QUESTION 1
Sales reps at AW Computing need assistance from product Salesforce https://www.leads4pass.com/adm-211.html dumps managers when selling certain products. Product managers do not have access to Opportunities but need to gain access when assisting on a specific deal. How can the system administrator accomplish this?
A. Notify the product manager using opportunity update reminders
B. Use similar opportunities to show opportunities related to the product manager
C. Enable account teams and allow users to add the product manager
D. Enable sales teams and allow users to add the product manager
Correct Answer: D
ADM-211
QUESTION 2
The following can be done by a System Admin to a standard field.
A. Change the field label
B. Add help text
C. Add/edit values of a picklist
D. Delete the field
E. All of the above
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Who can manually share records?
A. The record owner
B. The record owner’s manager
C. The record owner’s manager’s manager
D. The system administrator
E. All of the above
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
If Field Level Security prevents a user from viewing the ADM-211 vce Credit Card field on the Opportunity record, the user will also be prevented from seeing this field (choose all that apply)
A. In a related list
B. In search results
C. In reports
D. In list views
E. All of the above
F. None of the above
Correct Answer: E
ADM-211
QUESTION 5
AW Computing needs to track the ADM-211 pdf manufacturer and model for specific computers and laptops. How can the system administrator ensure that manufacturer selected influences the values available for model.
A. Create a multi-select picklist field that includes both manufacturers and models.
B. Create a lookup field from the manufacturer object to the model object
C. Create a manufacturer field as a controlling picklist and the model as a dependent picklist
D. Create a manufacturer field as the dependent picklist and the model as the controlling picklist.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following are true about formula fields?
A. They are read-only
B. They will not display on record edit pages
C. They will not display on record detail pages
D. They are not searchable
E. They will not display on reports
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
The system administrator has been asked to ADM-211 dumps create a way to track Shipments of products to customers. Shipments should be closely tied to the Opportunity record and there may be more than one shipment record per Opportunity and the Opportunity should be required (i.e. Users cannot save a Shipment record without associating it to an Opportunity). The system administrator should create.
A. A cross object formula displaying Opportunity ID on the Shipment record
B. A Master – Detail relationship on the Shipment object to the Opportunity object
C. A lookup relationship on the Opportunity object to the Shipment object
D. A lookup relationship with a lookup filter from Opportunity to Shipment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You will need a security token to ADM-211 exam access Salesforce via (choose all that apply)
A. Import Wizard
B. Data Loader
C. Salesforce for Outlook
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: BC

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Question No : 1
Which of the following is most accurate with respect to designing high availability within the Enterprise Campus network?
A. High availability at and between the Distribution and Access layers is as simple as redundant switches and redundant Layer 3 connections
B. Non-deterministic traffic patterns require a highly available modular topology design
C. Distribution layer high availability design includes redundant switches and Layer 3 equal-cost load sharing connections to the switched Access and routed Core layers, with a Layer 3 link between the Distribution switches to support summarization of routing information from the Distribution to the Core
D. Default gateway redundancy allows for the failure of a redundant Distribution switch without affecting endpoint connectivity
Answer: D
300-320
Question No : 2
Which OSPF option can you configure to latest 300-320 dumps connect two parts of a partitioned backbone through a nonbackbone area?
A. route summarization
B. a virtual link
C. an NSSA
D. a static OSPF neighbor
Answer: B

Question No : 3
Two recently merged companies are using EIGRP and RIP. Which two strategies can facilitate a smooth migration? (Choose two.)
A. Create an OSPF instance between EIGRP and RIP routing domains.
B. Redistribute routing information between the RIP and EIGRP protocols.
C. Add EIGRP and then remove RIP on the acquired company network.
D. Use the EIGRP administrative distance to migrate one site at a time.
E. Use static routes in place of dynamic routing between companies.
Answer: B,C
300-320
Question No : 4
Why is QoS important for in-band management?
A. It supports remote management when traffic volume is high.
B. It supports proper routing.
C. It supports network security against DoS attacks and worm outbreaks.
D. It supports network redundancy.
Answer: A

Question No : 5
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)
A. only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B. only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C. only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D. only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E. the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F. the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
Answer: A,F

Question No : 6
A designer should have which three technologies in the latest 300-320 network before configuring MPLS Layer 3 VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. MPLS
B. LDP
C. Cisco Express Forwarding
D. VSS
E. vPC
F. VRRP
Answer: A,B,C

Question No : 7
When designing remote access to the Enterprise Campus network for teleworkers and mobile workers, which of the following should the designer consider?
A. It is recommended to place the VPN termination device in line with the Enterprise Edge firewall, with ingress traffic limited to SSL only
B. Maintaining access rules, based on the source IP of the client, on an internal firewall drawn from a headend RADIUS server is the most secure deployment
C. VPN Headend routing using Reverse Route Injection (RRI) with distribution is recommended when the remote user community is small and dedicated DHCP scopes are in place
D. Clientless SSL VPNs provide more granular access control than SSL VPN clients (thin or thick), including at Layer7
Answer: D

Question No : 8
In which OSI layer does IS-IS operate?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
Answer: C

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Vendor: HP
Exam Code: HP0-Y50
Exam Name: Architecting HP FlexNetwork Solutions
Version: Demo

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HP0-Y50

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
The exhibit shows a proposed design for a data center network infrastructure. The exhibit shows two racks
for simplicity. The data center HP0-Y50 will actually include more racks.
The customer has these key requirements:
The customer can scale any application and easily install new hardware that supports that application
The network supports vMotion for live migration of virtual machine (VMs)
How should the network architect change the proposed design to meet the customer requirements?
A. Replace the rack servers with blade enclosures
B. Add more links between the servers and the access layer
C. Remove routing from the access layer and extend VLANs to multiple racks
D. Add a distribution layer between the access layer and the core
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
The exhibit shows the topology for an enterprise LAN with an on-site data center. The intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF) group of HP 5500 Series switches supports a group of computers that require very high availability to the data center. Therefore, the customer has requested a backup gigabit fiber link implement Open Shortest HP0-Y50 exam Path First (OSPF) in a single area.
Which tasks should the network architect complete to ensure that the HP 5500 IRF group selects the correct path to the data center during normal operation?
A. Change the reference bandwidth on the VLAN 100 interfaces to 20000
B. Set the cost on the VLAN 100 interfaces to 2 Set the cost for the VLAN 101 interfaces to 80
C. Change the reference bandwidth on the VLAN 101 interfaces to 1000
D. Change the VLAN 101 interfaces as silent interfaces
E. Change the reference bandwidth to 80000 on all routing devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A customer has Voice IP (VoIP) phones that support Link Layer Discovery Protocol Media Endpoint Discovery (LLDP-MED). The phase need to receive their VLAN ID using this protocol. The network architect is proposing HP 5500-48G-PoE+EI switches. Each user computer connects to the phone, which then connects to the Ethernet jack. LLDP is enabled on the HP0-Y50 switch. Each Edge port is trunk port that permits VLAN 10 (the user VLAN) and VLAN 20 (the voice VLAN).
Which other setting recommended on the edge port?
A. The voice VLAN is enabled
B. The PVID is set to VLAN 20
C. LLDP Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) compliance enabled
D. The LLDP voice VLAN ID is set to 20
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A customer wants a simple solution for deploying virtual services at a branch. Which devices support modules running a VMware ESXi hypervisor? (Select two)
A. HP 2920 Switch Series
B. HP MSR30 Router Series
C. HP 5400 zl Switch Series
D. HP 7500 Switch Series
E. HP VSR1000 Virtual Services Routers
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
What correctly describes one trend that is changing how network architects must design the data center network infrastructure?
A. Applications are drawing on more and HP0-Y50 vce more locally stored data, which causes customers to favor blade servers and blade enclosures
B. Applications are considering on single, highly available mainframes, driving the need for 10G connections to the server edge
C. Applications are increasingly virtualized, which requires architects to implement routing at the access layer to segment each rack into its own VLAN
D. Applications are scaling out across multiple servers, increasing communications between servers distributed across the data center
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A network architect is planning an intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF) group. What should the network architect implement to protect against a split IRF group?
A. Distributed Trunking (DT)
B. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
C. Multi-Active Detections (MAD)
D. Rapid Ring Protection Protocol (RRPP)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What is the preferred time for completing racking and labeling of equipment for a new implementation?
A. After the scheduled outage HP0-Y50 has begun and initial tests have indicated success
B. Before the scheduled outage
C. At any time between the beginning of the scheduled outage and the point of no return
D. At the beginning of the scheduled outage
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A network architect has collected data on link utilization. When analyzing link utilization, what is the general guideline?
A. You upgrade a link that is often used at more than 50 percent utilization
B. You upgrade a link when it reaches 100 percent utilization
C. You upgrade a link if it sometimes peaks at more than 50 percent utilization
D. You upgrade a link when it reaches 25 to 30 percent utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What are information technology Service Management (ITSM) framework, such as the infrastructure Technology Infrastructure Library (ITILv3) and The Open Group Architecture HP0-Y50 dumps Framework (TOGAF)?
A. They are Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standards that provide evolving guidelines and best practices for IT design and management
B. They are high-level approaches that provide recommendations and best practices for IT design management
C. They are industry-wide standards that provide guidelines for enterprise design and management
D. They are Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standards that define proper network design
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
If a network HP0-Y50 architect is planning a secure device management policy, why would administrators need to generate SSH keys on network infrastructure devices?
A. To authenticate managers with a more secure method than passwords
B. To encrypt management traffic and also authenticate managers with asymmetric
C. To authenticate managers and assign them privileges according to their identity
D. To encrypt management traffic related to the CLI
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
You need to ensure that developers can connect to 70-494 Dumps a Windows Azure role by using RDP. What should you do?
A. Export a certificate with a private key. Upload the .pfx file to the Management Certificates section on the Azure Management Portal.
B. Export a certificate without a private key. Upload the .cer file to the Management Certificates section on the Azure Management Portal.
C. Export a certificate without a private key. Upload the .cer file to the Certificates section under the TranscodeWorkerRole hosted service on the Azure Management Portal.
D. Export a certificate with a private key. Upload the .pfx file to the Certificates section under the TranscodeWorkerRole hosted service on the Azure Management Portal.
Correct Answer: D Explanation

70-494

QUESTION 2
You need to set the cookie that will be used by the header as defined in the business requirements. Which code segment should you use to replace the existing VideoAdminAttribute class in 70-494 VideoAdminAttributes.es?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D Explanation

QUESTION 3
You are creating a new authentication system that uses an HTTP header value. The existing authentication system must 70-494 pdf continue to operate normally.
You need to implement the custom authentication.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Create a class derived from ActionResult and check for a valid HTTP header value in the ExecuteResult method. Change all actions to return this new class.
B. Create an HttpHandler to check for a valid HTTP header value in the ProcessRequest method.
C. Create an HttpModule and check for a valid HTTP header value in the AuthenticateRequest event.
D. Create a class derived from AuthorizeAttribute and check for a valid HTTP header value in the AuthorizeCore method. Change usages of the existing AuthorizeAttribute to download use the new class.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
You need to maximize performance of video delivery.
Which code segment should you use as the body of the GetVideoStream function in the 70-494 exam videoController class?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A Explanation

QUESTION 5
The transcode.exe utility activates its license online when it is installed. You need to ensure that the registration of the transcode utility is handled as specified in its license. Which method should you add to the 70-494 vce TranscodeWorkerRole class?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A Explanation

QUESTION 6
You need to ensure that all the MVC controllers are secure. Which code segment should you use as the body for the 70-494 CreateController method in AdminVerifierFactory.es?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
From which location can https://www.leads4pass.com/300-208.html dumps you run reports on endpoint profiling?
A. Reports > Operations > Catalog > Endpoint
B. Operations > Reports > Catalog > Endpoint
C. Operations > Catalog > Reports > Endpoint D. Operations > Catalog > Endpoint
Correct Answer: B

300-208

QUESTION 2
Which two services are included in the Cisco 300-208 ISE posture service? (Choose two.)
A. posture administration
B. posture run-time
C. posture monitoring
D. posture policing
E. posture catalog
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
What is a requirement for 300-208 pdf posture administration services in Cisco ISE?
A. at least one Cisco router to store Cisco ISE profiling policies
B. Cisco NAC Agents that communicate with the Cisco ISE server
C. an ACL that points traffic to the Cisco ISE deployment
D. the advanced license package must be installed
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about Cisco NAC Agents that 300-208 are installed on clients that interact with the Cisco ISE profiler are true? (Choose two.)
A. They send endpoint data to AAA servers.
B. They collect endpoint attributes.
C. They interact with the posture service to enforce endpoint security policies.
D. They block access from the network through noncompliant endpoints.
E. They store endpoints in the Cisco ISE with their profiles.
F. They evaluate clients against posture policies, to enforce requirements.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 5
What steps must you perform to deploy a CA-signed identify 300-208 dumps certificate on an ISE device?
A. 1. Download the CA server certificate.
2.Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
3.Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4.Install the issued certificate on the ISE.
B. 1. Download the CA server certificate.
2.Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
3.Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4.Install the issued certificate on the CA server.
C. 1. Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
2.Download the CA server certificate.
3.Access the ISE server and submit the CA request.
4.Install the issued certificate on the CA server.
D. 1. Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
2.Download the CA server certificate.
3.Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4.Install the issued certificate on the ISE.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
What implementation must be 300-208 vce added to the WLC to enable 802.1X and CoA for wireless endpoints?
A. the ISE
B. an ACL
C. a router
D. a policy server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are the 300-208 initial steps must you perform to add the ISE to the WLC?
A. 1. With a Web browser, establish an HTTP connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Administration > Authentication > New.
3. Enter server values to begin the configuration.
B. 1. With a Web browser, establish an FTP connection to the WLC pod.
2.Navigate to Security > Administration > New.
3.Add additional security features for FTP authentication.
C. 1. With a Web browser, establish an HTTP connection to the WLC pod.
2.Navigate to Authentication > New.
3.Enter ACLs and Authentication methods to begin the configuration.
D. 1. With a Web browser connect, establish an HTTPS connection to the WLC pod.
2.Navigate to Security > Authentication > New.
3.Enter server values to begin the configuration.
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 640-692
Exam Name: Supporting Cisco routing and Switching Network Devices
Version: Demo

640-692

QUESTION 1
Which layer of the IOS model defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is controlled?
A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which type if memory is used to permanently 640-692 store the Cisco IOS software?
A. Flash
B. DRAM
C. SRAM
D. NVRAM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the default operating mode you are initially logging into a router?
A. global configuration
B. privileged EXEC
C. ROM monitor
D. user EXEC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two of the following are component 640-692 of WAN connection? (Choose two)
A. router
B. switch
C. CSU/DSU
D. Hub
E. Bridge
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
A null modem cable uses which adapter type?
A. RJ-11
B. RJ-45
C. RS-323
D. RS-232
E. USB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
TFTP is a simple protocol files, such as a Cisco 640-692 IOS or configuration file, from one device to another. Which device cannot be configured to be used as a TFTP server?
A. Cisco router
B. Cisco switch
C. Computer
D. Modem
E. Cisco wireless LAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which command sends an echo request packet to the largest host and then waits for an echo response message?
A. telnet
B. connect
C. access
D. echo
E. ping
Correct Answer: E

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070-462

QUESTION 1
You develop a Microsoft 070-462 vce SQL Server 2012 server database that supports an application. The application
contains a table that has the following definition:
CREATE TABLE Inventory
(ItemID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
ItemsInStore int NOT NULL,
ItemsInWarehouse int NOT NULL)
You need to create a computed column that returns the sum total of the ItemsInStore and
ItemsInWarehouse values for each row.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. ALTER TABLE Inventory ADD TotalItems AS ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
B. ALTER TABLE Inventory ADD ItemsInStore – ItemsInWarehouse = TotalItemss
C. ALTER TABLE Inventory ADD TotalItems = ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
D. ALTER TABLE Inventory ADD TotalItems AS SUM(ItemsInStore, ItemslnWarehouse);
Correct Answer: A Explanation

QUESTION 2
You develop a Microsoft 070-462 pdf SQL Server 2012 database. You create a view from the Orders and OrderDetails tables by using the following definition.
You need to improve the performance of the view by persisting data to disk. What should you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Create an AFTER trigger on the view.
C. Modify the view to use the WITH VIEW_METADATA clause.
D. Create a clustered index on the view.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects.
You create the 070-462 Airline_Schedules table.
You need to store the departure and arrival dates and times of flights along with time zone information.
What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Correct Answer: I

QUESTION 4
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a stored procedure. You need to supply the stored procedure with https://www.leads4pass.com/70-462.html multiple event names and their dates as parameters. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Correct Answer: E Explanation

Read more: https://www.examsdemo.com/cisco-exam-300-101-pdf/

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Version: Demo

300-101

QUESTION 1
Prior to enabling PPPoE in a virtual private dialup 300-101 network group, which task must be completed?
A. Disable CDP on the interface.
B. Execute the vpdn enable command.
C. Execute the no switchport command.
D. Enable QoS FIFO for PPPoE support.
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation:
Enabling PPPoE in a VPDN Group
Perform this task to enable https://www.leads4pass.com/300-101.html  dumps PPPoE in a virtual private dial-up network (VPDN) group.
Restrictions
This task applies only to releases prior to Cisco IOS Release 12.2(13)T.
SUMMARY STEPS
1.enable
2.configure terminal
3.vpdn enable
4.vpdn-group name
5.request-dialin
6.protocol pppoe DETAILED STEPS Command or Action Purpose Step 1 enable Enables privileged EXEC mode. Example: · Enter your password if Router> enable prompted. Step 2 configure 300-101 terminal Enters global configuration mode. Example: Router# configure terminal Step 3 vpdn enable Enables virtual private dialup Example: networking. Router(config)# vpdn enable Step 4 vpdn-group name Associates a VPDN group with a Example: customer or VPDN profile. Router(config)# vpdn-group group1 Step 5 request-dialin Creates a request-dialin VPDN Example: subgroup. Router(config-vpdn)# request-dialin Step 6 protocol pppoe Enables the VPDN 300-101 exam subgroup to Example: establish PPPoE Router(config-vpdn-req-in)# pro tocol pppoe

QUESTION 2
A network engineer has been asked to ensure 300-101 that the PPPoE connection is established and authenticated using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can be used for authentication in this manner?
A. PAP
B. dot1x
C. IPsec
D. CHAP
E. ESP
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Explanation: With PPPoE, the two authentication options are PAP and CHAP. When CHAP is enabled on an interface and a remote device attempts to connect to it, the access server sends a CHAP packet to https://www.leads4pass.com/300-101.html dumps the remote device. The CHAP packet requests or “challenges” the remote device to respond. The challenge packet consists of an ID, a random number, and the host name of the local router.
When the remote device receives the challenge packet, it concatenates the ID, the remote device’s password, and the random number, and then encrypts all of it using the remote device’s password. The remote device sends the results 300-101 back to the access server, along with the name associated with the password used in the encryption process. When the access server receives the response, it uses the name it received to retrieve a password stored in its user database.
The retrieved password should be the same password the remote device used in its encryption process. The access server then encrypts the concatenated information with the newly retrieved  password–if the result matches the result sent in the response packet, authentication succeeds. The benefit of using CHAP authentication is that the remote device’s password is never transmitted in clear text (encrypted). This prevents other devices from stealing it and gaining illegal access to the ISP’s network.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/route2.html

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QUESTION 1
Which four features are provided by Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose four.)
A. Scheduling of video conference calls
B. Built-in-bridge functionality for multiparty video conferences
C. SIP-H.323 protocol interworking
D. Centralized management of conference resources
E. SMTP email event notification
F. Endpoint configuration backup and restore
G. Cisco TelePresence endpoint automated redundancy
H. Automated resource optimization
Correct Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 2
Which three features are supported by Cisco TMSPE? (Choose three.)
A. Simplified provisioning
B. LDAP user import
C. Scheduling via Microsoft Outlook
D. FindMe
E. Jabber for Windows
F. Automatic endpoint upgrades
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 3
Management wants to modify Cisco TMS to allow users to configure the call behavior with their associated devices and dial from a single ID. Which feature needs to be enabled and configured?
A. Smart Scheduler
B. Low-touch Provisioning
C. FindMe
D. CMR Provisioning
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration item shown in the exhibit should be used to assign the internal and external video communication server address for this group of users?
A. User Settings > Video Address pattern
B. Administrative Tools > User Settings
C. Configuration Template > Edit Template
D. User Import > Configuration
Correct Answer: C

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