the adatum.com users can access the resources in all of the domains in the forest.
What should you do in the forest?
A. Delete the realm trust and create a forest trust.
B. Delete the realm trust and create three external trusts.
C. Modify the incoming realm trust.
D. Modify the outgoing realm trust.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two child domains named east.contoso.com and west.contoso.com.
You install an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster in each child domain.
You discover that all of the users in the contoso.com forest are directed to the AD RMS cluster in east.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the users in west.contoso.com are directed to the AD RMS cluster in west.contoso.com and that the users in east.contoso.com are directed to the AD RMS cluster in east.contoso.com.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Service Connection Point (SCP).
B. Configure the Group Policy object (GPO) settings of the users in the west.contoso.com do- main.
C. Configure the Group Policy object (GPO) settings of the users in the east.contoso.com do- main.
D. Modify the properties of the AD RMS cluster in west.contoso.com.
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCA-N
Exam Name: Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10.5 for App and Desktop Solutions
Exam Code: 1Y0-253
Total Questions: 186 Q&As
1Y0-253 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two steps must a Citrix Administrator take to allow additional users to access resources using the NetScaler Gateway Plug-in after the administrator installs the universal license on the NetScaler Gateway? (Choose two.)
A. Set ICA Proxy to OFF.
B. Configure Citrix Receiver Home Page.
C. Change the authentication AAA settings.
D. Set Single Sign-on with Windows to OFF.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Which two parameters are required for adding a new node to a cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Cluster IP of the new cluster node
B. NetScaler IP of the new cluster node
C. NetScaler IP of the existing cluster node
D. Remote NetScaler user name and password
E. Backplane interface of the existing cluster node
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Scenario: Users report that they are being presented with a certificate error when they attempt to access the remote access website of the company. 1Y0-253 dumps No changes were made to the NetScaler certificates recently.
What should the Citrix Administrator check on the NetScaler to identify this issue?
A. Cert Links
B. OCSP Binding
C. Certificate Format
D. Certificate Expiry Date
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which monitor should a Citrix Administrator configure to monitor a StoreFront server group with SSL enabled?
A. TCP
B. SSL_TCP
C. STOREFRONT with “Secure” checked
D. CITRIX-WEB-INTERFACE with “Secure” checked
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What should be done to ensure high availability (HA) failover in a NetScaler HA configuration?
A. Disable all unused system interfaces.
B. Disable the IPv6 feature on the NetScaler.
C. Enable all used and unused system interfaces.
D. Change the NetScaler HA setup to two-arm mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A Citrix Administrator needs to track load balanced traffic from the NetScaler to separate, individual subnets.
Which IP address should be used to do this?
A. Virtual IP (VIP)
B. Mapped IP (MIP)
C. NetScaler IP (NSIP)
D. Subnet IP (SNIP)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is configuring user authentication on the NetScaler Gateway. The administrator wants to use the same login name that is used to log into Windows-based domain joined workstations.
Which Server Logon Name Attribute should be used?
A. memberOf
B. displayName
C. sAMAccountName
D. userAccountControl
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Two StoreFront servers in an environment need to be addressed with a single URL.
Which feature should a Citrix Administrator enable to meet this requirement?
A. SSL VPN
B. Load Balancing
C. Integrated Caching
D. Application Firewall
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two steps must a Citrix Administrator complete to configure the SSL Offloading feature on a NetScaler appliance? (Choose two.)
A. Create a DNS virtual server.
B. Configure an AAA virtual server.
C. Create an SSL VPN virtual server.
D. Create a load balancing virtual server.
E. Import a valid certification-key pair and bind it to the virtual server.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
A Citrix Administrator needs to mask the server name used by a web server, without exposing the web server virtual directory structure. 1Y0-253 dumps
Which policy should the administrator use to complete this task?
A. Responder
B. Content Filtering
C. Content Switching
D. URL Transformation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A Citrix Administrator is replacing an expired SSL certificate bound to a virtual server.
The established ICA connections to the virtual server will display as _______. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. logged off
B. terminated
C. disconnected
D. uninterrupted
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
At the onset of a XenDesktop 7.5 with NetScaler Gateway 10.5 proof-of-concept, users report they are unable to access desktop and server OS machines.
Which configuration might be preventing users from accessing desktop and server OS machines?
A. Single-hop DMZ with StoreFront
B. Double-hop DMZ with StoreFront
C. Single-hop DMZ with Web Interface
D. Double-hop DMZ with Web Interface
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft SharePoint Applications
Exam Name: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
Exam Code: 70-480
Total Questions: 205 Q&As
70-480 dumps
QUESTION 1
You develop an HTML application that is located at www.adventure-works.com. The application must load JSON data from www.fabrikam.com.
You need to choose an approach for loading the data.
What should you do?
A. Add a crossdomain.xml file to the second server.
B. Configure Cross-Origin Resource Sharing (CORS) on the servers.
C. Load the data in a JavaScript timeout callback.
D. Reference the remote data as an XML resource.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are creating a rotating image of a company logo.
The logo must spin on a horizontal axis and on a vertical axis.
You need to use the least amount of development effort to meet the requirement.
What should you do?
A. Create an Image Spinner object, load the image into the spinner, and set the horizontal and vertical rotation properties.
B. Create a Canvas Globe transform and set the image as the globe object. Set the horizontal and vertical rotation properties.
C. Create a single Canvas 3D transform and load the image into it. Set the rotation properties.
D. Create a Canvas 2D transform and set the image to rotate horizontally and vertically.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are developing a web page that consumes a Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) service. The page includes the following code segment.  70-480 dumps
var xhr = new XMLHttpRequest() ;
The page uses the xhrHandler() method to listen for changes to the request status of the WCF service calls. It uses the xmlToJavaScript() method to convert the response from the WCF service to a JavaScript object.
The xhrHandler() method must be called automatically each time the request status changes.
You need to add the event handler to the request object.
Which line of code should you use?
A. xhr.onCallback = xhrHandler;
B. xhr.onreadystatechange = xhrHandler;
C. xhr.readyState = xhrHandler;
D. xhr.status = xhrHandler;
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are developing a web application that uses web workers to process images extracted from an HTML5 CANVAS object on a web page.
You need to pass messages between the web workers and the web page.
Which three types of objects should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)
A. JSON
B. Window
C. Parent
D. String
E. JavaScript
F. DOM
Correct Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION 5
You are developing an HTML5 web application and are styling text.
You need to use the text-transform CSS property.
Which value is valid for the text-transform property?
A. Lowercase
B. Blink
C. Line-through
D. 20px
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You are developing an HTML5 web application and are styling text.
You need to use the text-transform CSS property.
Which values are valid for the text-transform property?
A. hidden
B. blink
C. capitalize
D. line-through
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are developing an HTML5 page. The page includes the following code. 70-480 dumps
70-480 dumps
The inner paragraph must be exactly 15 pixels from the top left corner of the outer paragraph. You set the left style for the inner paragraph to the appropriate value.
You need to set the position property of the inner paragraph.
Which value should you use?
A. absolute
B. static
C. fixed
D. relative
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are developing an HTML5 web application for a surveyor company that displays topographic images.
The application must:
Display the topographic images at different zoom levels without loss of detail
Print the topographic images without loss of detail
Work from only one source file for each topographic image
You need to ensure that the topographic images display according to the requirements.
Which HTML5 element should you use?
A. SVG
B. CANVAS
C. SAMP
D. AREA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are developing a web page that will be divided into three vertical sections. The main content of the site will be placed in the center section. The two outer sections will contain advertisements.
You have the following requirements:
The main content section must be set to two times the width of the advertising sections.
The layout must be specified by using the CSS3 flexible box model.
You need to ensure that the visual layout of the page meets the requirements.
Which CSS3 property should you use?
A. box-orient
B. box-flex-group
C. box-flex
D. box-direction
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are developing a web application that consumes services from a third-party application. A web worker processes the third-party application requests in the background. 70-480 dumps
A page in the application instantiates the web worker process.
You need to establish two-way communications between the web worker process and the page.
Which two actions will achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. From the web worker, use the onconnect event handler of the main page to capture events.
B. From the main page, use the onmessage event handler of the web worker to capture events.
C. From the web worker, use the onmessage event handler of the main page to capture events.
D. From the main page, use the onconnect event handler of the web worker to capture events.
Correct Answer: B,C

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 70-410
Total Questions: 503 Q&As

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an active directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DCS. DCS has a server core installation of windows server 2012. You need to uninstall Active Directory from DCS manually. Which tool should you use?
A. The Remove-WindowsFeature cmdlet
B. the dsamain.exe command
C. the ntdsutil.exe command
D. the Remove-ADComputer cmdlet
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that hosts the primary DNS zone for contoso.com. All client computers are configured to use DC1 as the primary DNS server. You need to configure DC1 to resolve any DNS requests that are not for the contoso.com zone by querying the DNS server of your Internet Service Provider (ISP).
What should you configure?
A. Name server (NS) records
B. Condition& forwarders
C. Forwarders
D. Naming Authority Pointer (NAPTR) DNS resource records (RR)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a file server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
5erver2 contains a shared folder named Home. Home contains the home folder of each user. All users have the necessary permissions to access only their home folder. 70-410 dumps A user named User1 opens the Home share as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-410 dumps
You need to ensure that all users see only their own home folder when they access Home.
What should you do from Server2?
A. From Windows Explorer, modify the properties of Home.
B. From Server Manager, modify the properties of the volume that contains Home.
C. From Windows Explorer, modify the properties of the volume that contains Home.
D. From Server Manager, modify the properties of Home.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 8.
You deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install a new client-server application named App1 on Server1 and on the client computers.
The client computers must use TCP port 6444 to connect to App1 on Server1. Server1 publishes the information of App1 to an intranet server named Server2 by using TCP port 3080. You need to ensure that all of the client computers can connect to App1. The solution must ensure that the application can connect to Server2.
Which Windows Firewall rule should you create on Server1?
A. an inbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 3080
B. an outbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 3080
C. an outbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 6444
D. an inbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 6444
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You work as an administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. All servers in the ABC.com domain, including domain controllers, have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. ABC.com’s user accounts are located in an organizational unit (OU), named ABCStaff. 70-410 dumps
ABC.com’s managersbelong to a group, named ABCManagers. You have been instructed to create a new Group Policy object (GPO) that should be linked to the ABCStaffOU, but not affect ABC.com’s managers.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider removing the user accounts of the managers from the ABCStaff OU.
B. You should consider configuring the new GPO’s WMI filter.
C. You should consider adding the user accounts of ABC.com’s managers to the Admins group.
D. You should consider adding the user accounts of ABC.com’s managers to the localAdministrators group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. 70-410 pdf
You need to configure a central store for the Group Policy Administrative Templates. What should you do on DC1?
A. From Server Manager, create a storage pool.
B. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the SYSVOL\contoso.com\policies folder.
C. From Server Manager, add the Group Policy Management feature
D. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the NETLOGON share.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You run a Windows 2012 R2 Hyper-V Role Server, you need to shrink the size of files.vhd( 200GB ). Using the Edit Virtual Disk Wizard what option should you choose.
A. Compact
B. Shrink
C. Resize
D. Convert
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. An application named Appl.exe is installed on all client computers. Multiple versions of Appl.exe are installed on different client computers. Appl.exe is digitally signed. You need to ensure that only the latest version of Appl.exe can run on the client computers.
What should you create?
A. An application control policy packaged app rule
B. A software restriction policy certificate rule
C. An application control policy Windows Installer rule
D. An application control policy executable rule
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains the user accounts and the computer accounts for laptops and desktop computers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to OU1. 70-410 dumps You need to ensure that the configuration settings in GP1 are applied only to the laptops in OU1. The solution must ensure that GP1 is applied automatically to new laptops that are added to OU1. What should you do?
A. Modify the GPO Status of GP1.
B. Configure the WMI Filter of GP1.
C. Modify the security settings of GP1.
D. Modify the security settings of OU1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is a member of a workgroup. You need to configure a local Group Policy on Server1 that will apply only to nonadministrators.
Which tool should you use?
A. Server Manager
B. Group Policy Management Editor
C. Group Policy Management
D. Group Policy Object Editor
Correct Answer: D

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